Heavy sales of umbrellas during a rain storm is an example of which of the following? Group of answer choices A trend A causal relationship A fad A coincidence None of the above

Answer:

$1,702 , $1,497, and $1,957

Explanation:

The computation of the total cost is shown below:

Particulars Strawberry Vanilla Chocolate

Direct Labor $766          $841  $1,141

Direct Material  $816          $516  $616

Overhead   $120               $140        $200

                        (60 × 2)           (70 × 2)   (100 ×2)

Total Cost   $1,702           $1,497    $1,957

We simply added the direct labor cost, direct material cost and the overhead cost so that the total cost could come

Answer:

1.806

Explanation:

The computation of expected payoff value is shown below:

= Worth of sports car × probability of winning from a single bottle purchase + payoff from a loss × (1 - probability of winning from a single bottle purchase)

= $215,000 × 0.0000084 + 0 × (1 - 0.0000084)

= 1.806 + 0

= 1.806

We simply applied the above formula to determine the expected payoff value

The expected payoff value of the contest with a winning probability of 0.0000084 for a prize of $215,000 is $1.80 per bottle purchased. Since purchasing a bottle likely costs more, this would result in a loss over time.

The student is asking about the expected value of participating in a contest where the probability of winning from a single bottle purchase is 0.0000084, and the prize is a Lamborghini sports car worth $215,000. To calculate the expected payoff value, we use the formula for expected value (EV):

EV = (Probability of Winning) × (Value of Prize) + (Probability of Losing) × (Value of Non-Winning)

Since the value of not winning is $0, the formula simplifies to:

EV = (Chance of Winning) × (Value of Prize)

Therefore:

EV = 0.0000084 × $215,000

EV = $1.80

This means that with the given probability, the expected payoff value is $1.80 per bottle purchased. However, since a bottle likely costs more than $1.80, over time, participants are expected to lose money on average, should they repeatedly enter the contest. This is an example of the house having an advantage.

Answer:

The total cost is $1,796,600

Explanation:

Fixed costs are costs that do not change with the change in the volume of good or service sols, but under certain circumstances, when the fixed cost is a direct cost, it can vary on a per unit basis.

Variable costs are costs that change with the change of the volume of goods or service.

Total number of units = 138,200

variable cost per unit = $8

Total variable cost = 8 × 138,200 = 1,105,600

Fixed cost per unit = $5

Total fixed cost = 5 × 138,200 = 691,000

Total cost = 1,105,600 + 691,000 = $1,796,600

The number of units started during November in the department was calculated to be 28,575 units, after accounting for the units completed and transferred out, the ending work-in-process inventory, and the beginning work-in-process inventory, all adjusted for their respective conversion completion percentages.

The student has asked: How many units were started during November in the department?

To solve this, let's use the following formula that works with the weighted-average method in process costing:

Units started = Units completed and transferred out + Ending work-in-process inventory - Beginning work-in-process inventory

Given:

- Units completed and transferred out of the department during the month = 28,000 units

- Ending work-in-process inventory = 6,300 units, 75% complete with respect to conversion costs

- November 1 work-in-process inventory = 8,300 units, 50% complete with respect to conversion costs

We calculate the equivalent units for the beginning inventory: 8,300 units * 50% = 4,150 equivalent units.

Then, we adjust the ending inventory for the percent completion: 6,300 units * 75% = 4,725 equivalent units.

Now we can calculate the number of units started during November:
Units started = 28,000 units (completed and transferred) + 4,725 units (ending inventory adjusted for completion) - 4,150 units (beginning inventory adjusted for completion) = 28,575 units started during November.

This calculation results in a total of 28,575 units being started during the month of November in that department.

The first phase of a comprehensive project risk assessment should be "to make sure the project is well defined, including all deliverables, statement of work, and project scope".

Option: D

Explanation:

A comprehensive risk management framework (RMF) has been established and adopted to better manage the task risks by utilizing a well-defined mechanism in modern changing environment. Many ventures have been studied to determine the reasons of their failure and the risk components.

The RMF composed of six stages; identification of programs, risk analysis, risk evaluation, reaction development, contingency planning, and implementation and control. That procedure must be adapted to the unique circumstances of the task and the agency which undertakes it.

Answer:

For the price of $20 = $3,333.33

For the price of $21 = $3,500

Kindly go through the explanation for the other answers required.

Explanation:

(a)

C = q2 +wq = q2 + 10q

Firm's short run supply curve is its marginal cost (MC) schedule.

MC = dC / dq = 2q + 10

So, supply curve is: p = 2q + 10

Or,

q = (p - 10) / 2 = 0.5p - 5

Total industry supply, Q = 1,000 x q = 500p - 5,000

p = (Q + 5,000) / 500 [Industry supply curve]

When p = 20, Q = 500 x 20 - 5,000 = 5,000 [Number of diamonds supplied]

When p = 21, Q = 500 x 21 - 5,000 = 5,500

So, when P = 21, 500 more diamonds will be supplied.

(b)

(i)

If w = 0.002Q then

w = 0.002 x (1000q) [Since Q = 1000q]

w = 2q

C = q2 +wq = q2 + (2q)q = 3q2

So, MC = dC / dq = 6q

MC = 6 x (Q / 1000)

So, MC depends on Q.

(ii)

Long run supply schedule is when price = MC

p = 6q = 6 x (Q / 1000)

p = 3Q / 500 [Long run industry supply schedule]

(iii) When p = 20, Q = p x (500/3) = 20 x 500 / 3 = 3,333.33

(iv) When p = 21, Q = p x (500 / 3) = 21 x 500 / 3 = 3,500

(v) Short run supply curve is the positive part of MC.

p = 6q

Therefore, the SR supply curve is a straight line from origin, sloping upwards.

Final answer:

Explanation of short-run and long-run supply curves in Economics.

Explanation:

(a)

C = q2 +wq = q2 + 10q

Firm's short run supply curve is its marginal cost (MC) schedule.

MC = dC / dq = 2q + 10

So, supply curve is: p = 2q + 10

Or

q = (p - 10) / 2 = 0.5p - 5

Total industry supply, Q = 1,000 x q = 500p - 5,000

p = (Q + 5,000) / 500 [Industry supply curve]

When p = 20, Q = 500 x 20 - 5,000 = 5,000 [Number of diamonds supplied]

When p = 21, Q = 500 x 21 - 5,000 = 5,500

So, when P = 21, 500 more diamonds will be supplied.

(b)

(i)

If w = 0.002Q then

w = 0.002 x (1000q) [Since Q = 1000q]

w = 2q

C = q2 +wq = q2 + (2q)q = 3q2

So, MC = dC / dq = 6q

MC = 6 x (Q / 1000)

So, MC depends on Q.

(ii)

Long run supply schedule is when price = MC

p = 6q = 6 x (Q / 1000)

p = 3Q / 500 [Long run industry supply schedule]

(iii) When p = 20, Q = p x (500/3) = 20 x 500 / 3 = 3,333.33

(iv) When p = 21, Q = p x (500 / 3) = 21 x 500 / 3 = 3,500

(v) Short run supply curve is the positive part of MC.

p = 6q

Therefore, the SR supply curve is a straight line from origin, sloping upwards

Final answer:

To determine the financial advantage or disadvantage of buying part U16 from the outside supplier, compare the costs of producing internally to the cost of purchasing it. Subtract the cost of purchasing from the cost of producing and multiply by the number of units. Add the additional segment margin generated by freeing up space.

Explanation:

To determine the annual financial advantage or disadvantage of buying part U16 from the outside supplier, we need to compare the costs of producing it internally to the cost of purchasing it. The costs of producing internally include direct materials, direct labor, variable manufacturing overhead, supervisor's salary, depreciation of special equipment, and allocated general overhead. These costs sum up to $3.10 + $7.70 + $8.20 + $3.60 + $2.00 + $7.20 = $31.80 per unit.

If the company chooses to buy the part from the outside supplier, it would cost them $25.50 per unit. By subtracting the cost of purchasing from the cost of producing, we can calculate the annual financial advantage or disadvantage. (31.80 - 25.50) multiplied by 14,000 units would give us the answer.

Moreover, by freeing up the space used to produce part U16 internally, the company can generate an additional segment margin of $26,000 per year. So, we need to add this amount to the financial advantage or disadvantage calculated earlier.

Answer:

The extra profit earned is $10,000

Explanation:

First, let us lay out the information given;

number of fish caught = 20,000

total variable cost = $5,000

average fixed cost = $1

total fixed cost = average fixed cost × number of fishes

= 20,000 × 1 = $20,000

Total cost = 20,000 + 5,000 = $25,000

Next let us calculate the total amount realized from sales before the price jump;

market price = $3

Total amount from sales = 3 × 20,000 = $60,000

profit made = selling price - cost price

= 60,000 - 25,000 = $35,000

Next let us calculate amount realized after the price jump;

new market price = $3.50

Total amount from new sales = 3.50 × 20,000 = $70,000

Profit = sales revenue - cost = 70,000 - 25,000 = 45,000

Finally to calculate the extra profit made, we will find the difference between  new profit after price jump and the first profit made;

extra profit = new profit - old profit

= 45,000 - 35,000 = $10,000

Market expectations indicate that the 1-year Treasury securities rate will be higher than 6.5% in three years.

According to the expectations theory in finance, if the one-year Treasury securities yield is lower than the two-year Treasury securities yield, it suggests expectations of increasing interest rates. Given that the three-year Treasury securities yield 6% and the four-year Treasury securities yield 6.5%, we can infer that the market believes the rate on 1-year Treasury securities three years from now will be higher than 6.5%.

Final answer:

The business judgment rule illustrates that company directors have the most authority to manage a company, as opposed to shareholders. The answer is option d. This rule underscores directors' decision-making capabilities, which serve shareholder interests.

Explanation:

The business judgment rule is important because it reflects the principle that company directors, not shareholders, have the greatest latitude to run companies. The correct answer to the student's question is d. company directors; shareholders. This principle acknowledges that company directors are chosen for their expertise and ability to make informed decisions on behalf of the company, which in turn, serves the interests of the shareholders, the true owners of the company.

Shareholders typically do not have the necessary information or the incentive to manage the day-to-day operations or nominate board members. As firms grow and their business strategies lead to profitability, reliance on the managers' personal knowledge lessens, while the availability of company information increases, leading outside investors like bondholders and shareholders to provide financial capital more willingly.

Answer:

1.True

2.False

3.True

4.True

5.False

6.False

7.True

8.False

Explanation:

1. Measuring net income for a merchandiser is conceptually the same as for a service company.

Net Income = Sales - Expenses

2. For a merchandiser, sales less operating expenses is called gross profit.

Gross Profit = Sales less Cost of Sales

3. For a merchandiser, the primary source of revenues is the sale of inventory.

Merchandiser purchases inventory for resale.

4. Sales salaries and wages is an example of an operating expense.

Operating Expenses are expenses incurred to derive income in primary activities of a company

5. The operating cycle of a merchandiser is the same as that of a service company.

The service company can have client work outstanding at end of year but this differs from that of a merchandiser

6. In a perpetual inventory system, no detailed inventory records of goods on hand are maintained.

Detailed records are kept after every sale

7. In a periodic inventory system, the cost of goods sold is determined only at the end of the accounting period.

After a given period cost of sales and inventory balances are determined -opposite of perpetual

8. A periodic inventory system provides better control over inventories than a perpetual system.

Perpetual is even better as it keeps track of both inventory and cost of goods sold after every sale

Measuring net income for a merchandiser is conceptually the same as for service. Therefore, it's logically true.

For a merchandiser, sales less operating expenses is called gross profit. This is false.

For a merchandiser, the primary source of revenue is the sale of inventory. This is true.

Sales, salaries, and wages are an example of operating expenses. This is true.

The operating cycle of a merchandiser is the same as that of a service company. This is false.

In a perpetual inventory system, no detailed inventory records of goods on hand are maintained. This is false.

In a periodic inventory system, the cost of goods sold is determined only at the end of the accounting period. This is true.

A periodic inventory system provides better control over inventories than a perpetual system. This is false.

It should be noted that net income is the difference between sales and expenses. Gross profit is the sales less cost of sales.

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$811,540.16 would it cost her to buy such an annuity today

Solution:

Given

Annuity that would increase the profits by $65,000 a year over 25 years

The existing premium on these annuities is 6.25 a cent.

N                                                     25

I/YR                                           6.25%

PMT                                         $65,000

FV                                              $0.00

PV                                          $811,540.16

Answer:

labour related activity cost  per labour hour =  $339,018/ 12,400 = $27.34

Product Z9 =  $27.34  * 7900 =  $215,987

Product N0 = $27.34*4500 =  $123,031

Explanation:

Answer:

$943.77

Explanation:

We use the present value formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below:

Data provided in the question

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 11%  ÷ 2 = 5.5%

NPER = 9 years × 2 = 18 years

PMT = $1,000 × 10% ÷ 2 = $50

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the market price of the bond is $943.77

Answer:

1) Straight Line Depreciation

($52,000 - $7,000) / 5 ==> $45,000 / 5 = $9,000 (Year 1 to Year 5)

2) Double-declining-balance depreciation.

Rate = 1/5 = 20% x 2 = 40%

Year 1 = $52,000 x 40% => $20,800

Year 2 = (52,000 - 20,800) x 40% => $12,480

Year 3 = (52,000 - 20,800 - 12,480) x 40% => $7,488

Year 4 = (52,000 - 20,800 - 12,480 - 7,488) x 40% => $4,492.8

Year 5 = (52,000 - 20,800 - 12,480 - 7,488 - 4,492.8) x 40% => $2695.68

Depreciation for the computer system using straight-line method is \$9,000 annually. With double-declining-balance, it starts at \$20,800 for the first year and decreases each year as it's applied to the net book value, ensuring the final value doesn't drop below \$7,000 salvage value.

To calculate the depreciation of Copland Drugstore's new computer system using straight-line depreciation, we subtract the salvage value from the purchase price and then divide by the useful life. Thus, the yearly depreciation is (\$52,000 - \$7,000) / 5 = \$9,000. Over the 5-year period, the annual depreciation expense will stay constant at \$9,000.

For the double-declining-balance depreciation, we double the straight-line depreciation rate. The straight-line depreciation rate is 1 / 5 (20%), so the double-declining rate is 40%. For the first year, the depreciation is 40% of \$52,000, which equals \$20,800. From the second year onwards, the rate is applied to the net book value of the computer system at the start of each year (purchase cost - accumulated depreciation) until the salvage value is reached.

Depreciation: \$20,800

Depreciation: 40% of (\$52,000 - \$20,800) = \$12,480

Depreciation: 40% of (\$52,000 - \$20,800 - \$12,480) = \$7,488

And so on, adjusting the calculation each year to prevent the book value from falling below the salvage value.

Answer:

C) a debit to Held-to-Maturity Debt Investments for $26,000

Explanation:

The journal entry should be:

Dr Held-to-maturity debt investments 26,000

    Cr Cash 26,000

Since Amex Corporation is planning to hold the bonds until maturity, it must record the total investment (bonds' price plus brokerage fees) as held to maturity securities.

Investment in securities are generally classified as either:

Answer:

Easy pewsy

Explanation:

Get money

Buy Hella designer

In a limited partnership, general partners are automatically authorized to borrow money.

When two or more two people come up with the objective to manage the operation of a business by making an alliance by sharing capital for investment and profit or loss of the organization. The collaboration is said to be a partnership.

The general partners and limited partners are mainly two types of partners present in a limited partnership. The general partners are in charge of administering the firm and making commercial decisions.

The general partners have the authority to run the partnership and are also automatically authorized to borrow money on its behalf. This means that the general partners can obtain loans or other sources of finance.

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Answer:

$661,500

Explanation:

Given that

Bonds payable $700,000

Discount of issuance = $77,000

The computation of current carrying amount is shown below:-

Current carrying amount = Bonds payable - discount on bonds payable

Discount on bonds payable = Discount at issuance  (Issuance ÷ Years bonds payable)

= $77,000 × (10 ÷ 20)

= $38,500

Now we put it into formula

= $700,000 - $38,500

= $661,500

Answer:

a) $8

b) $4

c) Decrease

Explanation:

Background.

A call option as you probably know, is an agreement to buy an asset on or before a particular day at a price already determined in the agreement.

a) the Intrinsic value of the option is the market price minus the strike price.

Intrinsic Value = Market Price - Strike price

= $43 - $35

= $8 per share.

It is worthy of note that for an option, of the intrinsic value dips into negative figures it is just said to be 0.

b) To calculate the time value, we subtract the intrinsic value from the call premium

= Call Premium - Intrinsic value

= $12 - $8

= $4

c) The call option has 6 months to maturity and the dividends are to come in 3 months. Share prices usually drop after a dividend has been paid so because the call option matures in 6 months, the price of the call option will DECREASE owing to the Expected drop in stock price.

Answer:

FV in 5 years $8,654

FV in 10 years $12,482

FV in 20 years $25,965

Explanation:

Future value is the amount that includes the principal amount invested and interest earned on this amount including the compounding effect.

Formula for Future value is as follow

FV = PV ( 1 + r )^n

Where

PV = Present value = $6,000

r = rate of interest = 7.6%

FV= Future Value

5 years

n = numbers of year = 5

FV = $6,000 (1 + 7.6%)^5 = $8,654

10 years

n = numbers of year = 10

FV = $6,000 (1 + 7.6%)^10 = $12,482

20 years

n = numbers of year = 20

FV = $6,000 (1 + 7.6%)^20 = $25,965

Answer:

5 years = $8777.36

10yeras = $12,828.64

20years = $27,429.01

Explanation:

Future Value(FV) =?

INTEREST RATE= 7.6% daily = (0.076/365)

Present value = $6,000

A) Future value in 5 years

FV = PV ×(1 + r)^n

FV = $6000 × (1 + (0.076/365))^(5×365)

FV = $6000 ×1.462226748225

=$ 8,773.36

B.) 10 years

FV = $6000 × (1 + (0.076/365))^(10×365)

FV = $6000 × 2.138107063225316

FV = $12,828.64

C. 20 years

FV = $6000 × (1 + (0.076/365))^(20×365)

FV = $6000 × 4.5715018138139866

FV = $27,429.01

During the self-managing teams phase of team implementation, managers have withdrawn from the daily operations and are counseling teams.

Option: D

Explanation:

When business is in the form of start-up than it need huge attention from leading members like manager, employer, team leader, etc. But after training workers, employee and staff regarding their work and duties, the procedure they need to follow, timing, etc, the main leader concentrate more on counsel them, related to obstacles they face while performing their duties.

This is because after training and leasing some time to gain experience in firm, it is understood by manger that the team must have reached to self management, thus concentrating on daily operations is totally a work of team leader. But still when they need guidelines related to new strategies, ongoing improvement, physical and mental issues due to work load, how to remain in pace, etc manger counsel them.

During the performing stage of team development, managers often take a step back to function in a counseling role, indicative of self-managing teams. This stage reflects high levels of team cohesion and autonomy.

The phrase being sought in the question refers to a specific phase of team development in an organizational setting, where managers have stepped back from day-to-day operations to focus more on a counseling role with their teams. According to Tuckman's theory of group development, this describes the characteristics of self-managing teams, which are part of the performing stage. This is the fourth stage in group development, where the team has developed strong cohesion, is more autonomous, and managers typically take on more of an advisory role, having confidence in the team’s ability to direct itself and solve problems efficiently.

This phase contrasts with earlier stages such as the forming, storming, and norming stages, where teams are still developing their relationships, roles, standards, and methods for interaction and task completion. This understanding of team dynamics is valuable in today's workplace, where organizations form teams to respond to rapid changes due to technology, globalization, and other factors. Self-managing teams display the ability to adapt and perform well even under the complexities of modern organizational structures.

Answer:

Selective Perception

Explanation:

Selective perception refers to a psychological state wherein, an individual perceives and comprehends only that information he/she finds desirable, thereby ignoring the rest of the information during communication.

So, any of the viewpoints or ideas which appear conflicting to one's own are ignored and discarded under such a psychological state.

In the given case, Phoebe got excited during her presentation that she missed out upon hearing customer's questions. In such a state of excitement, her mind only perceived what she desired, thereby ignoring anything which appeared undesirable.

So post providing inappropriate answers, she went on with her presentation , i.e she got carried away in excitement. Such psychological state indicates the operation of selective perception.

Answer:

The company would report in a disclosure note accompanying its financial statements:

Lifo assigns an amount to cost of goods sold on the income statement that approximates its current cost; it also better matches current costs with revenues in computing gross profit.

Explanation:

Lifo assigns the highest amount to cost of goods sold - yielding the lowest gross profit and net income which also yields a temporary tax advantage by postponing payment of some income tax.

The tax of LIFO method would be $ 42,500 than the tax of FIFO method.

January 1, 2021  Inventory  ,  $950,000 (38,000 units at $25 each)

Purchases 116,000 units   $30 per unit = $ 3480,000

Sales  120,000

LIFO Ending Inventory 34,000 units at $ 25 = $ 850,000

LIFO Cost of Goods Sold = $ 3480,000+ $950,000-$ 850,000= $ 3580,000

If FIFO was used the ending Inventory would be  34,000 units at $ 30

= $ 1020,000

And FIFO Cost of Goods Sold =  $ 3480,000+ $950,000-$ 1020,000=

$ 3410,000.

There would be difference of $ 170,000 in the LIFO and FIFO Cost of goods sold. The LIFO COGS is $ 170,000 more than FIFO COGS .

That difference would also be in the income LIFO method. The income of LIFO would be $ 170,000 less therefore having ($ 170,000* 25%)  $ 42,500 less income tax.

Based on the amounts of inventory and the income tax rate, the LIFO liquidation profit would be $15,000.

First find the COGS:

= (116,000 x 30) + (4,000 x 25)

= $3,580,000

The LIFO liquidation profit is:

= (Sales - COGS) x ( 1 - Tax rate)

= ((120,000 x 30) - 3,580,000) x (1 - 25%)

= $15,000

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Answer:

Explanation:

1.

Petty Cash (200-50.6)  Dr.$149.4

Cash            Cr.$149.4

Freight In   Dr. $58.4

Postage      Dr.$40

Balloons Expense      Dr.$20

Meals Expense        Dr.$25

Cash                         Cr.$143.4  

2. Petty Cash  Dr.$50

   Bank/Cash   Cr.$50

Answer:

The correct answer is Benchmarking.

Explanation:

Benchmarking is a strategy that consists of establishing a benchmark in the market in order to implement best practices within our own organization. This strategy establishes a "model to follow" to adapt to the market and to be able to grow in the short term, for which reason the process or group of processes must be studied in depth in order to determine if it is applicable to our organizational performance.

Answer:

Part A. Total sales under the 25% price increase strategy is higher so it must be opted.

Part B. Must intervene by imposing higher taxes on the cigarettes to control its consumption and our future generations.

Explanation:

By using the price elasticity of demand formula, we can calculate the quantity consumption by increasing price by 25%.

The formula is as under:

E = [(Q2 – Q1)  /  (Q1 + Q2) / 2]    /     [(P2 – P1)  /  (P1 + P2) / 2]

Here

Q1 = Consumption before price alteration = 1,000 Packets

Q2 = This is the amount we want to calculate = ?

P1 = It is the initial price which is $6 per packet

P2 = It is 125% of the initial price. So

P2 = P1 * 125% = $7.5 per unit

E = It is price elasticity of Demand which is given in the question and is 0.8. Remember that it is negative.

By putting the values in the Formula, we have:

-0.8 = [(Q2 – 1,000) / (1,000 + Q2) /2]    /    [(7.5 – 6) / {(6 + 7.5) / 2]

-0.8 = [(Q2 – 1,000) / (500 + 0.5Q2)]      /    [1.5 / 6.75]

-0.8 * (1.5 / 6.75) = (Q2 - 1,000) / (500 + 0.5Q2)

-0.1777 * (500 + 0.5Q2) = Q2 – 1,000

-88.85  - 0.1777Q2 = Q2 – 1,000

-0.08885Q2 – Q2 = - 1,000 +  88.85

-1.08885Q2 = - 911.15

Q2 = 911.15 / 1.08885      = 837 Packets

Part A.

We will assess which strategy generates higher sales. The strategy that generates higher sales will be adopted.

Sales under $6 per packet pricing:

Total revenue at $6 / packet = 1,000 Packets * $6 per packet = $6,000

Total revenue (TR) at 7.5 price = 837 Packets × $7.5 per packet = $6,277.5

As the total sales under the 25% price increase strategy is higher so it must be opted.

Part B.

The government must intervene by increasing the taxes on "injurious to health" products and intervene this way to decrease the consumption of cigarettes as it is not good for health. Higher prices of the cigarettes will act as an obstacle for smokers and as a result they will smoke less cigarettes. This is an ethically correct recommendation.

Answer:

The correct answers are,

Income

Price of related goods

Tastes and preferences

The other options apart from these answers are either related with the quantity demanded or with the supply.

The determinants of demand are;

Income, price, tastes and preferences, prices of related goods and services, and expectations are the five key factors that affect demand.

Each of these factors has the potential to move the demand curve for an item or service to the left or right, indicating a change in demand.

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Answer:

$877.54 ( $1,000/[(1.064)(1.071))

Explanation:

Answer:

Pound depreciates from $2.0260/GBP to $ 1.9460/GBP

Amount borrowed = 5,000,000*2.026 =$10,130,000

Payment after 1 year = 5,000,000*1.07375*1.946 = $10,447,587.5

Dollar cost = (10,447,587.5/10,130,000 - 1)*100 = 3.135%

Pound appreciates from $2.0260/GBP to $ 2.1640/GBP

Amount borrowed = 5,000,000*2.026 =$10,130,000

Payment after 1 year = 5,000,000*1.07375*2.164 = $11,617,975

Dollar cost = (11,617,975/10,130,000 - 1)*100 = 14.688%

(a) The dollar cost of the debt is $10,445,125 if the pound depreciates to $1.9460/GBP, and (b) $11,617,375 if the pound appreciates to $2.1640/GBP.

Calculating the Dollar Cost of Debt:

Let's calculate the dollar cost of a debt taken by The Copper Mountain Group considering the fluctuation in the exchange rates.

Scenario a: Pound Depreciates from $2.0260/GBP to $1.9460/GBP

Initial Borrowing:

Interest Calculation:

Repayment:

Scenario b: Pound Appreciates from $2.0260/GBP to $2.1640/GBP

Initial Borrowing:

Interest Calculation:

Repayment:

Summary of Results:

Depreciation of Pound:

Appreciation of Pound: