How do sulfonylureas and meglitinides help to lower blood glucose levels?
A) Promoting beta cell secretion of insulin
B) Decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell
C) Increasing glucose formation from liver glycogen
D) Decreasing deamination of protein

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is B decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell.

Explanation:

Sulfonylureas and meglitidines are used for the treatment of diabetes.These drugs exerts their action by decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell.

   As a result the secreted insulin from beta cells of pancreas can easily binds to the insulin receptor in the target cell.The binding of insulin to the receptor helps in the activation of receptor.

       The activated receptor then further activates various enzymes that helps in the utilization of glucose by various body cells there by the decreasing the plasma glucose level.


Related Questions

Why might a species' "optimal" phenotype remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis?a. Directional selection b. Habitat tracking c. Gradual environmental change d. Saltational evolution e. Passive trends

Answers

Answer: Habitat tracking

Explanation:

The organism change their habitat based on the type of environment they are living in. The climate change so did the habitat and according to that the biota changed.

The number of species are always changing. As the environment change the resident population move to a place where there is a better suited environment for them.

The optimal phenotype in this case does not changes and this common response is called habitat tracking.

After finishing six pieces of toast with butter, Sally prepares a batch of brownies while eating large bowls of ice cream, yogurt, and cottage cheese. She then eats half a bag of cookies, an entire pizza, and three baked potatoes, even though she does not feel hungry. After eating, she feels guilty, ashamed, and sad but does not vomit or make any other efforts to eliminate the calories she consumed. Sally appears to meet criteria for
a. anorexia nervosab. bulimia nervosac. binge-eating disorderd. restrictive dieting

Answers

Answer: Binge-Eating Disorder

Explanation: Sally did not vomit the food away, and she ate way too much food in a short amount of time, which would be Binge-Eating Disorder.

"In Graves disease, thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) contain an active site that can mimic the active site of TSH to stimulate thyroid hormone production. One would expect TSI to cause:"

Answers

The question is incomplete. The complete question is:

"In Graves disease, thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) contain an active site that can mimic the active site of TSH to stimulate thyroid hormone production. One would expect TSI to cause:"

A.  An increase in thyroid gland size because of the trophic effect of TSH.

B.  A decrease in thyroid gland size because of competitive inhibition with TSH.

C.  No change in thyroid gland size because antibodies only recognize foreign particles.

D.  An immune response against TSH molecules.

Answer:

A.  An increase in thyroid gland size because of the trophic effect of TSH.

Explanation:

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is a trophic hormone and is released by the anterior pituitary gland. It targets the thyroid gland and stimulates it to release the thyroid hormones. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which the person produces antibodies such as thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that mimic the action of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).

These antibodies continually stimulate the thyroid gland to grow and produce thyroid hormones. The result is an abnormally enlarged thyroid gland. The affected individuals also develop peculiar edema behind the eyes that causes the eyes to protrude.

What type of division (meiosis or mitosis) does the diploid zygote of an animal have to go through (usually many times) in order to give rise to all of the cells in the adult body?

Answers

Answer:

Mitosis

Explanation:

A zygote is a fertilized egg. This zygote needs continuous growth in order to develop into a grown adult. The growth involves generating new somatic or body cells through cell division. A parent cell in the zygote divides to produce identical copies of itself. This way, genetic information is passed on the the new arising daughter cells. To do this, the parent cell must first replicate its DNA and the process of separating this duplicated DNA into two identical cells is known as mitosis.

Mitosis is a type of cell division that involves the production of daughter cells that are genetically identical copies of the parent cell and also the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

As cells divide, duplication occurs. As cell multiplies, growth is occurring in the organism. The zygote keeps undergoing growth division (mitosis) till it gives rise to all the cells in an adult.

On the other hand, Meiosis is also a type of cell division but it is a division mainly involved in reproduction not growth. Reproductive cells divide to give rise to daughter cells (gametes) that have a reduced number of chromosomes.

Some mice have a range of fur color that goes from white to dark brown. If the white mice and the dark brown mice are selected for while the intermediate colors become less frequent, this is an example of
A. directional selection
B. disruptive selection
C. none of the above
D. stabilizing selection

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is B. disruptive selection.

Explanation:

Disruptive selection, in this case, would drive the population to go to a white group and a dark brown group. This meaning that the population starts to divide ending up with two different populations.

An advantage of asexual reproduction is that
a) it enhances genetic variability in the species.
b) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions.
c) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
d) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.
e) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations.

Answers

Answer:

c) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species is the correct answer.

Explanation:

An advantage of asexual reproduction is that enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.

Asexual reproduction where offspring is produced from the single parent and it carries the genes of that parent.

In asexual reproduction, an organism is formed without the exchange of genetic material

In the asexual reproduction there no fusion of gametes,

Examples of asexual reproduction are fragmentation,binnary fission, spore formation, budding.

Advantage of asexual reproduction

occurs very rapidly.one parent is required for reproduction.The population increases quickly when the conditions are suitable.

Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers?

Answers

Final answer:

Herbivores lose energy when they eat primary producers due to the second law of thermodynamics and the conversion of energy to metabolic heat.

Explanation:

Energy is lost when herbivores eat primary producers due to the second law of thermodynamics, which states that energy is lost whenever it is converted from one form to another. As organisms consume other organisms, a significant amount of energy is lost as metabolic heat. This results in a decrease in the amount of energy available to the herbivores at the next trophic level, which impacts the overall energy flow in the ecosystem.

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Enchanted Rock State Natural Area is located in Central Texas. Enchanted Rock is a dome of granite. The area contains four easily identifiable communities. The table describes characteristics of each type of community in the area.

A student studying primary succession should focus on which of these communities?

A)
Open oak woodland


B)
Mesquite grassland


C)
Floodplain


D)
Granite rock

Answers

Answer:

D) Granite rock

Explanation:

Enchanted Rock is a dome of granite, so you would pick this answer choice.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

Final answer:

For primary succession studies, focus on the Granite Rock community at Enchanted Rock State Natural Area. This demonstrates how life begins in an area with no soil or living organisms.

Explanation:

A student studying primary succession should focus on the Granite Rock community at the Enchanted Rock State Natural Area. Primary succession is a sequence of ecological changes whereby life forms begin to inhabit an environment that previously had no life - typically a bare rock surface, like granite. In short, it's how life begins in an area with no soil or living organisms, therefore the Granite Rock community is the perfect example of primary succession happening as lichens and mosses break down the rock to form soil, promoting growth of more complex plant life.

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The nonmutant allele of the BRCA1 gene helps to suppress tumor formation in women who are heterozygous for the mutation. Women heterozygous for BRCA1 nevertheless have a 50% to 70% chance of developing breast cancer before age 70, and the usual reason is that the nonmutant allele is lost or inactivated in a lineage of cells. One possible mechanism for such "loss of heterozygosity" is:
A. germ cells in the affected individual develop a mutation in the nonmutant allele of BRCAL.
B. a somatic mutation in a breast cell inactivates the nonmutant BRCA1 allele.
C. a silent mutation occurs in the nonmutant BRCA1 allele.

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

A silent mutation has no effect on the gene activity and function hence option C is incorrect. Germ cells would affect the gametes produced, not the body's proteins hence the answer would be B.

Explain Pollan's assertion that both Chapman and the apple "have been sweetened beyond recognition. Figures of tart wildness, both have been thoroughly domesticated...in both cases a cheap, fake sweetness has been substituted for the real thing." Who/what else have we done this to? Why?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is apple and chapman

Explanation:

Because  Pollan means that both the apple and chapman have had their histories rewritten to be more simple and less interesting. The Disney/ storybook image paints Johnny Appleseeds image of a burlap-scak wearing gallivanting do-gooder who sprinkled seeds through the countryside, and the apple is now known as this haelthy whole some fruit, when in reality its origins were in hard cider and John Chaoman had this child bride which is problematic but ignored.

Final answer:

Pollan's assertion refers to the domestication and modification of Johnny Appleseed's image and apples, which is illustrative of a broader phenomenon of altering organisms for human preferences, such as the transformation of wild wheat into a staple crop and the breeding of sweeter corn varieties.

Explanation:

Michael Pollan's assertion that both Johnny Appleseed (Chapman) and the apple "have been sweetened beyond recognition" speaks to the broader idea of domestication and modification, which can also relate to the changes humans have enacted upon various plants and animals. This domestication often leads to a 'cheap, fake sweetness,' replacing what was originally a more complex or 'tart wildness.' Just as Johnny Appleseed's image and apples themselves have been transformed to suit cultural and consumer preferences, we have similarly altered other organisms for our benefit.

Using wheat as an example, what began as a wild plant has been transformed into a staple crop that is grown globally, largely due to human intervention. This intervention included clearing land and protecting the wheat from natural competitors and predators, essentially securing its prevalence. This relationship raises the philosophical question coined by Harari: "Did we domesticate wheat, or did it domesticate us?" indicating a reciprocal influence between humans and the crops they cultivate.

Furthermore, the development of sweet corn exemplifies our penchant for enhancing the sweetness of produce, making it more desirable to the human palate. In doing so, we've often forsaken the nutritional complexity and ecological relationship that plants originally had. This pursuit for sweetness and desirability extends beyond food to other aspects of consumption, as seen in the marketing of commodities in a supermarket, questioning the very nature of our consumer choices.

An organ system consists of An organ system consists of a. a group of coordinated tissues. b. blood, lymph, and other body fluids. c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. d. a collection of similar cells.

Answers

Final answer:

An organ system consists of organs that work together to carry out a vital body function. These systems include groups of organs that coordinate with various cells and tissues for the survival of the organism.

Explanation:

An organ system in the context of biology refers to c. organs that collectively perform a vital body function. This organ system comprises different organs working in harmony, which, in turn, coordinate with various cells and tissues. These organs collectively perform a specific function that is crucial to the survival of the organism. For instance, the digestive system, including the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, works together to break down food, absorb nutrients, and eliminate waste.

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An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________. An individual accidentally transected (cut across) the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.
paraplegia
quadriplegia
spinal shock
only hemiplegia

Answers

Answer:

a. paraplegia

b. paraplegia (it is repeated)

Explanation:

Paraplegia T1-T9 (Requires assistance at least 3 hours a day). People with lesions from T1 preserve innervation and, therefore, the function of all upper limb muscles. They can achieve functional independence, not only in self-care and mobility activities, but also in certain light domestic activities. From this level of injury, an intensive training to carry the manual wheelchair through irregular terrain, slopes and ramps is feasible. From the T6 lesion the patients present a better trunk control. In addition, with proper training, they can make transfers from the floor to the chair. People with injuries between T2 and T9 can achieve prophylactic standing with parallel bitters, with the support of a walker or crutches.

Paraplegia T10 L1 (Requires assistance at least 2 hours a day) Patients with injuries from T10 have normal breathing with normal vital capacity. As with T1-T9 lesions, they are independent in activities of daily living, sphincter care and transfers. This group of patients is able to perform independent standing and assisted therapeutic walking. Unfortunately for all these activities, energy expenditure is excessive and joint wear of the upper limbs is important. Patients remain dependent on a self-propelled wheelchair for travel.

Contraction of a sarcomere, and thus contraction of the muscle as a whole, is accomplished by a cyclic sequence of interactions between actin (thin filaments) and myosin (thick filaments) in the sarcomere. Understanding this sequence of events is essential to understanding the mechanism of muscle contraction at the cellular and molecular levels.
Begin by considering a relaxed muscle. In this state, the myosin molecules of the thick filaments are not in contact with the actin of the thin filaments, and ADP and Pi are bound to the myosin heads. An action potential on the muscle cell plasma membrane initiates contraction of the sarcomeres from this relaxed state.
Rank the following events in the sequence in which they occur, beginning with myosin forming a cross-bridge with actin.
A) Myosin head forms a cross-bridge with actin
B) Myosin releases Pi
C) Myosin pulls actin toward center of sarcomere
D) Myosin binds ATP
E) Cross-bridge between myosin and actin is broken
F) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and Pi
G) Myosin head extends.

Answers

Final answer:

Muscle contraction starts with the formation of a cross-bridge between myosin and actin. Pi is released, actin is pulled towards the center of the sarcomere, and the cycle continues. Hence the correct answer is option E

Explanation:

The sequence of events in muscle contraction begins with the formation of a cross-bridge between the myosin head and actin. This is followed by the release of Pi and the pulling of actin towards the center of the sarcomere by the myosin head. Next, the myosin binds ATP, which leads to the breaking of the cross-bridge between myosin and actin. The myosin head then extends, and the cycle continues.

Hence the correct answer is option E

Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a _________ for that chemical.

Answers

Answer:

Receptor

Explanation:

Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a  

receptor for that chemical.

Cells in a large multicellular organism communicate with each other by chemical signals. These signals are passed from one cell to another. To receive and respond to a chemical signal, a cell must have a receptor for that chemical.

Receptors are specialized proteins or molecules located on the cell's surface or within the cell that bind to specific signaling molecules (ligands) released by other cells. When a ligand binds to its corresponding receptor, it triggers a series of molecular events within the cell, leading to a cellular response. This communication process is vital for coordinating various activities within a multicellular organism and ensuring proper physiological functions. Receptors are specific to particular signaling molecules, enabling cells to selectively respond to the appropriate signals and maintain homeostasis in the organism.

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Barbara is tired all the time and feels overwhelmed by her workload. She is disengaging from her work and fellow employees. Her production is slowing down. She complains of headaches a lot. She is probably suffering from:

Answers

Final answer:

Barbara is likely suffering from job burnout, a condition characterized by emotional exhaustion, cynicism, and a reduced sense of personal accomplishment, often associated with symptoms like headaches, depression, anxiety, and decreased productivity.

Explanation:

Barbara's symptoms of feeling tired all the time, feeling overwhelmed by her workload, disengaging from work, complaining of headaches, and a slowdown in production suggest that she could be suffering from job burnout. These symptoms fall in line with the general sense of emotional exhaustion, cynicism towards one's job, and a diminished sense of personal accomplishment that characterize job burnout. Factors such as work overload, little positive feedback, unsafe work environments, and frustration dealing with bureaucracy contribute to this condition. Moreover, symptoms like headaches, depression, anxiety, and reduced mental performance are commonly associated with job burnout.

It's also important to note that Barbara could be experiencing co-occurring health issues such as depression, as severe job burnout can lead to depressive disorders. Being exposed to chronically stressful work conditions is a significant risk factor for job burnout. In certain fields, particularly human service jobs, job burnout occurs frequently and is a serious concern.

A client with muscular dystrophy has lost complete control of his lower extremities. He has some strength bilaterally in the upper extremities, but poor trunk control. Which mechanism would be the most important to have on the wheelchair?

a) Wheelchair belt
b) Antitip device
c) Headrest support
d) Extended breaks

Answers

Answer:

The “wheelchair belt” mechanism is the most important mechanism to have on the wheel chair.

Explanation:

As the patient have very poor control over his trunk so a belt will be perfect to prevent him from falling out of the wheelchair anytime. The other options doesn’t make much of important sense than a belt for the patient with muscular dystrophy needs, especially when lost control over the extremities. The wheelchair belt will help him in staying in the wheelchair freely without risk of falling off.

Which of the following disorders affects men and women in equal numbers and is characterized by a chronic, progressive chorea (involuntary and irregular movements that flow randomly from one area of the body to another)?a. Huntington's diseaseb. AIDSc. Alzheimer's diseased. Parkinson's disease

Answers

Answer:

Huntington's disease. (Ans. A)

Explanation:

Huntington's disease: It is known as the inherited disorder (degenerative) which cause the breakdown of the central nervous system.

Huntington's disease mainly causes functional abilities, and result in movements (such as slow eye movement, muscle problem like dystonia and rigidity), psychiatric (such as insomnia, feeling of sadness and loss of energy), and cognitive disorder (such as lack of action, and flexibility, slowness on finding words, etc.)

. Which of the following statements is false? a) If two genes are to be expressed in a cell, these two genes can be transcribed with different efficiencies. b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. c) RNA has a uracil base and a ribose sugar. d) Some types of RNA have modified bases such as pseudouracil (Y), 5-methylcytosine, etc

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is b RNA polymerase is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix and for catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bond between nucleotides.

Explanation:

DNA double helix is unwound by the catalytic activity of helicase or dna B by using the energy derived from the hydrolysis of ATP.

     RNA polymerase helps in the polymerization of nucleotides b the formation of phosphodiester linkage present in RNA.

Final answer:

The false statement is b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. RNA polymerase catalyzes the bond formation but does not unwind the DNA; this task is performed by other proteins like helicases.

Explanation:

The false statement among the options given is b) RNA polymerase is responsible for both unwinding the DNA helix and for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides. This statement is incorrect; RNA polymerase is responsible for catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides during the transcription process, but it is not responsible for unwinding the DNA helix. DNA unwinding is assisted by other proteins such as helicases.

During transcription, the DNA double helix partially unwinds to form a transcription bubble. The RNA polymerase reads the template strand and synthesizes a complementary strand of RNA that includes the base uracil (U) in place of thymine (T).

In eukaryotes, there are different types of RNA polymerase enzymes for transcribing various types of RNA. For example, RNA polymerase II is responsible for mRNA synthesis, while RNA polymerase I and III are involved in rRNA and tRNA synthesis, respectively.

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Which molecules can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane?

Answers

Gases like [tex]O_2[/tex] and [tex]CO_2[/tex] can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane.

Small, nonpolar compounds diffuse easily through plasma membranes. Examples of molecules are:

Oxygen : A tiny, nonpolar molecule that may pass through the lipid bilayer and diffuse from high concentrations (e.g., breathed air) to low concentrations (in cells).[tex]CO_2[/tex]: Another tiny, nonpolar molecule generated by cellular respiration. It diffuses from cells into the circulation and is exhaled from the lungs.Lipid-Soluble Molecules: Vitamins A, D, E, and K and steroid hormones like cortisol and testosterone can diffuse through the plasma membrane.

These compounds can cross the plasma membrane's lipid bilayer without transport proteins. Simple diffusion happens down the concentration gradient from high to low concentrations.

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Final answer:

Small nonpolar molecules such as oxygen and carbon dioxide can easily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane due to their size and lack of charge, while polar molecules, ions, and larger molecules require the help of transport proteins.

Explanation:

The substances that can easily diffuse across a plasma membrane are typically small nonpolar molecules, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide. These molecules have no charge and can pass through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane by simple diffusion. This is because the structure of the lipid bilayer allows these types of molecules to slip through the hydrophobic internal layer. However, polar substances, ions, and larger polar molecules like simple sugars and amino acids cannot easily cross the plasma membrane because their charge or size creates a barrier.

Transport proteins, including channel proteins and carrier proteins, provide a means for these substances to move across the membrane through a process known as facilitated diffusion. For example, glucose, which is a large and polar molecule, requires a specialized transport protein to enter the cell.

An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids is _____.

Answers

Answer:

the location and geometry

Explanation:

Proteins and nucleic acids are formed between the same locations in the monomers, but this is not true for glycosidic bonds.

The location and geometry of the glycosidic bonds can vary greatly between polysaccharides and can sometimes produce branched chains that are not seen in nucleic acids or proteins.

Final answer:

An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids is cellulose.

Explanation:

An important difference between glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages between monomers in proteins and nucleic acids lies in the nature and function of these bonds.

Polysaccharides, such as cellulose, glycogen, starch, and chitin, are composed of monosaccharide monomers linked together by glycosidic bonds, which could be α-1,4, β-1,4, or α-1,6 glycosidic linkages, depending on the type of the polysaccharide. These bonds contribute to the structural properties and biological functions of these polysaccharides.

On the other hand, monomers in proteins and nucleic acids are linked together by peptide bonds and phosphodiester bonds respectively. A peptide bond is a covalent bond between two amino acids, while a phosphodiester bond is a type of covalent bond that occurs between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the next.

These bonds play a vital role in the formation of the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins and the double-helix structure of DNA.

Therefore, glycosidic linkages in polysaccharides and the linkages in proteins and nucleic acids are different in their chemical nature, function, and contribution to the structure and properties of these large macromolecules.

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A patient who reports nasal congestion is prescribed naphazoline, 2 drops in each nostril, every 6 hours, for 5 days. The patient reports increased nasal congestion after 10 days. On assessment the nurse learns that the patient had increased the drug frequency to every 3 hours for 10 days. Which statement describes what the nurse would interpret from this information?

Answers

Answer:

The patient has developed the condition called as rebound congestion

Explanation:

in rebound Condition, the situation of previous congestion becomes more severe and worse due to treatment of nasal congestion using medication .

rebound condition is caused due to overdose of the the medication used for treatment.  Patient without knowing the consequences and trying to recover the condition quickly, increase the dose and  frequency of nasal medication in the start of the nasal congestion which can result in severe condition and blockage of nasal breathing and can only be cured by surgery.

All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids.
A) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.
B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.
C) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis.
D) Early spermatids have not formed a flagella.

Answers

Answer:

B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid.

Explanation:

Spermatids are formed at the end of meiosis in the testes of male. Spermatids are haloid cells in which chromosome numbers are half as compared to their parent cells. An early spermatid has not undergone morphologic changes and is considered less mature than the late spermatid.

Late spermatids undergo morphological changes (spermiogenesis) and they transform into a spermatozoa which is ready to release in the lumen.

In humans, the trait of freckles exhibits simple Mendelian inheritance patterns. The allele for freckles is dominant (F), and the allele for no freckles is recessive (f). An individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have which of the following phenotypes?
A) Freckles
B) No freckles
C) Ff
D) FF
E) ff

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is A) Freckles

Explanation:

Freckles is a genetic disorder that is controlled by the MC1R gene which is signified by the overproduction of melanin pigment on body and face. Freckles is controlled by the dominant allele so it show dominant inheritance pattern.  

Therefore if an individual has even one freckle allele then this disorder will be seen in the phenotype. A person will not have freckles if it has both the recessive allele i.e., ff.  

Therefore an individual who is heterozygous for freckles would have freckle phenotype because it contain one dominant allele for freckles which will express in the phenotype. So the right answer is A.

Which of the following statements about dominant traits is correct?a) They are observed three-fourths as frequently as heterozygous traits.b) The dominant trait is typically masked by the recessive trait.c) They are observed less frequently than recessive traits.d) They increase in frequency over evolutionary time.e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed.

Answers

Answer:

Option E

Explanation:

A dominant trait is the characteristics associated with an allele which is expressed even if only one dominant allele is present in any allele pair.  

For example - Let us say that “R” represents the allele for red colour and “r” represents the allele for white allele.

Also, red colour allele is dominant over white colour allele.  

Thus in an allele pair “Rr” the colour expressed would be red as it is a dominant trait.  

The white colour alleles in an allele pair would be expressed only when both the alleles are recessive.  

Hence, option E is correct

Final answer:

The correct statement about dominant traits is that they are the traits which get expressed. This is because a dominant trait overrides the expression potential of a recessive trait and is observed in the phenotype.

Explanation:

The statement that is correct about dominant traits is: e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed. To understand this, let's first define what a dominant trait is in biology. A dominant trait is an inherited characteristic that appears in an offspring if one parent contributes it. The term dominant refers to the fact that the dominant trait overrides the potential influence of a recessive trait. The dominant trait is always expressed in an individual's physical appearance, or phenotype, while a recessive trait is only expressed if the individual has two copies of the recessive gene (is homozygous recessive).

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PLEASE HELP 35 POINTS AND BRAINLIEST!!!!

Which of the following blood vessels would have the highest blood pressure?

A. A dilated vessel with high blood volume
B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume
C. A dilated vessel with low blood volume
D. A constricted vessel with low blood volume

Answers

B because it is constricted vessel that has the highest blood volume or pressure.

The highest blood pressure would be found in a constricted vessel with high blood volume due to increased resistance combined with a large volume of blood.

The blood vessel that would have the highest blood pressure is B. A constricted vessel with high blood volume. Blood pressure, which is the force exerted by circulating blood on the walls of blood vessels, is influenced by several factors including vessel diameter and blood volume. A constricted vessel reduces the lumen size through which the blood can flow, resulting in increased resistance. Combined with high blood volume, this resistance further elevates the blood pressure within the vessel. By contrast, dilation of a blood vessel allows for more space and therefore less pressure for the same volume of blood.

The crown-of-thorns sea star, Acanthaster planci, preys on the flesh of live coral. If coral animals are attacked by these sea stars, then what actually provides nutrition to the sea star, and which chemical (besides the toxin within their nematocysts) do the corals rely on for protection?
A) medusae; silica
B) polyps; silica
C) exoskeleton; calcium carbonate
D) polyps; calcium carbonate

Answers

Answer:

d) polyps; calcium carbonate

Explanation:

The Acanthaster planci It is a kind of invasive starfish, which destroys corals: it has poisonous spines and feeds on coral polyps at the expense of the reef.

On the other hand, CO2 reacts with water, forming carbonic acid and reducing the available calcium carbonate, an essential element so that marine organisms, from clams to hedgehogs, can form their skeletons and shells.

Answer:  The correct answer is :  D) polyps; calcium carbonate

Explanation:  This starfish feeds exclusively on hard corals. It can be brown, dark gray, purple, orange or red, the difference in color lies in the food they eat. It has its body covered with thorns that uses them as a means of defense.

A Morton's (plantar) neuroma is a foot condition due to swelling of the common plantar digital nerve. It can cause excruciating pain felt between the third and fourth metatarsal bones when walking. Which of the following would NOT be a factor responsible for this disorder?
a) nerve compression
b) nerve irritation
c) nerve injury
d) nerve thinning

Answers

Answer:

Nerve thinning.

Explanation:

Morton's neuroma may be defined as the painful condition that affects the ball of the foot and the area between the fourth and third toes. This might occur due to the pressure or injury.

The Morton neuroma mainly occurs due to the thickening of the nerve that may cause nerve compression, irritation and might also cause nerve in the injury. The nerve thinning is not responsible for this condition. The thinning of the nerve might causes diseases related to eyes.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

What genere of games involves gameplay that is designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities such as flying a plane or managing a city and often requires resource management?

Answers

Answer: The answer is Simulation Games

Explanation:

Simulation games are games that are designed to imitate or closely simulate real-world life activities. The players are able to control characters in the game, they are provided with a simulated environment in which they can play. The characters in the game copy real life activities such as flying a plane, managing a city as listed in the question, cooking, interacting with others, attending school or going to work, etc.

Final answer:

The genre of games that simulate real-world or fictional activities and require resource management is known as simulation games, including the likes of Second Life and Civilization.

Explanation:

The genre of games that involves gameplay designed to simulate real-world or fictionalized activities, such as flying a plane or managing a city, and often incorporates elements of resource management, is typically known as simulation games. These games offer a sense of realism and challenge players to think strategically and make decisions as if they are in a real-life situation. Examples of simulation games include city-building games, flight simulators, and life simulation games like Second Life, wherein players create avatars and interact in a virtual world.

Simulation games can vary in complexity and scope. Some simulate a narrow set of activities, like running a farm in Farming Simulator, while others provide a broader canvas like managing an entire civilization in Civilization. The business models for such games can also be quite diverse, with some offering in-game purchases for virtual goods, which has turned playing into a potential source of income for some, as evidenced by the trend of buying, selling, and managing online assets for real money.

Robert Sternberg distinguished among analytical, creative, and _____ intelligence.
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
spatial
musical
practical
interpersonal

Answers

Final answer:

The correct answer to Robert Sternberg's three types of intelligence—analytical, creative, and the missing type—is practical intelligence.

Explanation:

Robert Sternberg distinguished among three types of intelligence in his triarchic theory of intelligence: analytical, creative, and practical intelligence. Analytical intelligence relates to the ability to analyze, evaluate, judge, compare, and contrast. Creative intelligence involves the ability to create, design, invent, originate, and imagine. The correct answer to the student's question is practical intelligence, which is sometimes likened to 'street smarts' and involves the ability to use knowledge and experience to handle everyday tasks and solve real-world problems effectively.

At each stage of production, sterility of the preparation is a major consideration. When considering appropriate measures to implement to control microbial growth, one must think about the susceptibility of possible microbial contaminants. Apply your knowledge of the structural features of microbes and the mechanisms of action for antimicrobial agents to rank the following microbes according to their susceptibility.

Gram-negative bacteria
prions
endospores
enveloped virus
Grampositive bacteria

Answers

Answer:

According to the susceptibility towards antimicrobial agent the ranking from most susceptible to least susceptible is as:  

enveloped virus > gram-positive bacteria > gram-negative bacteria > endospores > prions

Enveloped viruses are most susceptible because their envelope is made up of lipid which is easily disrupted or degraded by antimicrobial agents like detergent.

Gram-positive bacteria are only having one layer of cells wall that is made up of peptidoglycan which is susceptible to most antibiotics but gram-negative bacterial have an extra outer layer of covering made up of lipopolysaccharide so many of them show multidrug-resistance.

Endospore are among the most resistant microbial structure which is formed outer to cell wall and do not allow most antimicrobials to enter the cell.

Prions are infectious protein so antimicrobial agent do not work on prions and it also resist its chemical degradation therefore it is least susceptible.  

Final answer:

Microorganisms' susceptibility to sterilization varies, with enveloped viruses being the most sensitive and prions the most resistant. Between these, Gram-positive bacteria are more susceptible than Gram-negative, and endospores are highly resistant requiring strong sterilants.

Explanation:

Ranking Microbial Susceptibility

Control of microbial growth and ensuring sterility in medical and laboratory settings is crucial. Microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and prions, show varying degrees of susceptibility to physical and chemical control methods. The susceptibility of these microbes can be ranked based on their structural features and how they respond to sterilizing agents.

Enveloped viruses: Because of their lipid membranes, they are the most sensitive to chemical and physical agents.Gram-positive bacteria: Their thick peptidoglycan layer provides some resistance, but they are generally more susceptible than Gram-negative bacteria to chemical agents.Gram-negative bacteria: The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria offers additional protection, making them more resistant to chemicals than Gram-positive bacteria.Endospores: These dormant forms of bacteria are highly resistant due to their tough outer layers. Sterilants are often required to ensure their eradication.Prions: The most resistant, prions are misfolded proteins that are extremely difficult to inactivate through standard sterilization processes.
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