Answer:
The correct answer is option A. true.
Explanation:
Hydrostatic pressure is the main driving force that helps lymph move between capillaries and interstitial compartment or tissues. The pressure caused by a fluid against the wall of interstitial is called Interstitial hydrostatic pressure (IFHP). IFHP is comparably low than capillary hydrostatic pressure because lymphatic vessels are regularly absorbing extra fluid from the interstitial compartment.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. true.
The coronary circulation receives its blood supply from vessels that arise from the:
a. right ventricle
b. left atrium
c. left ventricle
d. pulmonary trunk
e. base of the aorta
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B-left atrium.
Explanation:
The coronary circulation is the circulation of blood and nutrients to the myocardium of the heart on both sides.
The coronary system consists of coronary arteries and coronary sinus(vein) in which coronary arteries arise from the main artery of the circulatory system called aorta. This aorta arises from the left atrium of the heart which supplies oxygenated blood. These coronary arteries divide into left and right arteries which supply oxygenated blood to the heart.
Thus, option B-left atrium is the correct answer.
What are the different types of vegetarianism? Veganism?
a. Recommendations for nutrients vegans to potentially supplement?
Answer:
Vegetarianism, as well as veganism, are defined as diets in which in one way or another, there is either a restriction in the type of animal products that are consumed, or no consumption of these products. However, in veganism, there is even more restriction, as essentially, vegans of different types will eat some types of plant foods, while not others. In vegetarianism, there is absolutely no consumption of animals flesh, but there can be consumption of dairy products and eggs. In veganism, depending on the type, there may be restrictions to some types of meat, or all types, consumption of dairy and eggs, or limitations in these consumptions as well.
As such, the vegetarians are just that, people who do not consume animal flesh of any kind, but can eat dairy and eggs. There are no further groups here
But in Vegans, there are several groups, and their name depends on what they eat, and do not eat. As such we have: Strict Vegan, Lacto-Ovo-Vegan (will eat eggs and dairy), Lacto-Vegan (Only dairy), Fruitarian (only fruits, nuts and certain plants), Flexitarians (sometimes eat meat), Pescatarians (will eat fish), and Raw Foodists (Only fruits, nuts and plants on their raw state)
The types of nutrients that will be lacking, especially for strict vegans and strict vegetarians are: Vitamin B-12, Folic Acid, Calcium, Iron and Zinc. These are all nutrients that must be supplied through supplements on these diets.
Vegetarianism has various forms including veganism which excludes all animal products. Vegans should ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients and may benefit from supplements like vitamin B12. Plant-based diets can offer health benefits and environmental advantages, but cost savings vary.
Explanation:There are various types of vegetarianism, including lacto-vegetarianism (includes dairy), ovo-vegetarianism (includes eggs), lacto-ovo vegetarianism (includes both dairy and eggs), pescatarianism (includes fish), and veganism, where no animal products are consumed at all. Vegans need to pay special attention to their diet to ensure they receive all essential nutrients, particularly protein, iron, zinc, omega-3, and vitamin B12. To get all essential amino acids, vegans can combine different plant sources of protein, as no single plant food contains all essential amino acids.
A plant-based diet has numerous health benefits, including the potential for reducing the risk of chronic diseases like cancer, heart disease, and Type 2 diabetes. It can also assist with weight maintenance and may reduce the environmental impact compared to omnivorous diets. However, financial savings are variable and depend on food choices and local prices. Vegans may need to supplement their diet with specific nutrients such as vitamin B12, which is predominantly found in animal products.
What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Answer:
The main function of the respiratory system is the exchange of oxygen from the atmosphere for carbon dioxide produced by the cells of the body. Other functions of the respiratory system include participation in the acid-base balance of the body, phonation, pulmonary defense, and metabolism.
Explanation:
The exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the lungs is the primary purpose of the respiratory system.
What is the respiratory system?Since other structures such as the nose, trachea, and throat just transfer gases to the alveoli so that they may carry out their role, the alveoli are the sole structure that performs this function.
These are one-celled thick, facilitating simple absorption of carbon dioxide and oxygen from breathed air into the bloodstream (from the bloodstream to exhaled air).
Additionally, they have an abundance of blood capillaries that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide from the cells, respectively.
Therefore, the exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the lungs is the primary purpose of the respiratory system.
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What type of tissue is housed in the appendix? What is appendicits? How can appendicitis lead to peritonitis
Answer:
It has a longitudinal muscle layer in the lamina muscularis
Explanation:
In this muscle layer the appendix houses an important number of lymphatic nodules. There is an orifice between the appendix and the cecum, when this orifice is obstructed due to scars, viscous mucus or fecal matter it might cause appendicitis that is an inflammation of the appendix. If the inflammation is untreated it may rupture leading to appendicitis.
Describe the roles of the nervous system in two of the following:
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Rabies
c. Cerebral Palsy
d. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
e. Alzheimer’s Disease
f. Multiple Sclerosis
Answer:
Role of nervous system in Parkinson's disease:
Parkinson's disease is a neuro disorder that affects the nerve cells. The neurons responsible for the body movement is affected in this disease. The neurons that produce dopamine, dies in the parkinson's disease and result in the conditions like slowness, tremor and stiffness.
Role of nervous system in Alzheimer's disease:
Alzheimer's disease is a type of dementia that loses the individual's ability to think and memorize the things. The brain tissue is degenerated in this disease. The nerve cell loses its function and the protein beta amyloid get deposited in this disease.
Answer:
C.
Alzheimer disease
Explanation:
Evaluation of evidence should be solely based upon study design.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
The correct answer to this question: Evaluation of evidence should be based solely upon study design:____, would be: false.
Explanation:
According to research done on the topic, there are many other issues that must be taken into account when evaluating the results of a research study, be it clinical, or in the field, and not simply study design. Study design allows the evaluators to assess the style, the form, and the way in which the study was carried out to reach results, but evaluating results, the evidence gathered only based on how the study was designed would be wrong. This evidence evaluation should focus primarily on how the intervention worked on a certain study, and whether it was carried out in such a way that would yield the proper results, without bias.
Arterial damage entering the fovea capitis can result in necrosis:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
The answer to the given question is
option (a) Hip
Explanation:
Necrosis is that state or condition in which a body tissue dies or is damaged.
Arterial damage that enters the fovea capitis (which is a tiny depression within the femoral head serves the purpose of an attachment or joint point(like a ball which provides high degree of motion) for the ligamentum teres which keeps the femur in the hip socket) can result in avascular necrosis to the femoral head with dislocations and fractures of hip.
If reactivated by stress after being latent, varicella zoster can lead to a painful condition in the peripheral nerves known as:
A. shingles.
B. papilloma virus
C. small pox.
D. chicken pox.
Answer:
Shingles.
Explanation:
Shingles is the condition of the reactivation of viral infection that may leads itching, pain and burning sensation in the affected individual. This is the second eruption of chicken pox virus in an individual.
Shingles causative agent is Varicella zoster and may get reactivated by stress. The virus may get activated at the peripheral nerves and causes pain and blisters in the skin.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Define the following terms.
a. Voluntary
b. Striated
c. What causes the formation of striations in skeletal muscle?
Answer:
a. Voluntary.
Voluntary means the work which can be done according to the individual's will. Skeletal muscles are under voluntary control that maintains the movement of hand, legs and muscles movement.
b. Striated.
Striated means the presence of dark and light bands of skeletal muscles when placed under the microscope. Cardiac muscles also shows striation.
c. Reason of striation.
The presence of actin and myosin protein present in the muscle is responsible for the striations of the skeletal muscle. The thick filament is formed by myosin and thin filament is formed by actin protein.
Describe the tests you would use to assess a patient's hearing acuity. What results would you expect if the patient's ability to hear and localize sounds was suspected to be below normal?
Answer:
An audiometry that assesses the airway and nerve at the same time.
When a person has hearing impairment, will be seen a fall in the audiometric graph both at the level of the bone or neurological pathway above 30 decibels and 250 hertz.
Audiometry is the key test for assessing hearing acuity. Increased dB measurements on the audiogram indicate below-normal hearing ability.
Audiometry is the primary test used to assess a patient's hearing acuity. This test measures the hearing threshold in decibels (dB) relative to the normal threshold across various frequencies, depicted in an audiogram.
If a patient's ability to hear and localize sounds is suspected to be below normal, the results on the audiogram would show an increase in dB measurements, indicating a loss of hearing acuity, especially at higher frequencies.
A 60-year-old man is unable to walk more than 100 yards without experiencing severe pain in his left leg; the pain is relieved by resting for 5-10 minutes. He is told that the arteries of his leg are becoming occluded with fatty material and is advised to have the sympathetic nerves serving that body region severed. Explain how such surgery might help to relieve this man's problem.
Answer:
Cutting the nerves will open up the blood flow to the arteries. Since the sympathetic nerves will be severed, it will result in reduced vasoconstriction and vasodilation will occur.
Explanation:
The severe leg pain in the man could be due to atherosclerosis, reduced blood flow to his leg muscles during exercise. Surgery mentioned involves severing the sympathetic nerves, possibly removing plaque and inducing vasodilation improving blood flow. Lifestyle changes along with medication could also be part of the treatment plan.
Explanation:The 60-year-old man's suffering could be due to atherosclerosis, characterized by the accumulation of fatty material that blocks the arteries. In this condition, there is a reduced blood flow especially during exercise, causing pain due to insufficient oxygen reaching the muscles in his legs (ischemia).
When the sympathetic nerves serving that body region are severed, the surgical procedure, which may be an endarterectomy, possibly removes the plaque surgically from the arteries, enhancing blood flow. Moreover, these sympathetic nerves are responsible for constricting the blood vessels; removing them will cause vasodilation (expansion of the vessels), further improving blood flow.
However, potential lifestyle changes and other non-surgical treatments, including weight loss, regular exercise, and certain medications, should also be considered as part of the man's overall treatment plan.
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Explain the importance of a proper job attitude.
A proper job attitude helps with the following:
- increased opportunities at workplace. If you are seen as an enthusiastic person who is full of energy and really likes his job, you would be considered a valued employee and you may get promotion.
- increased productivity at workplace: a proper job attitude puts you in a better mood and you may even enjoy doing tasks you usually don't like.
- it helps to create positive environment at workplace and to form better relationships with work colleagues.
All in all, a proper job attitude is important as it defines your everyday well being. If you do a job you hate, arrive at work in a bad mood and only wait for the day to finish so that you can go home, you have an improper job attitude and should consider changing the job as it is harmful for you and the people working around you.
Which neuroglial cell is found in the PNS?
A) microglial cell
B) satellite cell
C) astrocyte
D) ependymal cell
Answer:
Satellite cells.
Explanation:
Neuroglia cells is present in the both the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. Neuroglia cells are involved in the exchange between neurons and capillaries.
The main neuroglis cells of the peripheral nervous system are schwann cells and satellite cells. Satellite cells support the neurons and helps them in their nutrient supply.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Inherited disease of the respiratory system include:
a. coryza
b. cystic fibrosis
c. pneumonia
d. SARS
e. tuberculosis
Answer:
The answer is B: Cystic fibrosis.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a SERIOUS hereditary disease, which not only damages the lungs but also the digestive system and is characterized by affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat and gastric juices. These fluids are altered in their composition, becoming thick and sticky which lead to an obstruction of the ducts.
Glucose levels remain higher than normal in this kind of diabetes.
a. Type 1
b. Both type1 and type 2
c. Type 2
Answer:
Both type 1 and type 2
Explanation:
Diabetes is a condition of the body in which an individual blood glucose levels remains high. The common form of diabetes is diabetes mellitus. Type I and Type II Diabetes are the types of diabetes mellitus.
Type I diabetes is more common in children and the individuals body does not produce insulin as the immune system attacks the beta cells of pancreas. Type II is most common diabetes in which body is not able to use insulin. Hence, the glucose levels remains high in both Type I and Type II diabetes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Describe the bone matrix of organic and inorganic components.
Final answer:
The bone matrix consists of organic components, mainly collagen fibers, which provide strength and flexibility, and inorganic components, predominantly calcium phosphate salts that form hydroxyapatite, granting hardness and resistance to compression.
Explanation:
Bone Matrix Components:
The bone matrix is comprised of both organic and inorganic components. The organic part consists primarily of collagen fibers and proteoglycans, which lend strength and flexibility to the bone. This organic matrix is similar to other connective tissues and contains not just collagen but also a small amount of elastic fibers. On the other hand, the inorganic matrix is mainly made up of calcium salts, predominantly in the form of hydroxyapatite, which is a crystalline structure formed from calcium phosphate. The hydroxyapatite gives the bone its hardness and the ability to withstand compressive forces. Together, these two components allow bone to be strong yet flexible enough to avoid being brittle and support the various stresses it encounters from daily activities and movements.
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with which of the following?
A. repolarization
B. hyperpolarization
C. depolarization
D. inhibition potential
Answer: C) depolarization
Explanation:
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with depolarization as, it is defined as change in membrane potential it is known as depolarization. Due to influx of positive charge ions sodium and the membrane potential rise towards positive value in depolarization.
The opening of voltage gated sodium channel increases intra-cellular sodium ion concentration, which lead to depolarization.
The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with the depolarization of a neuron's membrane. Depolarization is caused by the influx of Na+ ions into the cell when these channels open, which occurs when the voltage threshold is reached during an action potential.
Explanation:The opening of Na+ voltage-gated channels is associated with depolarization of the neuronal membrane. During an action potential, when the neuronal membrane's voltage reaches a certain threshold, these channels open and allow Na+ ions to rush into the neuron. This rapid influx of positive Na+ ions decreases the charge difference across the membrane, leading to depolarization. If the threshold of excitation is reached, all Na+ channels open, leading to a further decrease in voltage across the membrane and propelling the action potential down the axon.
During repolarization, the inactivation gate of the Na+ channel closes, and no more Na+ can enter the cell. After repolarization, hyperpolarization may occur, but it is not associated with the opening of Na+ channels; instead, it is typically associated with the opening of K+ channels allowing K+ ions to leave the cell, making the inside of the cell more negative compared to the outside.
which of the following x-ray procedures involves Injecting contrast media into the ureters to visualize the renal pelvis?
A. intravenous pyelogram
B. cystourethrogram
C. retrograde pyelogram
D. renal arteriogram
Answer:
The correct option is A. Intravenous pyelogram
Explanation:
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is a radiology technique and a type of X-ray which is used to visualize any abnormality present in the urinary system. The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters and the bladder.
This method involves intravenously injecting a contrast media to highlight the urinary tract. After the contrast media is injected, it travels to the ureters, renal pelvis and then into the bladder.
Therefore, making the urinary system and thus the renal pelvis visible on the X-ray by injecting contrast media in the ureters.
Of the following cell types, which are found patrolling areas exposed to harmful bacteria?
a) Fibroblasts
b) Osteocytes
c) Macrophages
d) Chrondroblasts
Answer:
C. Macrophages
Explanation:
Macrophages are derived from monocytes of the bone marrow. They migrate to connective tissue and are in charge of phagocytosis of foreign particles. They also participate in the enhancement of inmunological activities of lymphocytes. Macrophages can be found in infection sites, since they detect, phagocytose and destroy bacteria and other harmful organisms.
Macrophages are the immune system cells that patrol areas exposed to harmful bacteria, engulfing pathogens and cellular debris.
Macrophages are the cells found patrolling areas exposed to harmful bacteria. These cells are part of the immune system and play a vital role in engulfing infectious agents and cellular debris. Macrophages release cytokines that recruit other immune cells to infected sites.
What are the 9 bones that make up the nasal cavity?
Answer:
Explanation:
Nasal bones are normally oblong and small. The function of the nasal bone in human body is to bind with the cartilage tissues to form nose shape and contours.
The internal septum of the nasal bone separates the nasal cavity into two nostrils. The following are the 9 bones that makes up the nasal cavity.
The nasal bone includes the pair of maxilla and palatine bones and one nasal bone.
The nasal bone is associated with the two cranial and two facial bones.
Compare and contrast the two thienopyridines: clopidogrel and parasugrel. Why would one drug be better suited for the clinic than another?
Answer:
Clopidogrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{12}[/tex] ADP receptors. Clopidogrel inhibits the platelets aggregation and activation. This drug can reduce the rate of myocardial infarction in the patients. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with serotonin.
Parasugrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{21}[/tex] ADP receptors. Parasugrel inhibits the platelets activation by the irreversible binding with its receptor. This drug can reduce the rate thrombotic cardiovascular events. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with warfarin.
Parasugrel is better suited than clopidegrol in case of stent thrombosis because this drug works faster and can easily be absorbed in the small intestine.
Please explain what is a seizure.
Answer: hola i am marissa and im here to help !:)
a seizure happens when a surge of abnormal electrical activity happens in the brain, there are multiple types of seizures, the most common types are
"tonic" ,"clonic" "tonic,clonic"
Explanation:
first-aid for seizures
note:if the siezure lasts longer than for minutes call 911
move all objects out of the victims paths to prevent them form injuring themselves, provide head support(do not try to hold them down it could lead to further injury of the victim or yourself)
once the seizure has ended roll them on to there side and tilt the victims head back to prevent choking in case the victim vomits the vomit r acid that comes up can block the air ways
do not offer food or water until the victim is completely aware of there surroundings.
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In this type of diabetes, target cells do not respond normally to insulin.
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Both type1 and type 2
Answer:
(b). Type 2
Explanation:
Type 2 diabetes or adult-onset diabetes can be defined as a type of diabetes, characterized by increased level of blood glucose. Common symptoms include frequent urination, increased thirst, sudden weight loss, and abnormally increased sugar level.
It is caused by development of insulin resistance, in which cells loss sensitivity to insulin hormone as insulin receptors for become unresponsive to the hormone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Type 2 diabetes is characterized by the target cells not responding normally to insulin.
Explanation:The correct answer is b. Type 2. In Type 2 diabetes, the target cells in the body do not respond normally to the insulin that is produced. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When the target cells are resistant to the effects of insulin, it leads to high blood sugar levels.
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Type 2 diabetes is associated with target cells not responding normally to insulin, a condition known as insulin resistance. This is different from Type 1 diabetes where the body fails to produce adequate insulin.
Explanation:In the context of diabetes, when target cells do not respond normally to insulin, this condition is typically associated with Type 2 diabetes. Unlike Type 1 diabetes, wherein the body fails to produce adequate insulin, with Type 2 diabetes the body does produce insulin but the cells in the body do not use insulin properly.
This condition of the cells not responding to insulin is referred to as insulin resistance. Over time, the demand for insulin in the body overtakes the amount of insulin that the body can produce leading to the build-up of glucose in the bloodstream.
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A hematoma usually forms at a fracture site.
a. True
b. False
A hematoma, which is a collection of blood outside of blood vessels, commonly forms at a fracture site. The statement is true.
What is a hematoma?
A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside of blood vessels, usually within tissues or an organ.
When a bone is fractured, blood vessels in the surrounding area are often damaged, leading to bleeding and the accumulation of blood in the tissues.
This collection of blood forms a hematoma, which can cause swelling, pain, and discoloration around the fracture site.
The hematoma serves as a natural response to the injury and plays a role in the healing process by providing a scaffold for the influx of cells involved in bone repair.
Treatment options can include rest, application of ice or heat, compression, the elevation of the affected area, and, in some cases, medical drainage or surgical intervention.
Thus, the statement is true.
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Why do you have to test reflexes on both sides?
Intrapulmonary pressure in the ________.
a. pressure within the pleural cavity.
b. pressure within the alveoli
c. negative pressure in the intrapleural space
d. difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure
Answer:
The correct answer is option B- pressure within the alveoli.
Explanation:
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the lungs especially in the alveoli of the lungs so is also known as "intra-alveolar pressure".
This pressure helps in the breathing process as :
1. During inspiration - The thoracic cavity volume increases due to which the intra-pulmonary pressure becomes less than the atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to inhale about 500 ml of air.
2. During expiration- the thoracic volume decreases which cause the intra-pulmonary pressure larger than atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to exhale the air.
Thus, option B- pressure within the alveoli is the correct answer.
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli and fluctuates with breathing cycles, balancing against atmospheric pressure to enable gas exchange. It is subject to Boyle's law and influenced by transpulmonary pressure.
Explanation:The intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. It fluctuates during the phases of the breathing process, increasing as the alveoli fill with air during inspiration and decreasing during expiration. Intrapulmonary pressure is essential for gas exchange and is precisely regulated to ensure efficient ventilation in response to the body's oxygen demands. It is influenced by the volume of the gas in the lungs, as per Boyle's law, and the transpulmonary pressure, which is the pressure difference between the intrapulmonary pressure and the pressure within the pleural cavity, known as intrapleural pressure.
Atmospheric pressure is another crucial factor in breathing, as the intrapulmonary pressure tends to equalize with atmospheric pressure. Negative pressure, as described in pulmonary physiology, is pressure lower than atmospheric pressure, and it occurs within the pleural cavity, contributing to the lungs remaining inflated under normal conditions.
During pulmonary ventilation, air moves from areas of higher to lower pressure, moving through the airways until intrapulmonary pressure equilibrates with atmospheric pressure. This dynamic process is vital for the inhalation and exhalation of air, which allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide necessary for the function of the body's cells.
The fluid portion of the blood is the:
a. plasma.
b. lymphocyte.
c. thymus.
d. erythroblast.
Answer:
plasma
Explanation:
it is the liquid part of the blood, that contains 70%of water
Sometimes the spinal cord can be damaged in an accident. Depending on the location and severity of the injury paralysis may occur. Define the following:
a. Monoplegia:
b. Paraplegia:
c. Hemiplegia:
d. Quadriplegia
Answer:
see below
Explanation:
Monoplegia
Monoplegia is the paralysis of one part of the body, generally one limb. People suffering monoplegia generally preserve control of the rest of the body, but are unable to move or feel sensations in the damaged limb.
The main cause for this is a cerebral palsy, and other common causes are: nerve damages either from injurie or diseases,
Hemiplegia
Hemiplegia affecting an arm and a leg on the same side of the body, and similarly with monoplegia, a common cause is cerebral palsy. With hemiplegia, the degree of paralysis varies from person to person, and may change over time. Hemiplegia often begins with a sensation of pins and needles, progresses to muscle weakness, and escalates to complete paralysis. However, many people with hemiplegia find that their degree of functioning varies from day to day, and depending on their overall health, activity level, and other factors.
Paraplegia
Paraplegia refers to paralysis below the waist, and usually affects both legs, the hips, and other functions, such as sexuality and elimination. Though stereotypes of paraplegia hold that people with this condition cannot walk, move their legs, or feel anything below the waist, the reality of paraplegia varies from person to person—and sometimes, from day to day.
Thus paraplegia refers to substantial impairment in functioning and movement, not necessarily a permanent and total paralysis. Rarely, people with paraplegia spontaneously recover. This may be due to brain or spinal cord functions that are not yet understood, such as regeneration of neurons. More typically, paraplegics are able to regain some functioning with physical therapy, which works to retrain the brain and spinal cord to work around limitations while strengthening muscles and nerve connections.
Quadriplegia
Quadriplegia, which is often referred to as tetraplegia, is paralysis below the neck. All four limbs, as well as the torso, are typically affected. As with paraplegia, though, the degree of disability and loss of function may vary from person to person, and even from moment to moment. Likewise, some quadriplegics spontaneously regain some or all functioning, while others slowly retrain their brains and bodies through dedicated physical therapy and exercise.
A muscle that reduces the angle of a joint is called a:
a. pronator.
b. tensor.
c. flexor.
d. depressor
e. levator
Answer:
The Muscle that reduces the angle of the joint is called Flexor.
Explanation:
Flexion is the joint movement which reduces the angle between the bones that converges at the joint. Flexion is determined by muscle contractions.
A muscle that flexes the joint is known as a flexor.
Several muscles of the hands and feet are named for this function as it reduces the angle of the joint .
The electrical charge needed for nerve cell firing" is the result of ion exchange in and around the cell.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Action potential occurs when the membrane potential of a cell changes. The electrical charge is needed for the transmission of action potential.
Sodium ions are present more outside the cell than inside whereas the concentration of potassium ions is higher inside the cell. The nerve cell firing occurs due to the unequal distribution and movement of ions inside and outside the cell. Three sodium ions are move into the cell whereas two potassium ions are move outside the cell. Hence, the electrical charge is required fro the neuron cell firing that results due to the ions exchange inside and outside of the cell.
Thus, the answer is true.
Final answer:
The statement is true; the electrical charge for nerve cell firing results from the exchange of ions, such as Na+, K+, and Ca++, across the neuron's membrane, which changes the cell's electrical potential and triggers nerve impulses.
Explanation:
The statement that the electrical charge needed for nerve cell firing is the result of ion exchange in and around the cell is true. Nerve impulses, which are electrical in nature, result from a difference in electrical charge across the membrane of a neuron. This difference is created by the movement of ions, specifically the exchange of ions such as sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and calcium (Ca++), across the cell's membrane.
When a neuron is at rest, there is a voltage across its membrane created by different concentrations of ions inside and outside the cell, leading to a net negative charge inside. During the firing of a nerve cell, or action potential, specific ion channels open, allowing Na+ to rush in, followed by the exit of K+, which changes the electrical potential and triggers the nerve impulse. This rapid change in membrane potential allows signals to be transmitted along the neuron, enabling communication within the nervous system.