Answer & explanation:
Cell wall inhibitors are the bactericides that interfere with the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a polymer made up of sugars and amino acids that form a mesh on the outside of the bacterial cell membrane, so peptidoglycan is primarily responsible for bacterial cell wall formation.
As a consequence of peptidoglycan inhibition, cell wall weakening occurs, and the cell undergoes lysis (breakdown).
The best known cell wall inhibitor antibiotic is penicillin, which has low toxicity and therefore attacks bacterial cells, but will hardly affect host cells, since animal cells lack peptidoglycan.
What is fermentation? What does fermentation in plants, yeast, and bacteria produce? What does fermentation in animals produce?
Answer:
Fermentation reacts NADH with an endogenous, organic electron acceptor. Usually this is pyruvate formed from sugar through glycolysis. The reaction produces NAD+ and an organic product, typical examples being ethanol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen gas (H2).
Explanation:
This is from google, but I hope this helps :))
Answer:
Explanation:
Fermentation, is a chemical process by which molecules such as glucose are broken down anaerobically. In plant and yeast cells pyruvate is converted into carbon dioxide and a type of alcohol called ethanol. This process is called fermentation and yields only two molecules of ATP per glucose molecule broken down. Fermentation in animals actually is given a different name, anaerobic respiration. Animals produce lactic acid+2 ATP. ATP is an energy source.
Twenty-four hours after a cesarean birth, a client elects to sign herself and her baby out of the hospital. Staff members are unable to contact her health care provider. The client arrives at the nursery and asks that her infant be given to her to take home. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
The patient would be checked thoroughly, will be provided associated planning of discharge and follow ups at home for 2 months by the nurse in care.
Explanation:
After a caesarean patient gets the consent of an early discharge after 24 hours of operation, she was thoroughly diagnosed and checked by the nurse in charge of her. Then she will be provided a discharge planning by the nurse. She will be assessed the capability to take care of herself and her baby by the nurse.
She will be made aware of the possible infections or diseases that may occur to her and her baby and will be trained to take immediate cares needed. Her home atmosphere will be evaluated for quick recovery and necessary recuperation. She will be provided follow ups at home.
A small town in the piney woods of East Texas has a soccer field composed of native grasses. The soccer field is mowed once a week.
What effect does continual mowing have on the ecology of the field?
A)
Mowing increases the likelihood of nonnative species displacing native species.
B)
Mowing increases the number of species found in the field.
C)
Mowing causes different types of communities to form across the field.
D)
Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting succession.
Explanation:
D) Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting succession.
Mowing reduces the chances of growth of a new species within the community that may add to its complexity.
Succession involves small scale changes within a community that occur repeatedly over the life of that community. Ecological communities are highly dynamic- they gradually evolve. Typically their progression involves:
colonizing species exploiting uninhabited areas (Primary succession) becoming a habitable and increasingly complex community there is increased diversity of organisms (Secondary)Further Explanation:
The makeup of biological communities is crucial to defining Primary and Secondary succession; eventually, through changes in this makeup, a steady-state or equilibrium is reached called a climax community. While Primary succession starts off with the modification of a previously unoccupied area along with increasing variation; secondary succession begins after major disruption in the community such as fires, storms and flooding.
However, the process of becoming a climax community can be pretty complicated- it is very dependent on other factors like temperature and rainfall. Communities that experience rapid change, frequent major disruptions and even human intervention, are less likely to attain a stable equilibrium and may never become climax communities.
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Analyze, evaluate, and critique. The human genome consists of coding and noncoding DNA. Research and summarize current investigations into the functions of noncoding DNA.
Answer:
Explanation:
Nowadays, it is known that approximately 1% of human DNA are protein-coding genes. The other 99% are non-coding DNA. Non-coding DNA genes do not produce proteins. Non-coding DNA consists of certain sequences of vital function to the cells. The main purpose of non-coding DNA is gene activity. A large number of non-coding DNA have a role as regulatory elements. It has the function to inhibit and stimulate certain gene activity and further protein production (transcription factors). Transcription factors bind and/or activate or suppress the process of protein production (transcription). Non-coding DNA is involved in the cutting and splicing of large amounts of DNA. Further, they are involved in transposon reassembly, genome rearrangements and the production of small RNAs.
Non-coding DNA consists of promoters, enhancers, silencers and insulators. Promoters allow binding sites for the proteins. In this way, the transcription is performed. Enhancers provide binding sites for proteins to start the transcription process. They are most commonly placed either before or after the gene they control. Silencers provide binding sites for proteins that inhibit transcription. Insulators provide binding sites for proteins that regulate transcription. They may even block enhancers (enhancer-blocker insulators). The other prevent structural changes in the DNA strand (barrier insulators).
Non-coding DNA may produce specialized RNA molecules such as transfer RNA (tRNAs) and ribosomal RNA (rRNAs), micro RNA (miRNAs). rRNAs and tRNAs aid in organizing protein building blocks (amino acids) into a chain named protein. miRNAs block the process of protein production. Long non-coding RNA (IncRNAs) have diverse functions in gene regulation.
Introns are also non-coding DNA. They are sequences between the exons. Intron messages are spliced by the spliceosome for the production of the coding RNAs ( mRNA, rRNA and tRNA).
Noncoding DNA in the human genome has been found to have important functions in gene regulation and chromatin structure. It contains regulatory sequences and interacts with other DNA, RNA, and proteins to control gene expression.
Explanation:The human genome consists of coding and noncoding DNA. Historically, noncoding DNA was referred to as "junk DNA" because it was thought to be irrelevant and nonfunctional. However, recent research and advancements in DNA sequencing technology have revealed that many noncoding DNA regions are involved in dynamic genetic regulatory processes, such as gene expression.
Scientists have discovered that noncoding DNA plays important roles in gene regulation, chromatin structure, and epigenetics. For example, noncoding DNA contains regulatory sequences that control when and where genes are turned on or off, and it also interacts with other DNA, RNA, and proteins to regulate gene expression. Noncoding DNA is now recognized as having vital functions in the overall functioning and regulation of the genome.
Write a paragraph on testing probability
Explanation:
Probabilities are described as ratios of favorable event outcome to the total number of event outcomes.
This is written as...
[tex]P (E) =\frac{n(E)}{n(S)} \\[/tex]
where...
E= the number of times the event occurs
S= the number of trials
In biology experiments, hypotheses are formed based on research questions, and tested with the use of variables to provide a particular outcome. Statistics allows for testing data for consistency with the hypothesis, while statistical probability testing can be used in experiments to determine a range of outcomes, from genetic inheritance, evolutionary rates to theoretical experimental results.
In these statistical models, probability distributions are functions that give probabilities for certain event outcomes within an experiment (a set of trials). These may be either continuous, taking a value within a range of two numbers; or discrete, which may be either of two specified values. Discrete probability distributions list each value that a random variable may possibly take on.
Further Explanation:
For example, two types of probability distributions are employed in experimental biology:
Binomial distributions, which are discrete distributions, provide probability of a certain number of successful events for x a random variable, in a specific number of trials, n; here, the probability of success of an individual trial is constant at P and only one of two outcomes are possible- this is sampling with replacement.
where...
b(x; n, P)-the probability that an experiment of n trials results in x successes
nCx- the number of combinations of n things at r time
[tex]b(x; n, P) = [ nCx ]* P^{x} * (1-P)^{n-x}\\[/tex]
This is often used in determining potential outcomes before data collection.
A type of continuous distribution, the student's t-test, compares standard deviations and means from two sets of samples or groups to check for significant differences between them.
[tex]t= \frac{(x_{1} - x_{2}) }{\sqrt{(\frac{(S_{1}) ^{2} }{n1} }+ (\frac{(S_{2}) ^{2} }{n2 }}[/tex]
where...
x1 and s1 are the mean and standard deviation of sample 1 respectivelyx2 and s2 are the mean and standard deviation of sample 1 respectively n1 and n2 are sample sizes in samples 1 and 2 respectivelyThe null and alternate hypotheses typically theorize the likelihood and significance of certain event outcome probabilities. Critical values of t, along with degrees of freedom are used to determine a range of probable outcomes; probability or p- values along with this range, are used to determine whether either hypothesis is rejected or accepted.
For instance, significant differences between an experimental control and a specific treatment group would show that these occurrences are not due to sampling errors or random chance...
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Which of the following is true?
a) Sensory and motor tracts within the spinal cord are separated into sensory tracts
b) on the right and motor tracts on the left side of the spinal cord have names that indicate the location of the initiation and termination of the nerve impulses
c) they conduct are located in the gray matter
d) all of these choices are correct
Answer:
hi ok ok
Explanation:
ok ok hi
Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease. Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease. internal capsule red nucleus reticular formation substantia nigra.
Answer:
a. substantia nigra
b. substantia nigra (it is repeated)
Explanation:
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disease that is caused by the death of neurons that release the neurotransmitter dopamine in the substantia nigra, or locus niger, -a region of the brain that regulates brain circuits that give the 'orders' to initiate voluntary movements- .
The lack of this neurotransmitter leads to the occurrence of the main symptoms suffered by patients: decreased movements, muscle stiffness, postural instability and tremor. These failures are generated by the abnormal way in which neurons work in the absence of dopamine through a mechanism that is not known in depth.
It is the second most frequent neurodegenerative disease, after Alzheimer's disease, with a prevalence of 2% in people over 65 years. The characteristic symptoms of stiffness, bradykinesia and tremor are associated with losses of neurons in the substantia nigra and dopamine depletion in the striatum. There are large cytoplasmic inclusions, called Lewy bodies, which are the pathological mark of the disease and appear predominantly in neurons that contain melanin of the nigra substance. Genetic studies in a subgroup of families with Parkinson's disease with autosomal dominant inheritance found a locus on chromosome 4q-21 23 and a mutation in the gene that encodes a synaptic protein, α-synuclein.
Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the substantia nigra is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease.
Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive degeneration of specific neurons in the brain. The ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease is the degeneration of dopamine-releasing neurons located in a region of the brain known as the substantia nigra.
The substantia nigra is a part of the midbrain and plays a crucial role in the control of movement and motor coordination. It contains clusters of neurons that produce and release the neurotransmitter dopamine. Dopamine is a chemical messenger that serves as a key player in regulating voluntary muscle movements and motor control.
In individuals with Parkinson's disease, there is a gradual loss of these dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra. As these neurons degenerate and die, the brain's ability to transmit signals related to movement is significantly impaired. This results in the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease, which include tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), rigidity, and postural instability.
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In the Ap axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?
A) Occipital bone
B) Frontal bone
C) Facial bone
D) Basal formina
Answer:
A) Occipital bone
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described it can be said that the structure best demonstrated would be the occipital bone. This is a bone that forms in the base of the skull towards the back and around the spinal cord. Since the AP axial position projects the anterior structures downward, then it would allow for the occipital bone to be easily viewed without special equipment.
Which of the following methods is the most effective in determining muscular strength if you do not want to worry about selecting the wrong weight?A. maxing outB. absolute methodC. predicting 1 RMD. calisthenic method
Answer:
The correct answer is C. predicting 1 RM.
Explanation:
The RM or Repetition Maximum is a test to know how many times can someone lift the same weight. This way, there's no risk of lifting an excess of weight, and it's also a good way to measure how strong a muscle is.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
on edg
Sometimes drugs, such as phenobarbital, are given in a higher dose as a loading dose and then tapered back to a maintenance dose. This helps the drug to accumulate to a therapeutic level in the body until the concentration plateaus. When this occurs, the drug has reached which of the following?
a.Nadir
b.Steady state
c.Half-life
d.Bioavailability
Answer:
b.Steady state
Explanation:
When a drug is in a steady state is usually defined as the time during which the drug remains stable when administered repeatedly or continuously (IV infusion) - this is the state where the rate of the drug entering the systemic circulation or drug administration equals to its rate of elimination out of the system. In the case where a drug is administered multiple times in fixed intervals the plasma concentration increases till it plateaus. This administration pattern will result in a steady-state concentration which is intended to be within the therapeutic window
The process of gathering information about events and their relationships within an organization's internal and external environments is: Technological scanning Environmental scanning Regulatory factors All of them
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Environmental scanning is done by internal scanning committee with an objective to establish and analyze the relationship between the events happening within the organization and its internal and external environment parameters.
This analysis helps scanning committee in taking effective measures to align the future course of action and direction of organization. This scanning is done regularly at a certain fixed interval for effective management.
Hence, option B is correct
Final answer:
The process of 'environmental scanning' involves the collection and analysis of information to assess internal and external environmental factors affecting an organization. It enables foresight into potential trends, challenges, and opportunities, integral to strategic planning.
Explanation:
Understanding Environmental Scanning
The process of gathering information about events and their relationships within an organization's internal and external environments is known as environmental scanning. This practice involves exploring various elements such as technological advancements, regulatory factors, economic trends, social changes, and cultural impacts. Environmental scanning enables organizations to anticipate potential challenges and opportunities, thereby facilitating strategic planning and decision-making.
An important aspect of environmental scanning is identifying 'signals of change' which are empirical indicators of upcoming trends or shifts. These might include technological breakthroughs, shifts in consumer behavior, policy changes, or socio-economic transformations. Futurists and foresight practitioners analyze these signals to develop actionable insights, thereby contributing to an organization's resilience and adaptability. Furthermore, this continuous process assists in shaping the strategies that address or incorporate environmental changes, including those related to globalization, a digitalizing world, and climate variations.
Overall, environmental scanning is an invaluable tool for organizations to stay competitive and relevant in a dynamic business landscape. It ensures that decision-makers are informed about the internal and external factors that may impact their operations now and in the future.
What is the relationship between proto-oncogenes and oncogenes?
Answer:
Oncogenes result from a mutation in proto-oncogenes.
Explanation:
Protooncogenes control the growth and division of cells.The proteins encoded by proto-oncogenes include growth factors, growth factor receptors, transcription factors and signal transducers.They contribute to the transformation process by driving cell proliferation or reducing sensitivity to cell death.Several types of genetic and epigenetic changes convert these proto-oncogenes to oncogenes.Oncogenes arise due to the changes that increases the expression of proto-oncogenes .Oncogenes are one of the causes of cancers.A proto-oncogenes can turn into oncogene by following ways:
A point mutation such as deletion, insertion and substitution in the proto-oncogene can lead to formation of oncogenes. Chromosomal translocation may result in activation of proto-oncogene as seen in Burkitt's lymphoma.Insertion of a mobile genetic material such as retrovirus changes the gene expression, but leaves their coding sequence intact. Activation of proto-oncogene can also occur from reduplication and amplification of DNA sequence.Final answer:
Proto-oncogenes are positive cell-cycle regulators. When mutated, they can become oncogenes and cause cancer. For example, the oncogene myc is involved in Burkett's Lymphoma.
Explanation:
Proto-oncogenes are positive cell-cycle regulators. When mutated, proto-oncogenes can become oncogenes and cause cancer. Overexpression of the oncogene can lead to uncontrolled cell growth. This is because oncogenes can alter transcriptional activity, stability, or protein translation of another gene that directly or indirectly controls cell growth. An example of an oncogene involved in cancer is a protein called myc. Myc is a transcription factor that is aberrantly activated in Burkett's Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymph system. Overexpression of myc transforms normal B cells into cancerous cells that continue to grow uncontrollably. High B-cell numbers can result in tumors that can interfere with normal bodily function. Patients with Burkett's lymphoma can develop tumors on their jaw or in their mouth that interfere with the ability to eat.
The major role meiosis plays in chromosomal inheritance is to
Answer:
Doubles the amount of DNA and reduces the chromosome number from 2N to N.
Explanation:
Meiosis is a cell division in which one cell divides into 2 cells in the first meiotic division and then these two cells divide into two more cells so overall 4 cells are produced from one cell. This division occurs in gamete cells.
First, the amount of DNA gets double by converting the single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA. Then the homologous chromosomes get separated into two different cells in the first meiotic division and till now the chromosome number is 2N.
After the second meiotic division, each sister chromatids of a chromosome gets separated into separate cells and the chromosome number in daughter cells becomes 1 N. So the major role of meiosis is to double the DNA mount and reduce the chromosome number by half in all daughter cells.
The major role of meiosis in chromosomal inheritance is to ensure genetic diversity and the proper distribution of chromosomes to offspring.
Meiosis is a specialized cell division process that occurs in reproducing organisms. It involves two consecutive divisions (meiosis I and meiosis II) and results in the formation of haploid cells (gametes) from diploid cells.
Meiosis ensures the proper distribution of chromosomes to offspring. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome number by half.
In meiosis II, sister chromatids separate, resulting in the production of four haploid cells.
Thus, this reduction in chromosome number is essential for the formation of gametes with the correct number of chromosomes, allowing for the normal development and inheritance of genetic traits in offspring.
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where does translation take place in the cell
Answer:
cytoplasm that is where the translation take place
Final answer:
Translation, the process of protein synthesis, occurs in the cytoplasm of cells where ribosomes are located. In eukaryotic cells, this process is separated from transcription by the nuclear membrane, requiring mRNA transport from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
Explanation:
In eukaryotic cells, translation is the process by which ribosomes synthesize proteins using the genetic information carried by messenger RNA (mRNA). This process takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell, where ribosomes are found. After RNA transcription occurs in the nucleus, the mRNA is transported to the cytoplasm. Translation involves reading the genetic code on the mRNA to produce a specific sequence of amino acids, thus forming a protein.
It is important to note that in prokaryotic cells, translation can begin before transcription has finished because both processes occur in the cytoplasm. However, in eukaryotic cells, the nuclear membrane physically separates the transcription process in the nucleus from the translation process in the cytoplasm. Therefore, translation in eukaryotic cells can only begin after the mRNA has been fully processed and transported out of the nucleus to the cytoplasmic ribosomes.
Biologists often determine population density by capturing animals and marking them for later identification upon recapture. A biologist wants to use this method for a population census of desert mice. This will work if the _____.
A) mice are recaptured in the same location using the same trapping methods
B) mice deliberately return because the traps contain food
C) biologist waits a long time before resampling the population
D) mice are territorial
Answer:
I think the answer is A
Explanation:
Since the question states that they want to determine the population of the desert mice. You get the direct answer from just using context clues. Since population means one species in a certain area, it means that this method will work if the mice stay in the same area.
White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk towards the top, whereas the white-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts?A. bottom-up and top-down hypothesesB. competitive exclusionC. keystone speciesD. resource partitioningE. character displacement
Answer:
resource partitioning
Explanation:
If the species live in an ecological niche where there is limited availability of resources then the organisms adapt the strategy of dividing the limited resources to survive and avoid competition and such a strategy is called resource partitioning. In the given question, it has been given that the downy woodpecker moves from the bottom to the top whereas the white-breasted nuthatch moves in the opposite direction and hence they occupy different levels of the tree at different times and avoid competition. Thus, this is an example of resource partitioning.Answer:
resource partitioning
Explanation:
they are not competing food because white-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down and Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk towards the top.
The pectoral girdle is formed by the articulation of the hip bones and the sacrum
Answer:
False. The pelvic girdle is formed by the articulation of the hip bones and the sacrum.
Explanation:
The pelvic girdle forms the base of the trunk, the sacrum forms the posterior wall of the pelvis and also forms joints in the hip bone called sacroiliac joints .
The pectoral girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton and is composed of the clavicle and the scapula.
Final answer:
The pelvic girdle consists of the hip bones, which are each formed by the fusion of three bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. These bones connect anteriorly at the pubic symphysis and posteriorly at the sacroiliac joints with the sacrum and coccyx to form the stable, weight-bearing pelvis.
Explanation:
The pelvic girdle is best understood as a set of bones that lay the foundation for the lower part of the body’s skeleton. It is not formed by the articulation of the hip bones and the sacrum as suggested in the student's question. Instead, the pelvic girdle is composed primarily of the two large hip bones or coxal bones, which are each formed by the fusion of three bones: the ilium, ischium, and pubis. These hip bones join anteriorly at the pubic symphysis and posteriorly at the sacroiliac joints with the sacrum, which is part of the axial skeleton. Together with the coccyx, they form the pelvis, a bony structure that provides stability, bears the weight of the upper body, and allows for the connection and locomotion of the lower limbs.
In contrast, the pectoral girdle relates to the upper body and consists of the clavicles and scapulae, which are designed to allow for a wide range of motion. The design of the pelvic girdle ensures stability and weight bearing necessary for upright posture and locomotion, contrasting with the high mobility of the pectoral girdle that enables arm and shoulder movement.
Carbon-based fuels from lithospheric reservoirs ________.
A. have been slowly sequestered over many millions of years
B. will be lost before the end of the decade
C. cannot be lost to the atmosphere by human processes once stabilized on Earth's surface
D. are readily lost from Earth's surface in the absence of humans
E. are formed from the deposition, partial decay, and compression of inorganic matter
Answer: A. have been slowly sequestered over many millions of years.
Explanation: Carbon-based fuels are of two main kinds, biofuels and fossil fuels. Whereas biofuels are derived from recent-growth organic matter and are typically harvested, as with logging of forests and cutting of corn, fossil fuels are of prehistoric origin and are extracted from the ground, the principal fossil fuels being oil, coal, and natural gas.
In the case of Darwin's finches, an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the Galápagos Islands and soon developed into many new species via adaptive radiation. The finches did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland. What is the most plausible biological explanation?
Answer:
competition for food and survival on the mainland provided stabilizing selection.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that the most plausible biological explanation is that the amount of competition for food and survival on the mainland provided stabilizing selection. This was most likely not seen in the islands from which they came and therefore provided the ideal conditions in order for the Finches to diversify rapidly into a multitude of new forms,
"Most populations demonstrate _____ growth, in which the population size increases exponentially until it levels off near the carrying capacity (K value) of the habitat for that species.
a) exponential
b) intrinsic
c) logistic
d) extrinsic
e) logarithmic"
Answer:
The correct answer is c) logistic
Explanation:
Logistic growth occurs during a population growth when the resources are limiting. During logistic growth sigmoid (S-shaped) growth curve is produced when population size is placed over time.
In logistic growth first the population increases slowly then after some time it increase on the logarithmic phase until it levels off near the maximum carrying capacity due to environmental resistance. Beyond this maximum carrying capacity growth rate does not increase and becomes constant.
This generates an s-shaped curve called a sigmoid curve which shows the logistic growth. So the correct answer is c.
When lichens grow on bare rock, they may eventually accumulate enough organic material around them to supply the foothold for later rooted vegetation. These early pioneering lichens can be said to do what for species arriving in a later successional stage?
A. inhibit
B. exclude
C. facilitate
D. tolerate
E. concentrate
Answer:
The correct answer is C. facilitate.
Explanation:
As lichens promote the growth of other flora and also microorganisms, it facilitates the arrival of other species that can grow over the layer that has already been formed by the facilitation of the lichen and others.
A natural predator of the crown-of-thorns sea star is a mollusc called the Giant Triton, Charonia tritonis. If the triton uses a radula to saw into the sea star, then to which clade should the triton belong?
A) chitons
B) bivalves
C) gastropods
D) cephalopods
Answer:
C) Gastropods
Explanation:
Radula is the scraping and feeding organ of Gastropods.Since giant triton uses a radula to saw into the sea star, it is obviously a Gastropod.Charonia tritonis or giant triton are large sea snail.They belong to class Gastropoda under phylum mollusca..These are natural predators of starfish and other small molluscs.Like other molluscs these are also soft bodied animals and have large shells.According to the acid-growth hypothesis, auxin causes increased acidity in cell walls, which then activates ____ that disrupt(s) bonds between cellulose microfibrils, allowing cell expansion
Answer:
proteins called expansins
Explanation:
The complete question is :
According to the acid-growth hypothesis, auxin causes increased acidity in cell walls, which then activates ____ that disrupt(s) bonds between cellulose microfibrils, allowing cell expansion.
a. a membrane potential
b. an mRNA
c. AUX1 transporters
d. K+ ions
e. proteins called expansins
The acid growth hypothesis explains the growth of cells and organs in the plants. According to this hypothesis, the plant hormone auxin causes induction of the H+ proton extrusion into the apoplast which leads to the activation of expansin which a pH-sensitive protein.Expansin is responsible for wall stretching and relaxation and causes hydrolysis of hydrogen bonds and thus helps in cell expansion.
Which statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that understanding about discharge instructions on antihyperlipidemic medications has occurred?
a. "Antihyperlipidemic medications will replace the other interventions I have been doing to try to decrease my cholesterol."
b. "It is important to double my dose if I miss one in order to maintain therapeutic blood levels."
c. "I will stop taking the medication if it causes nausea and vomiting."
d. "I will continue my exercise program to help increase my high-density lipoprotein serum levels."
Answer:
The correct answer is d i will continue my exercise programme to help increase my high density lipoprotein serum levels.
Explanation:
Antihyperlipidemic drug is pescribed to patient suffering from high plasma cholesterol.High plasma cholesterol level is much dangerous for our body because it can leads to the development of coronary artery disease.
When discharge instruction on hyperlipidemic medication is given to a patient at that time patient is informed to continue his/her exercise program me to maintain a high level of good cholesterol also known as high density lipoprotein.
What are the structures of the brain that increase surface area called?
Answer:
gyri (ridges) and sulci (furrows)
Explanation:
Gyri are ridges, Sulci are grooves. Sulci encircle each gyrus, increasing the cerebral cortex's surface area and dividing the brain. By expanding brain size, more neurons can fit in the cortex, boosting its processing power.
What are gyri an sulci?Gyri is the name given to the ridges, and Sulci is the name given to the grooves. Each gyrus has sulci surrounding it, and these sulci work together with the gyri to increase the surface area of the cerebral cortex and produce divisions in the brain. Increasing the surface area of the brain allows for a greater number of neurons to be packed into the cortex, which in turn increases the processing power of the cortex.
The folding of the cortex, the region of our brain that is responsible for higher cognitive processes including memory, language, and consciousness, results in these morphological traits.
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Imagine you are performing a cross involving seed color in garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
A. 100 percent yellow-green seeds
B. 100 percent yellow seeds
C. 50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
D. 25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds
Answer:
B. 100 percent yellow seeds
Explanation:
When a gene has two alleles and one allele is dominant over the other, the dominant allele is expressed in the heterozygous state and the expression of the recessive allele is masked. According to the given information, the allele for yellow seed color is dominant over the allele for the green seed color.
Let's assume that the allele "Y" gives yellow color to the seeds while the allele "y" is responsible for green seed color. A cross between two pure breeding yellow seeded (YY) and green seeded (yy) plants would produce all the yellow seeded progeny with genotype "Yy".
YY (Yellow) x yy (green) = Yy (yellow)
Final answer:
When crossing true-breeding parents with green and yellow seeds, the F1 offspring would be 100 percent yellow phenotype.
Explanation:
When crossing true-breeding parents with green and yellow seeds, where yellow is dominant, the F1 offspring would be heterozygous for seed color, resulting in a 100 percent yellow phenotype. This means that all F1 offspring would have yellow seeds, even though one parent has green seeds.
Many sub-Saharan tribesmen of Africa regularly use the blood, milk, and fur of their livestock, without killing them. Based on this information alone we might classify this relationship as ____. However, the cattle actually derive an overall benefit because the herdsman also protect them from predators and help them find water and food. Therefore, this relationship should instead be classified as ____. a. commensalism; mutualism b. mutualism; competition c. parasitism; commensalism d. parasitism; mutualism e. predation; parasitism
Answer:
d. parasitism; mutualism
Explanation:
When an organism derives nutrition from the living tissues of other organisms, the association is called parasitism. Here, the parasite gets nutrition and/or other benefits while the host organism is harmed. When the blood, milk, and fur of livestock are used by tribesmen, the livestock is harmed and the interaction is called parasitism. The parasite (tribesmen) keep the host (livestock) alive to obtain the benefits.
Mutualism is a beneficial association between the organisms of two species wherein both the associated organisms are benefited. Since the tribesmen protect the livestock and feed them to derive benefits from them, the association is mutualism. Livestock is fed and protected while the tribesmen obtain blood, milk, and fur from them. In this way, both are benefited.
ADH secretion can be stimulated by either blood osmolarity changes or blood pressure changes in the heart or large vessels. ADH secretion can be stimulated by either blood osmolarity changes or blood pressure changes in the heart or large vessels. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The ADH is related to the liquid pressure indide the body, it controls the pressure of it in order to mantain a perfect body homeostasis. In consequence, everytime there is a blood osmolarity change, a blood pressure change in the heart or large vessels it is secretated because these parts of the organisms contain most of the liquids of the body.
You are a scientist who notices great similarity between the spines of a hedgehog and the spines of a porcupine. When you study their genetics, however, you notice that the set of genes that code for hedgehog spines is a different set of genes than the set that codes for porcupine spines. You decide this must be an example of:
a. convergent evolution
b. divergent evolution
c. coalescent evolution
d. unifying evolution
Answer:
Divergent evolution
Explanation:
The reason it is divergent is because they came from the same animal before their evolution took separate ways.
Scientists are concerned that bacteria will be resistant to all antibiotics within the next decade. Using your knowledge of conjugation in bacteria, describe how bacterial populations can develop drug resistance in such a short time frame.
Bacterial populations can develop drug resistance in a short time by self –transferable plasmids. Few of them carries antibiotic resistance genes for metabolic functions. The overdose of antibiotics for people with a cold increases the killing of the healthy bacteria.
Explanation:Bacteria can develop resistance in the following ways.
Mutation: By cell replication, some bacteria develop mutations that makes them resistant to antibiotics. Bacteria with the resistant mutation can survive against antibiotics. These resistant bacteria continue to multiply even when they are exposed to antibiotics
Horizontal Gene Transfer: Antibiotic-resistant genetic material is transferred between different bacteria cells in three different ways: transformation, transduction or conjugation.
The process in which bacteria takes the genetic materials from the environment is transformation. The introduction of foreign DNA/ RNA into the bacterial cell is transduction .In conjugation the genetic material is transferred from the donor bacteria to the recipient by direct contact.