Answer: Geologic time is divided into units. Major changes in the earth's surface or climate and the extinction of species help to divide the time scale into smaller units.
Explanation: Rocks grouped within each unit contain a similar fossil record.
Which of the following describes respiration?
The process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy
The process of using sunlight to produce carbohydrates
The process of moving water through the plant
The process of absorbing water through the leaves
Answer:
process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy
Answer:
The process of using carbohydrates and oxygen for energy
Explanation:
Respiration is the process in which cells in organisms make use of oxygen and glucose to produce energy. Respiration is a biochemical process whose reactant is oxygen and glucose and the output is ATP(ENERGY), carbondioxide and water.
6O2+C6H1206----6CO2+6H20+ATP
We have types of cellular respiration Aerobic respiration and anearobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration takes place in the presence of oxygen while anaerobic takes place in the absent of oxygen. Product of anerobic is ethanol,Atp and CO2.
What can a planetary nebula form around a dwarf star?
A planetary nebula sheds the outer layers during the evolution into a white dwarf around a dwarf star. This process marks the final stages of stellar evolution for stars with masses less than about 8 times that of the Sun.
A planetary nebula can form around a dwarf star as part of the star's late-stage evolution. When a low to intermediate mass star (like a dwarf star) reaches the end of its life, it undergoes several stages of nuclear burning. Eventually, as the star runs out of fuel, it enters a phase where it sheds its outer layers into space.
For a dwarf star specifically:
1. Red Giant Phase: The star expands into a red giant as it exhausts its core hydrogen fuel. During this phase, the outer layers of the star become loosely held due to the diminished gravitational pull.
2. Planetary Nebula Formation: As the star sheds its outer layers, a shell of ionized gas and dust, known as a planetary nebula, forms around the remaining core of the star. This nebula is illuminated by the hot core of the star, creating a beautiful and often intricate structure visible to telescopes.
3. White Dwarf: The core of the star that remains after the nebula disperses becomes a white dwarf. This is a dense remnant of the star's core, composed mainly of carbon and oxygen, which gradually cools over billions of years.
The lab you work in has discovered a previously unidentified extracellular signal molecule called QGF, a 75,000-dalton protein. You add purified QGF to different types of cells to determine its effect on these cells. When you add QGF to heart muscle cells, you observe an increase in cell contraction. When you add it to fibroblasts, they undergo cell division. When you add it to nerve cells, they die. When you add it to glial cells, you do not see any effect on cell division or survival.
A. How can the same signaling molecule cause such diverse affects? Why do the glial cells not respond at all?
B. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to increase contractions in in the heart. (Hint: Ca2+ is very important for muscle contraction)
C. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to lead to apoptosis of nerve cells.
D. Devise a signaling pathway that QGF could use to induce cell division in the fibroblasts?
Answer:
A- It is because said molecule presents binding to different receptors and in the case of glia cells it does not present an answer because they do not have a specific receptor for said molecule.
b-in the case of muscle, this molecule could bind to calcium channels or to the REL itself, generating the opening of said channels or the release of calcium found in REL. In this way, by increasing the intracellular concentration of calcium, it activates the actin head, causing the topoisomerase to move and promoting binding with myosin. Once the activated actin will perform a "rowing" movement to generate the drag of the myosin and the union of the Z lines.
c-In the process of neuronal apoptosis, the cell itself generates biochemical signals (either by positive induction in which the receptors and receptors of the membrane bind to certain substances, or by negative or mitochondrial induction in which the ability to suppress certain substances is lost. substances that would generate the activity of apoptotic enzymes) that cause them to condense and alter the cytoplasm, the cell membrane, the cell nucleus to collapse and DNA to fragment. Finally, the microglial cells end up phagocytizing and eliminating the remains of the dead neurons, so that they do not generate interference for the normative functioning of the brain.
d- This molecule could fulfill a path similar or similar to that of growth factors, that is how they are associated with heparan sulfate of the extracellular matrix, which serves as a warehouse for inactive factors. FCFs contribute to different types of responses, such as wound healing, hematopoiesis, angiogenesis, or embryonic development
Explanation:
Regarding the explanation, it is important to keep in mind that this molecule can play a role both in the nervous system and in other organs, that is why in case it is sought that it does not have this apoptotic effect on neurons, some coarse, macro compound that allows the blood-brain barrier to not allow passage.
Select the true statements about the electron transport chain.
a) In the electron transport chain, a series of reactions moves electrons through carriers.
b) The products of the electron transport chain are H2O and either NAD or FAD.
c) The electron transport chain operates independently of other metabolic processes.
d) Coenzyme A is a component of the electron transport chain.
e) The electron transport chain is a series of oxidation-reduction reactions that occur in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
The correct answers are options a) "In the electron transport chain, a series of reactions moves electrons through carriers", b) "The products of the electron transport chain are H2O and either NAD or FAD" and e) "The electron transport chain is a series of oxidation-reduction reactions that occur in the inner mitochondrial membrane".
Explanation:
The electron transport chain is a series of redox reactions that make possible the transference of electrons along different carriers. These reactions take place in the inner mitochondrial membrane, with the main function of producing ATP by a proton pump that creates a proton gradient across the membrane. In addition to ATP, the products of the electron transport chain are H2O and either NAD or FAD, regenerating the NAD and FAD to be used in the citric acid cycle.
The true statements about the electron transport chain are that it involves a series of reactions that move electrons through carriers (Statement a) and that it consists of a series of oxidation-reduction reactions that occur in the inner mitochondrial membrane (Statement e). The other statements are not entirely accurate.
Explanation:In order to unearth the true statements about the electron transport chain in biology, it's important to break down each statement.
a) The electron transport chain does indeed consist of a series of reactions that transfer electrons through various carriers. This is a step in the process of cellular respiration where energy is released from nutrients.
b) The products of the electron transport chain are water (H2O) and ATP, a molecule that stores energy. This is not entirely accurate, as the electron transport chain doesn't produce NAD or FAD directly.
c) The electron transport chain is not independent, it's actually a part of the larger metabolic process of cellular respiration.
d) Coenzyme A is not a component of the electron transport chain. It's rather involved in the Krebs Cycle.
e) The electron transport chain does take place in the inner mitochondrial membrane, where it enables a series of oxidation-reduction reactions.
Thus, the correct statements about the electron transport chain are 'a' and 'e'.
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You discover a pattern of a 20 amino acid sequence at the C-terminus of over 50 proteins in an organism. You hypothesize that this amino acid sequence is a signal sequence for localization into a specific organelle or cell compartment, but you don't know which one. How might you use microscopy to investigate the location of proteins with this unique C-terminus sequence?
Answer:
It depends on the type of microscope that you have
Explanation:
For example, in the case that you have a fluorescence microscope, it is possible to create a fusion construct of the domain fused to the Green Fluorescence Protein (GFP) and then introduce it into the cell. The observation of fluorescence from this construct enables to confirm the existence of the signal sequence (i.e., the C-terminal domain) in the organelle
What is the process of structural determination? What are the common techniques for structural determination?
Answer:
Explanation:
Structural determination is a process that use analytical technique to describe in detailed the three dimensional positional coordinates of the scattered centre in an ordered Crystal lattice.
The techniques used are;
X- Ray crystallography, it usese the X-ray diffraction pattern. The structures to be determined by this is first of undergo purification and crystallisation, it is then expose beam of X-ray, which then diffract. It provide detailed atomic information of the structure.
NMR spectroscopy is can be use to determine the structure of protein. The structure to be determined is first of all purified, it is then exposed to strong magnetic field and radio waves. This method supply detailed information of protein in solution.
3D Electron microscopy is used to determined the 3D structures of bigger macromolecules. It uses beam of electron and lenses to show the image of electrons directly.
as a sample of water turns to ice?
Answer:
As the liquid cools down, the amount of potential energy is reduced and the molecules start to move slower. When the water temperature reaches around 0°C, the molecules stick together and form a solid – ice.
You are conducting a dihybrid cross. You mate a homozygous-dominant-smooth homozygous-recessive-green pea plant (SSyy) with a heterozygous-smooth homozygous-dominant-yellow pea plant (SsYY). What is the likelihood of obtaining an offspring with the following genotype: SSYy? Note: SS and Ss will result in the smooth phenotype; ss will result in the wrinkled phenotype; YY and Yy will result in the yellow phenotype; yy will result in the green phenotype. Hint: you are crossing the following: SSyy X SsYY. What is the likelihood of getting the following: SSYy?
Answer:
8/16 or 50% is the likelihood of getting SSYy.
Explanation:
To predict the outcome of the occurrence of SSYy, let's make a punnet square:
SY SY sY sY
Sy SSYy SSYy SsYy SsYy
Sy SSYy SSYy SsYy SsYy
Sy SSYy SSYy SsYy SsYy
Sy SSYy SSYy SsYy SsYy
8/16 of the plants will have a chance of having the genotype: SSYy This means that the there will be a 50% chance that the genotype of the offspring will be SSYy.
How do plant and animal cells compare
Answer:
Plant cells have cell walls an are shaped more rectangular
Animal cells have circular shapes
Explanation:
You guys can add on I think I forgot some information
Answer:
Listed below are some similarities and differences!
Explanation:
Some similarities are:
They are both eukaryotic cellsThey both contain membrane-bound organelles (such as nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum)Both have similar membranes, cytosol, and cytoskeletal elements.Some differences are:
Animal cells are round, plant cells are rectangular (most of the time)Plant cells have rigid cell walls around the membrane, animal cells do not have a cell wallSCENARIO A
Anthropologists have studied the role of quinoa (ancient grain) in the culture of Bolivia. The researchers interviewed people about how frequently they ate quinoa, where they ate it (at home or in restaurants), and during what time of day they ate it. The researchers also asked people about how they prepare quinoa, where they obtain quinoa products, and any beliefs they might have about the quinoa (such as their nutritional value). The data were used to assess the role of quinoa in the culture. The researchers also considered how this relates to global quinoa consumption patterns.
What is the primary field of anthropology addressed in this research?
Linguistic anthropology
Archaeology
Biological anthropology
Cultural anthropology
Question 21 pts
Which field of anthropology (other than the one you indicated above) is most related to this research?
Biological Anthropology
Archaeology
Linguistic Anthropology
Cultural Anthropology
All fields of Anthropology are related to this topic
Question 31 pts
How might this research contribute to a comparative anthropological approach?
This research could be used to compare quinoa consumption in other parts of the world.
This research could be used to compare biological adaptations across Bolivia.
This research could be used to compare quinoa consumption in other primate species.
This research could be used to compare quinoa DNA to other plants.
Answer:
Biological anthropology
cultural anthropology
This research could be used to compare quinoa consumption in other parts of the world.
Explanation:
Anthropology is the science of studying human societies, including language, culture, and the use of other people with previous civilizations. In the case of cultural anthropology, its main purpose is to study the cultural elements unique to each human group; This includes areas such as religion, habits, customs and food. Cultural anthropology is a study of cultures and human society, in the above statements they survey the eating of quinoa, and they clearly state that there is an ancient grain similar to that in Bolivian culture, so they are in cultural anthropology Yes, it may be subject to a comparative approach to all areas of the world because they are eating kvinova, which will be studied by the comparative.In goats, a recessive gene causes the goats to "faint" when they are startled. A farmer has a goat that is a carrier for the fainting gene (Gg). Gertrude is mated with one that is homozygous dominant. How many of their offspring will be fainters
Answer:
None
Explanation:
A cross between a heterozygous goat and a homozygous dominant goat would result in no children having the trait.
G G
G GG | GG
-- | --
g Gg | Gg
Answer:
None
Explanation:
This question states that this particular allele (dubbed "g" ) acts in a recessive manner. This means that the corresponding "fainter" phenotype will be found only when the allele is present in a homozygote state (gg).
If a Gg (heterozygous) goat is mated with a GG (homozygous dominant) goat, it would be expected that approximately 50% of their progeny will be GG and the other 50% will be Gg . Barring the occurrence of de novo mutations, one would not expect any of the offspring to possess an homozygous recessive (gg) genotype and therefore develop as "fainters".
nick normal alveolar ventilation rate (AVR) during mild exercise is 6.0 L/min. She goes snorkeling to a beach, on a warm summer day,water is not too cold. The snorkel volume is 50 ml. Assuming this is a mild exercise for Angina, what should be her respiratory rate to maintain 6.0 L while snorkeling. ( Assume a constant tidal volume of 500 ml and anatomic dead space of 150 ml)
Answer:
RR = 17.14min∧-1
Explanation:
AVR = 6L/min
snorkel volume = 50ml
to calculate the respiratory rate to maintain 6l/min(AVR)
Tidal Volume = 500 ml
anatomic dead space = 150ml
Alvedar ventilation rate = ( TV - Anatomic dead space) x RR
6l/min = ( 500 -150)ml x rr
600ml = 350 x RR
RR = 600ml/mins/350ml
RR = 17.14min∧-1
Give the order for the life cycle of the hydrozoan, Obelia, starting with the reproductive polyp form. Answers Selected Answer Growth into mature polyp 1. Reproductive polyps form. Cells grow into Planula. 2. Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form. 3. Medusa buds. Medusa buds. 4. Meiosis occurs. Meiosis occurs. 5. Fertilization occurs. Fertilization occurs. 6. Cells grow into Planula.
Answer:
3. Medusa buttons. Medusa buttons.
4. Meiosis occurs. Meiosis occurs.
5. Fertilization takes place. Fertilization takes place.
6. The cells grow in Planula.
1. Form of reproductive polyps.
2. Growth in mature polyp Form of reproductive polyps.
Explanation:
The Obelia life cycle begins when two jellyfish buttons of opposite sexes undergo meiosis forming the female and male gametes. The male gamete will fertilize the female gamete, forming a zygote. The cells of the zygote will grow into a structure called Planula that will develop and form a mature popolis (a structure that looks like a stem with roots that hold it to the rocky part of the ocean), the mature propolis means that it is able to reproduce itself. if so, it will form reproductive propolis.
Question:
Give the order for the life cycle of the hydrozoan, Obelia, starting with the reproductive polyp form.
1. Reproductive polyps form.
2. Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form.
3. Medusa buds.
4. Meiosis occurs.
5. Fertilization occurs.
6. Cells grow into Planula.
Answer:
The order for the lifecycle of the hydrozoan - Obelia starting from the reproductive polyp form is given below:
3. From Reproductive form of the Polyph, it sheds the Medusa buds. The medusa stage of Obelia species is common in coastal and offshore plankton around the world. The blastostyles of the Polyph are the reproductive zooids as they reproduce asexually to give rise to numerous lateral buds called medusa buds or gonophores. These buds develop into third type of zooids of the colony called medusae.
5 After medusa happens, Fertilisation occurs: Sometimes the flagellated sperms swim about in water and fertilize the ova present in female medusae. The fertilisation takes place in water. As medusa is the motile form, it performs two important functions for the colony namely reproduction and dispersal of the gametes.
4. After fertilisation then Meiosis starts to happen. Meiosis is a process where a single cell divides twice to produce four cells containing half the original amount of genetic information. These cells are our sex cells – sperm in males, eggs in females. During meiosis one cell divides twice to form four daughter cells.
6. After meiosis, cells grow into Planula.
The embryo is set free from the egg membrane as a free-swimming larva called the planula. The larva swims about for some time and brings about wide distribution of the species.
After the free-swimming life the planula larva loses its cilia and settles down on the bottom of the sea, gets attached to the substratum by its broader end and undergoes metamorphosis.
1. Reproductive Polyps begin to form.
2. Growth into mature polyp Reproductive polyps form: the Obelia achieves full maturity and ready for the cycle all over again.
Cheers!
Enolase is an enzyme that catalyzes one reaction in glycolysis in all organisms that carry out this process. The amino acid sequence of enolase is similar but not identical in the organisms. Researchers purified enolase from Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a single-celled eukaryotic yeast that grows best at 37°C, and from Chloroflexus aurantiacus, a bacterium that grows best at the much higher temperature of 55 C. The researchers compared the activity of purified enolase from the two organisms by measuring the rate of the reaction in the presence of varying concentrations of substrate and a constant amount of each enzyme at both 37°C and 55°C.
Depending on the organism, the optimal pH for enolase to catalyze its reaction is between 6.5 and 8.0. Describe how a pH below or above this range is likely to affect enolase and its catalytic ability
Answer:
pH below or above the optimal range will result in loss of the enzyme activity.Changing the pH above or below optimum range affect the charges that reside on the amino acid molecules. Amino acids present in the active site of enzymes that attracted each other may no longer continue to be attracted.Again, the shape of the active site of the enzyme will change as a result of which substrate binding will be affected.Overall we can say that the enzymes are denatured.
With the use of site-directed mutagenesis, hemoglobin has been prepared in which the proximal histidine residues in both alpha and the beta subunits have been replaced by glycine. The imidazole ring from the histidine residue can be replaced by adding free imidazole in solution. a) Would you expect this modified Hb with free imidazole to exhibit oxygen binding? Why or why not? b)Would you expect this modified hemoglobin to show cooperativity in oxygen binding? Why or why not?
Answer:
a) No, because the heme group that has the ability to bind oxygen is bound via the imidazole ring of a histidine residue
b) The imidazole in solution bind to the heme group and then facilitates its binding to oxygen; however, protein does not have the proximal histidine residues which are capable of triggering conformational changes in the folded protein structure
what does the immune system provide
Answer:
It provides you
Explanation:
Answer:
The immune system has a vital role: It protects your body from harmful substances, germs and cell changes that could make you ill. It is made up of various organs, cells and proteins
Describe the reaction of metals by giving equation with :
1: acids
2: metal carbonates
3: metal oxides
Answer:
1. acid + metal --> salt + hydrogen
2. acid + metal carbonate ---> water + salt + carbon dioxide
3. acid + metal oxide --> salt + water
Explanation:
Of the 30000000 species on earth,how many are lost each hour?
Harvard biologist E.O. Wilson's research indicates that the planet is losing species at an unprecedented rate of 3 per hour, which is 100 to 1,000 times the natural background rate. This biodiversity crisis could lead to the loss of half of today's species within the century, highlighting the urgency of addressing this global issue.
Explanation:E.O. Wilson, a renowned Harvard biologist, has provided us with alarming insights into the current state of species extinction. His research indicates that we are losing species at an incredibly rapid rate, 3 species per hour and potentially 140,000 species per year. This rate is 100 to 1,000 times the historical average. These extinctions are permanent, leading to a significant decline in biodiversity.
In 2002, Wilson predicted that if the current rates of extinction continue, we might lose up to 50% of today's plant and animal species within this century. This prediction highlights the urgency and potential consequences of this biodiversity crisis. Considering that the natural background extinction rate is only about one per million species per year, the accelerated rate at which we are losing species is of grave concern for conservationists and scientists alike.
It is important to note that the extinction of species has far-reaching effects. It impacts ecosystem function, the potential for medical and technological advancements, and the overall health of our planet. Addressing this issue is crucial for maintaining the integrity of Earth's ecosystems and the resources they provide to humanity.
From a large-scale screen of many plants of Collinsia grandiflora, a plant with three cotyledons was discovered (normally, there are two cotyledons). This plant was crossed with a normal pure-breeding wild-type plant, and 600 seeds from this cross were planted. There were 298 plants with two cotyledons and 302 with three cotyledons. What can be deduced about the inheritance of three cotyledons
Answer:
The cross is as follows:
P: D/d × d/d
Explanation:
Half of the F1 progeny are mutant. The mutation results in 3 cotyledons is dominant and the original mutant is heterozygous.
If D denotes the mutant allele and d denotes the wild type allele.
The cross is as follows:
P: D/d × d/d
F1 denotes D/d three cotyledons
d/d denote two cotyledons
You created a strain with several mutations surrounding (but not within) the sigma32 RBS by changing A-T base pairs to G-C base pairs. Would you predict that these changes have an effect on sigma32 expression levels during high heat stress?
Answer:
no idea ;-;
Explanation:
Traditional ecological knowledge is A. rarely shared in local languages B. not well known in the West because some species and ecological interactions exist in only one place C. not useful in the contemporary world D. extremely valued by Westerners
Answer:
Option-C
Explanation:
Traditional ecological knowledge is the knowledge acquired and adapted by the local or native people living in a particular area.
The traditional knowledge is gained by the holistic approach of gaining the knowledge that is which benefits survival and increases the chances of well being.
The approach aims at learning by making direct contact with the surrounding environment, learning its ways, understanding the relationship between the various factors and then adapting to the condition and utilizing the available information.
The traditional way aims at looking at the environment in whole but the modern way of understanding the environment aim by learning the environment in the components.
The traditional knowledge is always shared by the local people in their local language but since the ideology of gaining the knowledge differ in both the ways and TEK is shared in local language therefore sometimes the knowledge does not prove useful in the contemporary world.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
Traditional ecological knowledge (TEK) is a body of understanding about ecosystems developed by Indigenous and local communities. It is transmitted orally through generations and is increasingly recognized by conservation biologists for its valuable contributions to sustainability and conservation outcomes.
Explanation:Traditional ecological knowledge, often abbreviated as TEK, refers to the comprehensive understanding of ecosystems that Indigenous and local communities accumulate over generations through direct contact with their environment. This experiential knowledge is passed down orally and is not solely focused on conservation, but it also informs sustainable practices that have been used for millennia. While traditional ecological knowledge may not be widely acknowledged in Western societies due to language barriers and geographic specificity, it is gaining recognition among conservation biologists for its invaluable contributions to understanding local ecosystems and species.
Moreover, TEK encompasses knowledge not just about the environment but also includes uses such as the treatment of maladies. It provides a valuable complement to scientific approaches, especially in areas where little scientific data exist. TEK can lead to conservation outcomes through practices that have evolved to sustainably manage local resources, such as the designation of sacred groves, and it shapes scientific methods in fields like regenerative agriculture and natural resource management.
Describe what will occur the population if it increases in number when food is scarce?
Answer:
more people will die
Explanation:
If you have a big population and little food mor peple will die.
Humans have the ability to change the characteristics, or traits, of organisms over time. What is this process called?
Answer:
I think the answer is Selective breeding and Artificial selection
Explanation:
Its what the document says in StemScopes
Have you ever heard that all dogs are related to wolves? For some dogs, such as huskies and German shepherds, the resemblance to wolves is quite striking. You can see how they may be related. But what about other dogs? Pugs look nothing like wolves. Neither do chihuahuas or toy poodles, yet these dogs are also related of the wolf. So how did we get from wolves to toy poodles? The answer is artificial selection. Humans change specific characteristics of organisms through selective breeding.
Hope this helps :D
Humans have the ability to change the characteristics, or traits, of organisms over time.The property is called as adaptation.
What is the nature's law of survival ?
It says that the one who is fit for the nature and has all the traits to survive in the tremendous conditions as well are the fittest to survive.
The adaptation of the organisms where the organisms are fit and live according to the tough conditions coming in the way of their survival are roped away by developing certain traits that are helping the organisms to get away from the troubles.
The adaptations for example the moths where the melanin pigment that is responsible for the coloration so that are safe from the attacks of the preys.
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A transmembrane protein has the following properties: it has two binding sites, one for solute A and one for solute B. the protein can undergo a conformational change to switch between two states: either both binding sites are exposed exclusively on one side of the membrane, or both are exposed exclusively on the other side of the membrane. The protein can switch between the two conformational states only if both binding sites are occupied or if both binding sites are empty, but cannot switch if only one binding site is occupied.
A. What kind of a transporter do these properties define?
B. Do you need to specify any additional properties to turn this protein into a transporter that couples the movement of solute A up its concentration gradient to the movement of solute B down its electrochemical gradient?
Answer:
Explanation:
a) A symporter is simply known as an integral protein membrane that helps in the movement of two or more different molecules or ions across a phospholipid membrane.
b) The glucose–Na+ symport protein uses the electrochemical Na+ gradient to drive the import of glucose.
After ovulation, ___1___ acts on the remaining follicle cells to promote the development of the ___ 2___ , which produces estrogen and large amounts of ____3____ , which then causes the endometirum to become ____4____ in preparation for ____5____ should fertilization of the ovum occur. If the ovum is not fertilized the corpus luteum ____ 6____ resulting in a drop of estrogen and progesterone levels. The endometrium then sloughs off in the ____7____ . The drop in estrogen and progesterone removes the ____ 8_____ and the GnRH is produced by the _____9____ and the cycle beings again.
Answer:
The options include
hypothalamus
negative feedback inhibition
menstruations flow
degenerates
Progastrin
LH
nutritive and receptive
corpus luteum
implantation
Explanation:
1)LH (Luteinizing Hormone )
2)CORPUS LUTEUM
3)PROGASTRIN
4)NUTRITIVE AND RECEPTIVE 5)IMPLANTATION
6)DEGENERATES
7) MENSTRUATION FLOW
8)NEGATIVE FEEDBACK INHIBITION
9) HYPOTHALAMUS
When electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules in cellular respiration ________. When electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules in cellular respiration ________. the electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons in the formation of water the electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons in the formation of water
Answer:
When electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules in cellular respiration, oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons in the formation of water
Explanation:
The electron transport chain is located in the internal mitochondrial membrane. There are three proteinic complexes in the membrane, I, II, and III, that contain the electrons transporters and the enzymes necessary to catalyze the electrons transference from one complex to the other. Complex I contains the flavine mononucleotide -FMN- that receives electrons from the NADH. The coenzyme Q, located in the lipidic interior of the membrane, conducts electrons from complex I to complex II. The complex II contains cytochrome b, from where electrons go to cytochrome c, which is a peripheric membrane protein. Electrons travel from cytochrome c to cytochromes a and a3, located in the complex III. Finally, electrons go back to the matrix, where they combine to H₊ ions and oxygen, to form the water molecule. As electrons are transported through the chain, protons are bombed through the three proteinic complexes from the matrix to the intermembrane space.
In cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules, releasing energy with each transfer. This energy is used to form ATP. The final electron acceptor is oxygen, which is reduced by the electrons to form water.
Explanation:When electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules in cellular respiration, they do not gain energy as they move. Instead, each time the electrons are transferred from one electron acceptor to another, they release energy. This released energy is then used in the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy currency of the cell. During the electron transport chain, the last step of cellular respiration, oxygen is the final electron acceptor. This oxygen is reduced by the electrons to form water. Therefore, it's not glucose but oxygen that is reduced during the process.
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What type of digestion is it when food is physically broken into smaller pieces?
Answer:
Physical Digestion
Explanation:
That’s it
You are studying mitosis in a species of snake. You notice that during mitosis of diploid cells there are 7 groups of chromosomes on the metaphase plate. Is it surprising that this is an odd number? Why or why not?
Answer:
No, this is not surprising
Explanation:
No, it is not surprising that it is given 7 groups of chromosomes, that is, each chromosome is paired. This makes 7 × 2 = 14 chromosomes in the entire meta phase plate. The human meta phase represents the 23 groups of chromosomes on the plate, that is, 23 × 2 = 46 chromosomes. Every organism on this planet has several chromosomes in diploid or 2N, otherwise an equal distribution of chromosomes on the any phase is not possible.Infectious agents could be organisms or viruses. You observe a case of conjunctivitis. Thisillness could be caused by an organism (Chlamydia trachomatis) or by Adenovirus.Both of these etiologic agents are obligate intracellular pathogens. Explain why one is a virus the other one is not by applying the criteria suggested by AndreLwof . Discuss how the two pathogens differ at each point covered in le
Answer:
Explanation:
Conjunctivitis can be caused by either a bacteria or a virus or even sometimes due to allergic reactions.
According to Andrelwof, viruses are classified based
i. on nature of DNA or RNA,
ii. nature of nucleocapsid ,
iii. symmetry of nucleocapsid,
iv. diameter of nucleocapsid with helical symmetry
So Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacteria, they have a nucleocapsid. They are just a single cell. But Adenovirus is a virus, that has a head and tail, contains nucleocapsid.
Chlamydia is Gram negative obligate intracellular pathogen. They can spread through direct or indirect contact through fomites, hand, contaminated towels. They affect both the eyes and symptoms include itching, irritation, discharge, swelling of eyelids, photophobia, and pain.
Laboratory diagnosis can be done by direct detection of inclusion bodies with Giemsa staining of conjunctival smears.
Adenoviruses are the most important and most frequent cause of follicular epidemic keratoconjunctivitis . The major mode of transmission is by direct inoculation by fingers. symptoms include itching, tearing, burning and foreign body sensation as well as photophobia.
the best method for diagnosis is the quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and Enzyme immunoassays which are a cheaper and faster option with a high sensitivity.
Match the organ or gland with the enzymes or secretions it releases. amylase peptidase lipase HCl bile A. pancreas B. small intestine C. stomach (chief cells) D. salivary glands E. liver F. stomach (parietal cells)
Answer:
Amylase- alpha amylase in salivary glands and pancreatic amylase in pancreas
peptidase - stomach (chief cells)
lipase - pancreas
HCl - (parietal cells)
bile - liver
Explanation:
Alpha-amylase which is an enzyme also known as ptyalin is produced in the salivary gland and found in the saliva helping in the first step in the hydrolysis of starch. The leftover starch molecules are further broken down by the pancreatic amylase produced in the pancreas. Peptidase is secreted in the chief cells of the stomach and they catalyze the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or single amino acids. Lipase is produced from the pancreas and converts fats to fatty acids. HCl also produced in the stomach aids in the process of digestion in the stomach. Bile produced by the liver is involved in the emulsification of fats.