Answer:
Radiculopathy which was a nonspecific code of 724.4 now is covered with the following ICD-10-CM codes: M54.15 Radiculopathy, thoracolumbar region. M54.16 Radiculopathy, lumbar region.
Explanation:
Which glands are associated with a hair follicle? Are these glands classified as exocrine or endocrine?
Answer:
The glands that are associated with the hair follicle are the glandulas cebaseas, which secrete a waxy liquid that keeps the hair lubricated.
They do not enter the classification of endocrines or exocrines since these are other types of glands that have functions of a purely hormonal type in the body.
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it __________.
a. produces vitamin D
b. is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys
c. stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
d. ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The renal capsule is the tough and fibrous layer which surrounds the kidney. It is covered by a layer of peri-renal fat which is known as adipose capsule of the kidney.
This structure helps to hold the kidney in their respective position inside the human body. Fatty layer also helps in the protection of kidney from the external injury, trauma and any other damage.
Hence, the correct answer is option C
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it stabilizes the kidneys' position by keeping them in their normal place in the body.
Explanation:The fatty tissue that surrounds the kidneys, also known as perirenal fat, plays a significant role in maintaining the anatomical position of the kidneys. This is critical because the kidneys must adhere to their correct location most effectively to carry out their vital functions, which include filtration of blood and removal of toxins from the body.
So, the correct answer to your question is option (c): 'The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position'.
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What is Peripheral Artery Disease?
Answer:
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD), also known as Peripheral Arterial Disease is defined as a dicrease in blood flow towards the limbs, especially lower limbs, due to an atherosclerotical event that hinders the normal passage of blood through the arteries to these regions.
There is one particular cause for this disease, and the most common of them, and it is the formation of fat plaques, known as atheromas, which adhere to the walls of the arteries, preventing correct blood flow. Although many times asymptomatic in its initial stages, it can develop into a very serious condition in patients.
Symptoms usually come in the form of pain in the affected region, especially during exercise, known as claudication, and which is releaved once the person lays down to rest. There are other symptoms like leg weakness, numbness in the region affected, tingling in the hip where the atheroma has settled, among others.
Usually this condition is treated with diet, exercise and some medication, but it can lead up to surgery, when the affection is too great.
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) is a slow-progressing circulatory condition, categorized as a form of arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. It's characterized by a buildup of plaque in the vessels, making it hard for arteries to oxygenate cells. The treatment options include lifestyle changes, medication, and procedures like angioplasty, stent insertion, or coronary bypass.
Explanation:Peripheral Artery Disease, often referred to as PAD, is a circulatory condition where narrowed blood vessels reduce blood flow to the limbs. It's a form of Arteriosclerosis - a generalized loss of compliance or 'hardening of the arteries', and Atherosclerosis - a specific type of arteriosclerosis involving the build-up of plaque in the walls of the vessels.
The disease progresses slowly and could begin in children; visible as fatty 'streaks' in the vessels. Risk factors include smoking, family history, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, high alcohol consumption, lack of exercise, stress, and hyperlipidemia. The restriction of the vasa vasorum to the outer layers of arteries makes arterial diseases more common than venous diseases, as its location makes it more difficult to nourish the cells of the arteries and remove waste products.
Treatment options may include medication, changes to diet and exercise, angioplasty with a balloon catheter, insertion of a stent, and coronary bypass procedures. Untreated cases can eventually restrict the flow of blood to tissues and result in ischemia, leading to the cells receiving insufficient amounts of oxygen, resulting in hypoxia and potential tissue death.
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Describe the role of immune modulators. What is the difference between immune modulators and immune suppressants?
Answer:
Immune modulators are the chemical agent that alters the immune system by stimulation or inhibition of the white blood cell activity.
Explanation:
A chemical agent that alters the immune response known as immune modulators. Immune modulators can stimulate or inhibit white cell activity or immune response, It is generally suggested in the poor immune systems because of disease like AIDS or rheumatoid arthritis.
The immune-suppressants use in the case of organ transplant to inhibit the white cell activity because it is a chemical agent that inhibits the white cell activity or immune response.
Thus, the immune suppressants are the agent that only inhibit the immune response whereas the immune modulator can stimulate or inhibit the immune response.
Upon fertilization of the egg, a single cell is created and is called the:
A. gamete
B. gonad
C. zygote
D. ova
Answer:
The answer is C zygote
Explanation:
The zygote is the first cell that is formed after fertilization of the sperm to the ovule, which will subsequently give rise to the fetus.
In fertilization of Egg, a single cell known as Zygote is created.
Explanation:
The process called fertilization happens during the combination of Sperm and an egg which is also called as an oocyte.
This will result in the generation of a single new cell which is known as Zygote. This zygote has the generic material that is essential for the formation of Human.
The generic material are obtained half from the male and half from the female. A zygote is a diploid cell, formed as a result of fertilization of haploid gametes that are from male and female lines.
Why is calcium not required in the process of glycerinated muscle contraction?
Answer and Explanation:
calcium is not required in the process of glycerinated method because glycerination process intrrupt the troponin- tropomyosin complex due to this interruption the bindings are exposed. So the glycerin makes the membrane suitable for the small molecules including ATP. Addition of ATP is highly required by the glycerinated muscle so that the myosin head actually binds the binding site so the ATP can easily available so we do not need the calcium for glycerinated muscle contraction
Calcium is not required in glycerinated muscle contraction because the process of glycerination removes most cellular components, including ions like calcium. Glycerinated muscles enable the study of muscle contraction in a controlled environment by bypassing the natural ionic regulation mechanisms, relying instead on the addition of ATP and other necessary ions.
The question "Why is calcium not required in the process of glycerinated muscle contraction?" touches on an important aspect of muscle physiology concerning glycerinated muscle fibers. Glycerinated muscle fibers are muscle cells that have been treated with glycerol, a process which extracts much of their cellular components, including many ions and soluble proteins, leaving behind the basic structures necessary for contraction, such as actin, myosin, and the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin. In a normal living muscle, the contraction process is heavily dependent on calcium ions (Ca2+), which bind to troponin, leading to a series of events that result in muscle contraction.
However, in glycerinated muscles, the standard internal regulation and signaling mechanisms are disrupted due to the extraction process. This means that while the basic contractile machinery remains, the role of calcium in initiating contraction is bypassed. Instead of relying on internal calcium ions to trigger contraction, the process is directly initiated by the addition of ATP and other necessary ions in an experimental setup. This allows researchers to study muscle contraction in a simplified and controlled environment, where the complexity of ionic regulation can be minimized or specifically controlled.
Primary sensory afferents never cross the midline:
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option A- true.
Explanation:
Primary sensory afferentS are a part of the somatosensory neuron pathway which transmits the neurons from the stimulus to the CNS. These neurons are divided into three types: primary, secondary and tertiary afferent neurons.
The primary neurons are the neurons which transmit the stimulus generated impulse form the organ to dorsal root ganglion where they transmit the signals to the secondary neurons. These secondary neurons decussate at the midline medulla through medial lemniscus.
Since it is the secondary neurons which decussate at midline, therefore, the option A- true is the correct answer.
Depolatization will make the cell more _________ on the inside.
a. neutral
b. negative
c. positive
Answer:
C. Positive
Explanation:
Depolarization occurs when Na channels open, and the inward flow of Na ions increases the concentration of positive cations in the cells. At this moment the potential of the cell is higher than the cell's resting potential.
Why is the pineal gland sometimes called the timekeeper of the body?
a. It uses information regarding changing light levels to adjust its output of the hormone, melatonin.
b. Melatonin levels increase during the night and decrease during the day, regulating the body's sleep cycle.
c. Melatonin levels increase during the night and decrease during the day, regulating the body's internal clock.
d. All of the above contribute to the pinal gland being called the body's timekeeper.
Answer:
The correct option is d. All of the above contribute to the pinal gland being called the body's timekeeper.
Explanation:
The pineal gland is a reddish-grey pine-cone shape gland present in the brain. It is responsible for the production of melatonin. The melatonin is a hormone which controls the body's sleep cycle and the circadian rhythm.
The melatonin production is stimulated by darkness. Therefore, the melatonin levels are low during the days and increases at night. This helps in regulating the body's sleep cycle and the circadian rhythm.
Thus, the pineal gland is referred to as the body's timekeeper.
The pineal gland is called the body's 'timekeeper' due to its role in regulating melatonin levels based on light levels, thereby controlling the body's internal clock and sleep cycle.
Explanation:The pineal gland is often referred to as the body's 'timekeeper' due to its role in regulating various biological processes related to time. This small, pinecone-shaped gland is primarily responsible for the production of the hormone melatonin. Melatonin levels typically increase during the night and decrease during the day, which in turn regulates our internal clock and sleep cycle.
The pineal gland adjusts its output of melatonin using information about the changing light levels in the environment. Therefore, all the options given - (a), (b), and (c) - contribute to why the pineal gland is called the body's 'timekeeper'.
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The motor cortex is the ___________ gyrus of the cerebral cortex; the sensory cortex is the _________ gyrus.
Answer:
The motor cortex is the pre central gyrus of the cerebral cortex and the sensory cortex is the post central gyrus.
As, the pre motor cortex appears in the selection of motor plans for the voluntary movements, on the other hand the primary motor cortex is in the execution of these voluntary movements. Pre motor cortex neurons signal are used for the preparation for the movement.
The motor cortex, situated in the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for movement control. The sensory cortex, located in the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, is responsible for processing and perceiving various sensory information.
Explanation:The motor cortex is the precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex. It is responsible for planning and executing movements. Walter Penfield, a neurosurgeon mapped the motor cortex's functional regions by electrically stimulating the cerebral cortex. He verified that different areas of the precentral gyrus were associated with various muscle movements.
The sensory cortex, on the other hand, is the postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex, playing a crucial role in processing sensory information. It includes areas that process somatosensory, visual, auditory, and gustatory senses. The sensory cortex allows us to consciously perceive these different sensory modalities.
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What is the antibody involved in allergic responses?
Answer:
The correct answer is immunoglobulin E (IgE).
Explanation:
Immunoglobulin E are the antibodies that produced by the immune system in response of allergens. These antibodies travels to cells that cause allergic reaction by releasing chemicals. Allergic response generally takes place in nose, chest ear and skin and other.
IgE can be specific for one type of allergen or more than one type of allergens based on the individual immune response and different type of antibodies they produce.
Thus, the correct answer is immunoglobulin E.
Aldosterone will _____.
a. promote an increase in blood pressure
b. promote a decrease in blood volume
c. result in a larger output of urine
d. decrease sodium reabsorption
Answer:
The answer is A promote an increase in blood pressure
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced in the renal cortex and acts by retaining sodium and eliminating potassium which leads to an increase in blood pressure.
You3 hospitalized patient is exhibiting the symptoms that he is experiencing a fat embolism. Your priority nursing actions is to?
a. administer oxygen.
b. Assessing his vital signs.
c. Notify the health care provider (HCP).
d. Administer IV fluids.
Answer:
The answer is C: Notify the health care provides (HCP).
Explanation:
Fat embolism originates when fat thrombi travels through the bloodstream, causing obstruction in different vital organs of the body, such as heart, lung, brain; Depending on the symptoms presented by the patient, and the severity of their condition, this will be the immediate management of this. You may need intravenous fluids and oxygen. Being therefore a priority, inform the treating physician of the patient's condition, so that he can take the appropriate medical behavior since depending on the place where the obstruction produced by the thrombus is located, this is going to be the medical management.
Which of the following positions is used during the immediate postoperative recovery of pediatric tonsillectomy patients?
A. supine, with head extended up
B. lateral, with a slight head-down tilt
C. supine, with head turned to the side
D. Trendelenburg, with head turned to the side
Answer:
The best answer for the question: Which of the following positions is used during the immediate post-operative recovery of pediatric tonsillectomy, would be, B: lateral, with a slight head-down tilt.
Explanation:
Tonsillectomy, is the surgical procedure through which the tonsils, a lymphatic tissue, very important and central in responses of the immune system to invading infections through the nose and mouth, are removed from a child´s throat, given very specific indications. Because research has shown that there are more possible complications, than benefits to this procedure, it is now done only under very strict conditions and the post-operative nursing care is very strict. One thing the nurse must always be aware of, is the position in which the child is placed; it should be lateral, and with a slight head tilt, so that, if there is bleeding, or release of fluids, they may come out of the throat. Since bleeding is one of the most recurrent complications in post-operative time, this position is very important until the child regains full conciousness.
Name a sensory modality that adapts quickly: _________: name on that adapts slowly, if at all: ___________.
Answer:
A sensory modality that adapts quickly is touch and smell, whereas pain adapts slowly or not at all.
Sensory modality is the specific type of sensation like touch and smell, it used in detection of a change in the environment. As, sensory modality is the property where one sensation is distinguished from another and individual sensory modality represented the sensation of specific type of stimulus.
Pain adapts slowly or not at all because of the lack of adaptation which is important to survival.
Pacinian corpuscles are rapidly adapting receptors that respond to changes in pressure and vibration, while Merkel cells are slowly adapting receptors that continue to respond to constant light touch stimuli.
A sensory modality that adapts quickly is the Pacinian corpuscle, which is specialized for detecting transient pressure and high-frequency vibration. On the other hand, a sensory modality that adapts slowly, if at all, is the Merkel cell, which is involved in sensing light touch and is found in the fingertips and lips.
The adaptation rate of sensory receptors is crucial for determining their response to stimuli. Rapidly adapting receptors like Pacinian corpuscles quickly respond to changes in stimulus, such as the start or stop of pressure, making them adept at detecting movement and vibration. Conversely, slowly adapting receptors like Merkel cells continue to respond to a constant stimulus, providing detailed information about the shape and pressure applied to the skin.
After assessing a patient with a cerebrovascular disorder, a nurse anticipates that he had a stroke in the right cerebral hemisphere. Which finding supports the nurse's anticipation?Slurring of speech Right-sided weakness Left-sided facial droop Loss of sensation of right hand Difficulty breathing
Answer:
The finding that suggests to the nurse that the lesion is in the right cerebral hemisphere is the Left-sided facial droop
Explanation:
At the level of the spinal bulb there is a point that is known as the decussation of the pyramid, where 80% of the axons that come from the right side of the brain intersect to the left side, and those that come from the left side, intersect to the right side, so the movements of one side of the body are controlled by the opposite side of the brain.
There are neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Explain how this is possible.
Answer:
The answer to the question: There are neurotransmitters that can be both excitatory and inhibitory. Explain how this is possible, would be, Yes, there are some neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and dopamine, who have both an excitatory and inhibitory effect in other neurons and in cells, and this happens because of the type of receptors they bind to, and the type of cell where they bind.
Explanation:
Neurotransmitters are the messengers, or communication system that the nervous system in general has with itself and with other systems. There are several types of these, and some work both as neurotransmitters and as hormones as well. How they act, where they act, and what kind of response they elicit, depends entirely on the receptors to which they bind, when they are released by a pre-synaptic neuron. Most neurotransmitters are either excitatory, or inhibitory, and some are known as neuromodulators. However, there are two types known today that work as both excitatory and inhibitory: dopamine and acetylcholine. How can either of these act as each of these? Depends on the receptors present on the post-synaptic neuron, or cell, and depends on the type of cell as well. As soon as these two bind to their appropriate receptors, in a specific kind of cell, they will produce the specific response from the cell, either starting an action potential, ir inhibiting it from happening.
What are the 7 bones that make up the orbit?
Answer:
The orbit is the socket or cavity of the skull in which the eye and its appendages are located. This bony socket is made up of 7 different bones. The seven bones are as follows-
Frontal bone : the bone located in front of the skull in that forms eye socket.
Zygomatic bone : it is cheekbone which articulates with the maxilla, sphenoid bone, and frontal bone.
Maxillary bone : The 2 maxillary bones are joined together at the intermaxillary suture, creating the anterior nasal spine.
Sphenoid bone : is an unpaired bone of the neurocranium.
Ethmoid bone : is a bone in the skull that distinguishes the nasal cavity and the brain. It is situated at the roof of the nasal cavity.
Palatine bone : These are 2 irregular bones of the nasal cavity.
Lacrimal bone: a small bone forming part of the eye socket.
Microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, or yeast that invade the body are known as
a. tumors.
b. pathogens.
c. interferon.
d. immunoglobins.
Answer: B. Pathogens.
Explanation: The word pathogens refers to external agents that are hosted in live organisms (humans, animals or vegetals), and has the property of affecting the host causing diseases or damages visible or not. Saying this, the microorganisms described in the question are pathogens.
Option A. Incorrect. Tumors are described as an abnormal growth of any group of cells of an organism.
Option C. Incorrect. Interferon is a protein released by cells of the immune system when it is time to defend the body against microorganisms.
Option D. Incorrect. Immunoglobulins are proteins created specifically for attacking an antigen (something harmful for the body). They are also part of the immune system.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Two kinds of neuroglia that insulate axons and dendrites are:
a. Schwann cells and satellite cells
b. microglia and oligodendrites
c. microglia and Schwann cells
d. oligodendrites and Schwann cells
Answer:
The correct answer is option D- oligodendrites and Schwann cells.
Explanation:
Neuroglia or glial cells are the cells in the nervous system which support, protect and maintain the neurons. These neuroglia cells protect the neurons as they insulate the axons and dendrite by forming a sheath around the neurons called the 'myelin sheath".
Two different types of glial cells form this myelin sheath in CNS and PNS: Schwann cells in PNS while oligodendrocytes in CNS. These myelin sheaths provide insulation as they are formed by the spiral wrapping of the plasma membrane which is made up of hydrophobic molecule.
Thus, option D- oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are the correct answer.
d. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
Further explanation
Oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells that can be found in the peripheral nervous system.
Neuroglia are the cells most commonly found in the nervous system. These cells do not play a direct role in information processing and transmission and function to support the needs of neuron cells.
Microglia are a type of glial cell that is part of the immune system for the central nervous system. Microglia are small cells that act as phagocytes, cleaning components that can threaten the nervous system.
Oligodendrocytes are cells that play a role in forming the myelin sheath for the central nervous system. These oligodendrocytes can be said to have a function similar to Schwann cells found in the peripheral nervous system.
Astrocytes
"Astrocytes" comes from two words "Astro" which means stars and "sit" which means cell. As the name implies, erythrocytes are glia cells that have a star-like shape. Astrocytes are the most numerous cells in the central nervous system. This cell has several important functions, namely:
Bringing together neurons Repair of brain injury Play a role in neurotransmitter activityThere are two types of astrocytes
Protoplasmic astrocytes, more commonly found in the substance grise. These cells have bulges from the cytoplasm that spread from the entire cell surface. Sometimes this cytoplasmic expansion ends in small blood vessels to form "perivascular feet". Astrocyte Fibrosa, commonly found in the substance of alba. The difference with protoplasmic astrocytes can be seen from the cytoplasmic protrusion that is longer and straighter. Inside the bulge can also be found a picture of the filament.
Ependymal Cell
Ependymal cells line the interior of the fluid-filled cavity in the CNS. Ependymal cells are cells that have cilia, the movement of these cilia play a role in flowing cerebrospinal fluid throughout the ventricles of the brain.
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Details
Class: College
Subject: Medicine
Keywords: neuron, neuroglia, cell
A nurse is assessing a client who receives monthly injections of cyanocobalamin. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
a. Absence of hand tremors
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
d. Improved appetite
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication? would be: A: Absence of hand tremors.
Explanation:
Cyanocobalamin, also known as vitamin B-12, is vital for the correct functioning and formation of the central nervous system, and the correct functioning of all the nerves in the human body. Absence of it due to a disease like pernicious anemia, or infection by bacteria, or other parasites, as well as lack of intake from dietary customs, will lead to malformation, malfunctioning, and damage of the nervous system since this vitaming is central to formation of myelin, and other substances. In order to correct the lack of normal levels of B-12, people receive this medication, which is most commonly used as subcutaneous, or intramuscular injections, and one of the therapeutic effects it will have, and which will be visible, will be the absence, or diminishing of hand, and other body part tremors, as well as the feeling of numbness, or tickling, in body extremeties. So A, would be the best choice.
Final answer:
A hematocrit of 45% indicates that cyanocobalamin injections are effectively treating vitamin B12 deficiency by restoring normal red blood cell levels, which is a therapeutic effect of the medication.
Explanation:
Cyanocobalamin is a synthetic form of vitamin B12 used to treat or prevent deficiencies and related medical conditions, such as pernicious anemia. When assessing a client who receives monthly injections of cyanocobalamin, the nurse should look for signs that indicate effective treatment of B12 deficiency. Among the answer choices provided, hematocrit 45% reflects a normal range and indicates that the medication is having a therapeutic effect by restoring normal red blood cell volume and thus treating the anemia commonly associated with vitamin B12 deficiency.
What are the layers of the epidermis?
Answer:
The layers of the epidermis depending on the region of the skin will be composed of the following layers from the outermost to the innermost:
- cornea layer (outermost layer)
- translucent layer
- granular layer
- spiny layer
- basal layer (innermost layer, contains melanocytes)
Answer:
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum (only found in palms and soles)
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum Basale
Explanation:
i like to remember it "Cornell graduates spin basil" because the first part of the word sounds like the fist part of the epidermal layer.
Testicular Sertoli cells function in all of the following ways EXCEPT that they do not:
a. secrete Mullerian inhibiting factor
b. secrete progesterone binding protein
c. coordinate spermiogenesis
d. support meiosis
e. serve as the blood-testes barrier
Answer: b. secrete progesterone binding protein
Explanation:
Sertoli cells regulate spermatogenesis and perform various functions in sperm production. Sertoli cells have the function of controlling the maturation and migration of germ cells; are involved in protein and steroid synthesis; phagocyte degenerating germ cells as well as residual cytoplasmic bodies left by adult spermatids in spermatogenesis; form the blood-testicular barrier. Sertoli cells secrete the antimüllerian hormone (antimüllerian hormone - AMH), a glycoprotein from the growth factor family, which suppresses the development of the Müller ducts, precursors of the female reproductive tract. Among the various substances produced by Sertoli cells, the protein binding to androgen-binding protein (ABP), the activin and inhibin.
Sertoli cells in the testes perform multiple functions related to sperm development and maturation, but they do not secrete progesterone binding protein.
Explanation:Testicular Sertoli cells play a fundamental role in the development and maturation of sperm, a process known as spermatogenesis. They exhibit numerous functions, including the secretion of the Mullerian inhibiting factor which suppresses the development of female reproductive structures, the coordination of spermiogenesis (the final stage of spermatogenesis), supporting meiosis (the process that leads to the formation of sperm), and serving as the blood-testes barrier which prevents passage of certain substances between the bloodstream and testicular tissue.
However, the function that Sertoli cells do not undertake according to the options provided is b. secrete progesterone binding protein. Progesterone binding protein is involved in female reproductive physiology, but it is not a role carried out by the testicular Sertoli cells.
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In gout, accumulation of urate crystals in subcutaneous tissues causes formation of white nodules known as _____________; precipitation of urate in the kidneys causes renal _________.
Answer:
The urate crystal has white nodules known as tophi. The precipitation of urate causes renal failure.
Explanation:
Gout may be defined as a condition of inflammatory arthritis due to the deposition of excess uric acid in the blood. Pain, swelling and tenderness are the common symptoms of gout.
Tophi are the white nodules of urate crystal that may get deposit under subcutaneous tissue due to the excess formation of uric acid in gout disease. Severe gout condition may also causes renal failure due to the precipitation of urate in the kidney in an individual.
Thus, the white nodules is tophi. Urate precipitation in kidney causes renal failure.
Which of the following is an important exception to the usual function of arteries and veins?
A. The inferior vena cava carries oxygenated blood to the heart
B. The superior vena cava carries oxygenated blood to the heart
C. The pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood to the heart
D. The pulmonary artery carries oxygenated blood to the heart
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Heart is an organ that is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood from heart to various parts of the body.
The deoxygenated blood from various parts of the body comes into heart by veins and then oxygenated blood is transported from the heart to various parts of the body by artery.
The exception is that Pulmonary veins of heart are responsible for the carrying oxygenated blood from lungs back to the left atrium of the heart.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Nitric oxide is common given as a rapid and powerful vasoconstrictor.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
Nitric oxide is not a powerful vasoconstrictor, it is a vasodilator. It acts on smooth muscle, phosphorylation of the myosin light chain is reduced , and cytolic calcium and relaxation is decreased.
Colostrum is different from true milk because it contains less lactose and virtually no:
a. protein
b. fat
c. sodium
d. iron
e. antibodies
☛ Colostrum is different from true milk because it contains less lactose and virtually no FAT, hence answer b is correct.
Clarification:✎ In a nutshell, human colostrum (in other words - first milk) is a lactiferous gland produced liquid which contains proteins, lactose, anitbodies, iron, sodium, and other components - but a little amount of fat. Colostrum is only produced for a few days after the delivery and is then replaced with true milk.
A.
So the correct answer is option b. fat.
How is first milk different from milk?The first milk is a dark lemon-colored liquid that is secreted by the breast in the first few days of life. Compared to mature milk, mature milk is richer in minerals and protein, but with less sugar and fat. Antibodies can be detected in the first milk. Immunoglobulin A can protect newborns from intestinal pathogens.
The first milk is more than the first milk a baby eats after giving birth. High levels of nutrients and antibodies to fight infections and protect your baby. It provides a powerful and unique immunity that only it can provide.
It develops during pregnancy and lasts for several days after birth. The first milk may be the yellow and viscous, or clear and runny nose. The baby needs a small amount of food, and the mother's first milk is perfect in composition and quantity.
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Which of these does NOT stimulate aldosterone production?
A. high plasma Na+
B. high plasma K+
C. Angiotensin II
D. high plasma He+
Answer:
(A). high plasma Na+.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone, synthesized by adrenal gland. It plays role in homeostatic regulation of sodium ions, potassium ions and blood pressure.
Aldosterone is responsible for increase reabsorption of sodium ions (Na⁺) and secretion of potassium ions (K⁺). Angiotensin II is a hormone that stimulates production of aldosterone
Low Na⁺ level, High plasma K⁺ level, angiotensin II, and high plasma H⁺ stimulates production of aldosterone from cortex of adrenal gland.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Pathology in which of the following lobes of the brain is MOST associated with personality changes?
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. temporal
D. parietal
Answer:
A. frontal
Explanation:
it controls personality, decision making, and reasoning.
Blood is pumped into which of these vessels during ventricular systole?
a. aorta
b. pulmonary arteries
c. pulmonary vein
d. Both a and b are correct
Answer:
d. Both a and b are correct
Explanation:
Blood is pumped into aorta and pulmonary arteries vessels during ventricular systole.
Blood is pumped into which of these vessels during ventricular systole?
a. aorta
b. pulmonary arteries
c. pulmonary vein
d. Both a and b are correct