Answer:
A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False
Explanation:
A. Plants in general are multicellular organisms, they are often referred to as eukaryotic autotrophs because they are make their own foods. They carry out photosynthesis, meaning the obtain their energy from sunlight.
B. Plants can be characterized by the presence of chloroplast, an organelle that helps in absorption of sunlight, because of the presence of green pigment called chlorophyll. There two major forms of chlorophyll in plants which are chlorophyll a and b.
C. Charophytes are a type of green algae, but several studies shows they have similar traits to land plants compared to other algae, making them have a common ancestor as plants. Some of the traits similarities to land plants compared to other algae are: they have similar enzymes, they have similar type of cell division, also their sperm is also similar to that of land plants.
D. Charophytes are not embryophytes. Embryophytes are also referred to as land plants, they are multicellular in nature, they include ferns and mosses. Charophytes are a type of green algae similar in traits embryophytes. Although embryophytes are a sister group to charophytes, they are not the same.
Final answer:
The statements identify key characteristics defining plants as multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic autotrophs with chlorophyll in chloroplasts, shared traits between charophytes and land plants, but incorrectly classify charophytes as embryophytes.
Explanation:
Identify each statement as TRUE or FALSE regarding plants:
a. Plants are defined as multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic autotrophs. TRUEb. Plants are defined by their chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll a and b. TRUEc. Charophytes and land plants share four derived traits that suggest they share a relatively recent common ancestor. TRUEd. Charophytes are embryophytes. FALSE
Plants, being multicellular eukaryotes, have distinctive features including chloroplasts containing chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Though charophytes share common traits with land plants pointing to a shared ancestry, they are not classified as embryophytes, highlighting the distinction and evolutionary pathway between aquatic and terrestrial plants.
Challenges faced by parasites in their quest to inhabit a biotic environment
Answer:
Parasitists have to the body's immune system to establish parasitism, in addition to having to deal with the damage it does to the host organism.
Explanation:
Parasites are organisms that associate with living beings in an unequal relationship, where the parasite uses the vital resources of living beings for their survival, generating problems for the host organism.
As biotic environments where parasites can grow, we can mention plants and animals. For parasitism to be established, the parasite must face the immune defense system of these organisms, in addition to having to face the evils that are caused by parasitism, since the parasite needs the host to be alive for it to survive.
Answer:
Parasites must overcome host immune system.
Temperature.
Stable transmission.
Ability to attache to a host or find a suitable host.
Explanation:
Parasites are organisms that live Andy survive in a host. They feed on the host resources and in turn causing infection, harm, destruction or death of hosts.
Parasites faced challenges in their quest to inhabit biotic environment.
One of is the host immune system. Some host have strong immune system and can resist parasites invasion.
Temperature. The body temperature of some hosts is not suitable for the living conditions of the parasites.
Some parasites have face difficult challenges in have a stable transmission of disease.
Finding suitable host to survive is another challenges faced by parasites. Some parasites find it difficult to find suitable host.
Cell mediated immunity uses what type of WBC to attack and kill the infected cell? _________________ _____________________ are released that cuase the cell to lyse or __________.
Answer:
Cell mediated immunity uses what type of WBC to attack and kill the infected cell? T-cells Helper T or Killer T cells are released that cause the cell to lyse or undergo apoptosis.Explanation:
White blood cells or leukocytes are integral to cell-mediated immune function in the human body. T cells are produced in bone marrow, and mature in the thymus. They recognize antigens on virus-infected cells and target them for attack; antigens and receptors fit together to allow for identification.
Helper T cells aid in activating other immune cells, along with eliminating cells infected by pathogens; they release cytokinesKiller T cells produce special toxins (perforins and then cytotoxins) that lead to cell lysis and programmed cell death or apoptosis.Cell-mediated immunity primarily uses Cytotoxic T cells to attack and destroy infected cells. They do this by releasing substances like Perforin and Granzymes which cause the infected cell to lyse or burst open.
Explanation:In cell-mediated immunity, the type of white blood cells (WBCs) that attack and destroy infected cells are primarily the Cytotoxic T cells. When an infection or disease is recognized, Cytotoxic T cells release specific substances like Perforin and Granzymes. These substances cause the infected cell to undergo a process called lysis - essentially bursting open and killing the cell to prevent the spread of the infection.
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Which property of argon makes it useful for potassium-argon dating?
Answer:
C. It remains trapped in rock.
Explanation:
It is an unstable element. It remains trapped in rock.
What is the first stage of protein synthesis?
a. the assembly of transcription factors at the promoter elongation, in which amino acids are joined to the polypeptide chain
b. setting the reading frame, where the initiation codon is recognized by RNA polymerase
c. tRNA charging, in which the tRNAs bind to amino acids initiation, in which the components necessary for translation are assembled at the ribosome
Answer:
Option C.
tRNA charging, in which the tRNAs bind to amino acids initiation, in which the components necessary for translation are assembled at the ribosome.
Explanation:
During the transcription phase of protein synthesis, before an amino acid can even be incorporated into a growing polypeptide, it must first be attached to a molecule called the transfer RNA (tRNA). This process is known as tRNA charging.
After this, the charged RNA can now carry the activated amino acid to the ribosome, where the protein synthesis can now take place.
The tRNA charging process is the first stage in protein synthesis
Answer:
b. setting the reading frame, where the initiation codon is recognized by RNA polymerase.
Explanation:
The first step in protein synthesis is called transcription. Transcription is the process wherein DNA is used to create messenger RNA, or mRNA. The mRNA is produced using DNA's code, which is contained within the cell's nucleus. The steps include:
RNA polymerase, together with one or more general transcription factors, binds to promoter DNA. RNA polymerase creates a transcription bubble, which separates the two strands of the DNA helix. This is done by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA nucleotides.
RNA polymerase adds RNA nucleotides (which are complementary to the nucleotides of one DNA strand).
RNA sugar-phosphate backbone forms with assistance from RNA polymerase to form an RNA strand.
Hydrogen bonds of the RNA–DNA helix break, freeing the newly synthesized RNA strand. The RNA may remain in the nucleus or exit to the cytoplasm through the nuclear pore complex.
Long-term data are valuable in assessing the health and stability of a community. Conservation biologists look for changes in a community over time to alert them to the fact that something is wrong with the community and that potential threats need to be assessed. Of particular importance to understanding community stability is the change in the ______.
Answer:
Number of species and their relative abundances in the community over multiple years
Explanation:
Community stability measures the rate of increase or decrease of species in an environment over a period of time.
When studies are made and the species are in a low quantity then we refer to such species as being unstable and potentially becoming extinct whereas if there is a rise or uniform amount of species then stability is attained.
What increases the rate of soil formation?
RNA polymerase from E. coli does not function at 0ºC, whereas in vitro experiments determined that RNA polymerase from Pseudomonas syringae strain Lz4W functions at about 10%–15% of its optimum, which is 37ºC. Which of the following best explains the difference?
Answer:
Since there is no distinction in the measure of the RNA polymerases yet rather their movement, the distinction lies in their structure and not their grouping. Adjustments are made to widen the states of endurance. Thus E. coli would not constrain it's endurance by restricting its development to hotter temperatures. Thus the appropriate response is "the RNA polymerase sub-units of the P. syringe strain most likely have additional adaptability with the goal that they can move all the more openly in colder temperatures".
A batch culture of E. coli was initiated with a medium containing 10 g/L of glucose, 2 g/L of ammonia, and 0.1 g/L of cells. At the end of culture, 0.1 g/L of glucose remained in the medium. A total of 5.1 g/L of E. coli were recovered. The elemental composition of the cells was determined to be (by mass) 53% C, 7.3% H, 12.0% N, and 19.0% O, with the remaining balance being ashes.
a) Calculate the yield (by mass) of biomass based on glucose and nitrogen.
b) Write down the stoichiometric equation for biomass formation from glucose and ammonia.
c) Assume all the carbon that was not incorporated into biomass was used for energy generation and was completely oxidized to carbon dioxide. Also, assume that each mole of glucose produces 38 moles of ATP when completely oxidized to carbon dioxide. Calculate the biomass yield coefficient based on ATP.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
discuss the genetic diagram to show a cross between a man heterozygous for brown eyes (Bb) and a woman with blue eyes (bb)
Which of the following statements about the anatomy of a mollusk are correct?
a. Gills are used for respiration.
b. Mollusks have a radula for grinding food.
c. The digestive system includes a gizzard, a stomach, a digestive gland, and the intestine.
d. The tissue beneath the shell is called the mantle.
The anatomy of mollusks can be stated by the presence of gills, which have gradual for grinding food and tissues beneath the shells are called a mantel.
What is a mollusk?A mollusk is an invertebrate organism and there exist about 85,000 extant species and a number of fossils range from 60,000 to 100,000. They represent the largest marine phylum and consist of 235 of the species.
The mollusks are the organism that has a soft body and the outer body has an exoskeleton that is hard.
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While most statements about the anatomy of a mollusk are correct, the assertion that all mollusks' digestive systems include a gizzard is less accurate. Mollusks typically feature gills for respiration, a radula for grinding food, and a mantle beneath the shell, but a gizzard is not universal among them. Hence, the correct options are a, b and d.
The anatomy of a mollusk is quite complex and diverse across the different species within the phylum. However, looking at the common characteristics shared among most mollusks, we can address the statements provided:
Gills are indeed used for respiration, especially in aquatic mollusks. They allow for the exchange of gases between the mollusk's blood and the surrounding water.Most mollusks have a radula for grinding or scraping food. This unique structure functions somewhat like a tongue covered in tiny teeth and is not found in any other group of animals.The mantle is the tissue beneath the shell in many mollusks, playing a crucial role in shell secretion and protection of the mollusk’s soft body.Concerning the digestive system, it is accurate that it typically includes a stomach, a digestive gland (which aids in digestion and absorption), and the intestine. However, not all mollusks have a gizzard. This part of the statement can be misleading as gizzards are more common in birds for grinding food and might be present in some mollusks for the same purpose, but it's not a universal feature of the phylum.Kyle wanted to make some extra money over the summer. He decided that, to make the most money possible, he needed to gather scientific evidence about which tasks would pay the most. To obtain the evidence he needed, Kyle polled his neighbors about how much they were willing to pay him for the different tasks. Then he made the graph shown. Which task will earn Kyle the most money per hour? A. walking dogs B. washing cars C. mowing lawns D. painting fences
Answer:
Its D
Explanation:
Answer:
Painting Fences
Explanation:
In Escherichia coli (E. coli), the tryptophan operon encodes structural genes, including trpC, trpB, and trpA, that encode the tryptophan synthetase protein complex. A repressor protein encoded by the trpR gene regulates the trp operon. In the presence of high levels of tryptophan, tryptophan molecules bind the repressor protein and allow the repressor to recognize and bind to the operator, called trpO, and repress the expression of the structural tryptophan synthetase genes. In the absence of tryptophan, the repressor is unable to bind the operator and gene expression can occur. Assume any minus symbol represents a null mutant. What is the type of expression of each functional structural gene for the three bacterial strains?
The type of expression of each functional structural gene for the three bacterial strains is as follows:
Strain trpC trpB trpA
Wild type On On On
trpR- Off On On
trpO- On On On
Wild type: The trpR gene and trpO operator are both functional, so the trp operon is regulated by the presence of tryptophan. In the presence of high levels of tryptophan, the trp repressor will bind to the trpO operator and repress the expression of the structural tryptophan synthetase genes. In the absence of tryptophan, the trp repressor will not be able to bind to the trpO operator, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will be expressed.
trpR-: The trpR gene is mutated, so the trp repressor protein is not produced. This means that the trp operon is not regulated by the presence of tryptophan, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will always be expressed.
trpO-: The trpO operator is mutated, so the trp repressor protein cannot bind to it. This means that the trp operon is not regulated by the presence of tryptophan, and the structural tryptophan synthetase genes will always be expressed.
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The trp operon in E. coli is a repressible operon. It is regulated through a negative feedback mechanism where the accumulation of tryptophan, the end product, leads to the repression of its further production.
Explanation:In Escherichia coli (E. coli), the tryptophan operon, known as the trp operon, is a fundamental mechanism of gene regulation. It encodes structural genes, including trpC, trpB, and trpA, which contribute to the tryptophan synthetase protein complex. The expression of these genes is regulated by a repressor protein encoded by the trpR gene. When levels of tryptophan are high, tryptophan molecules bind to the repressor, allowing it to recognize and attach to the operator region, called trpO, and subsequently, inhibiting the expression of the structural genes. However, in the absence of tryptophan, the repressor does not bind to the operator region, allowing for gene expression to occur.
This type of operon system is termed a repressible operon, as the regulatory gene produces a repressor that can bind to the operator and prevent transcription of the structural genes. Thus, trp operon regulation is dependent on the negative feedback mechanism, where an abundance of the end product (tryptophan) leads to the repression of further production.
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The function of the umbilical cord is to carry blood and nutrients to the fetus and wastes back to the mother's blood stream.
True
False
Answer:
The answer is trueExplanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Through the blood vessels in the umbilical cord, the fetus receives all the necessary nutrition, oxygen, and life support from the mother through the placenta. Waste products and carbon dioxide from the fetus are sent back through the umbilical cord and placenta to the mother's circulation to be eliminated.
Explain the importance of plasma membranes and name 3 functions of membrane.
Answer:
Explanation: plasma membranes are the wall that surround the cell i.e the outer covering . They act as a protective covering.
Plasma members control exchange of material between the cell and environment.
Cell are kept in shape by plasma membrane, they are sites for Chemical reaction and cellular process and activities such as conductivity.
Membrane help to remove toxins out of the cell
They contain receptors and permit the flow of Ion and other molecules between cells.
They separate metabolism activities that are not compatible in body organelles.
What is the most common way of introducing recombinant DNA into bacterial cells?
Answer:
Transformation
Explanation:
Answer:
In humans, "unattached" earlobes are dominant over "attached" earlobes. Widow's-peak hairline is dominant over non-widow's-peak hairline. Use E and e for the earlobe phenotype alleles and W and w for the hairline phenotype alleles.
Explanation:
During ____, homologous chromosomes pair up forming tetrads.
Answer: meiosis
Explanation:
Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. If 1,000 F2 offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? (Assume independent assortment.)
A) 190
B) 250
C) 65
D) 750
E) 565
Answer:
Approximately, 190.
Explanation:
cross between true breeding stock. let R represent the colour and Y represent the position of flower.
parents RRYY x rryy
F1 gen. RrYy
RrYy x RrYy
F2 gen RY Ry rY ry
RY RYRY RYRy RYrY RYry
Ry RYRy RyRy RyrY Ryry
rY RYrY RyrY rYrY rYry
ry RYry Ryry ryrY ryry
number of red and axial flowers (RY__) - 9
number of red and terminal flowers (Ry_y) - 3
number of white and axial flowers (rYr_) - 3
number of white and terminal flowers (ryry) - 1
We are expected to find the number of red and terminal flowers out of 1,000 F2 offspring. Thus, we have 3/16 x 1000 = approximately 190
When two true-breeding pea plants with different flower colors and positions are crossed, the F1 generation will have a specific combination of traits. The F2 generation will display a combination of traits due to independent assortment. Approximately 190 F2 offspring can be expected to have red, terminal flowers.
Explanation:When two true-breeding pea plants with different flower colors and positions are crossed, the resulting F1 generation will have a specific combination of traits. In this case, the F1 generation has red axial flowers. The question asks about the F2 generation, which will display a combination of traits due to independent assortment.
Independent assortment means that the alleles for flower color and position segregate randomly during gamete formation. This results in different combinations of alleles in the F2 generation. Since the traits of flower color and position are independent of each other, we can calculate the expected ratio. The F2 generation is expected to have a ratio of 9:3:3:1 for red axial, red terminal, white axial, and white terminal flowers respectively.
Given that there are 1,000 F2 offspring, we can use this ratio to calculate the approximate number of F2 offspring expected to have red terminal flowers.
Red terminal flowers are represented by the 3 in the ratio, so the expected number of F2 offspring with red terminal flowers would be approximately 3/16 of the total number of offspring. Therefore, the answer would be approximately 187.5. Since we cannot have a fraction of an individual, we can round it up to the closest whole number, which is 190.
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Which conditions must be regulated for the body to be stable and function properly? Check all that apply.
body mass
body temperature
amount of exercise
amount of water in the body
amount of sugar in the body
Answer:
Temperature
water
glucose or sugar
Explanation:
Temperature is required as without it metabolic reactions in the body would be impossible.
Water is a medium for most metabolic reactions. This is why cytoplasm is 70% water.
Glucose levels need to be maintained as the glucose present is to be used as energy by being broken down.
amount of sugar in the body, amount of water in the body, body temperature
Regulation of BodyThe ability of an organism to maintain a steady internal environment is referred to as regulation. Homeostasis is an essential feature of all living organisms. Maintaining a steady internal environment necessitates regular modifications as conditions within and outside the cell change. Homeostatic regulation refers to the process of regulating processes within a cell.The conditions which must be regulated for the body to be stable and function properly are amount of sugar in the body, amount of water in the body, body temperature.For more information:
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The most plausible evidence that the development of cancer is a multistep process can be:
A) development of a cancer as a result of activation of a single oncogene by any of a variety of mechanisms
B) usual occurrence of retinoblastoma at a young age
C) fact that proto-oncogenes are widely conserved in evolution
D) observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer
Answer:
D) observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer
Explanation:
Cancer is defined as the abnormal growth of cells of the body. These cells multiply/replicate without control thereby forming a lump or tumor.
Cancer growth has 5 stages and they go though different multi level steps.Different finding backs this up and it includes observation about certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes being involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer.
Answer:
option d: observation that certain tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are involved in a sequential manner in the development of colon cancer
Explanation:
Cancer is known to be a form of genetic disease/ailment that occurs as a result of mutation (one to many). the mutations embedded in the cell undergoes several cellular multiplication which therefor lead to the large growth of the size of tumor, malignant and disorganization.
The development of cancer undergoes a multi-step process. due to the fact that the cells of the human/ animal is abnormal in in it cancerous growth, they gain new potentials and capabilities. The cells undergoes division thereby affecting the closeby normal cells . some cancers do have similar characteristics while other cancers most times has different steps,
An ecosystem generally requires solar energy, nutrients, decomposers, consumers and ____. Select one: a. conformers b. decontaminators c. directors d. producers e. concentrators
Answer:
Producers
Explanation:
They are the food for the consumers.
Answer:
D. Producers
Explanation:
They are an important link in the ecosystem. They produce food by photosynthetic processes through the help of soil nutrients, sunlight(solar energy) and Carbon dioxide.
The food they produce are eaten by the consumers such as animals and other small organisms. The animals/ organisms also serve as food for larger animals(carnivores)e.g lion, whale, tiger and omnivores e.g. Man
what food chain and web component is a worm in
how do you classify organisms as eukaryotes?
Answer:
A eukaryote is an organism with complex cells, or a single cell with a complex structures. In these cells the genetic material is organized into chromosomes in the cell nucleus. Animals, plants, algae and fungi are all eukaryotes. There are also eukaryotes amongst single-celled protists.
Answer: Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus, while prokaryotic cells do not
Explanation: so if cells contain membrane-bound organelles in the organism then their classified as eukaryotes
The four gas giants are
(Planets should be in correct sequence)
A. Jupiter, Saturn, Mars and Neptune
B. Jupiter, Neptune, Saturn, and Uranus
C. Mercury, Jupiter, Mars and Earth
D. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune
Overlearning information hinders deep processing. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
False
Explanation:
As per the levels of processing, the deep processing of information leads to long-term memory.
In order to remember a piece of information, a person must think about it more deeply (over learning) and must link it with memories in order to make it more meaningful.
However, interference lead to forgetting in long term memory when recalling is interfered.
Hence, the given statement is false
The gene for petal color in a flower has incomplete dominance, so that individuals with two A1 alleles (A1A1) are black, individuals with two A2 alleles (A2A2) are white, and individuals with one of each allele (A1A2) are mottled. In a cross between two black flowers, what is the probability of getting a mottled offspring? (2
Answer:
The probability of getting a mottled offspring is 0%. There is no A2 allele involved in the cross.
Explanation:
Available data:
The gene for petal color in a flower has incomplete dominance Two A1 alleles (A1A1) express black colorTwo A2 alleles (A2A2) express white color One of each allele (A1A2) express mottled colorIn a cross between two black flowers, there is no allele A2, there are just two alleles A1. So, the cross is:
Parental) A1A1 x A1A1
Gametes) A1 A1 A1 A1
Punnet Square) A1 A1
A1 A1A1 A1A1
A1 A1A1 A1A1
F1 Phenotypes: 100% black flowers
F1 Genotype: 100% A1A1
There are 0% of probabilities of getting a mottled offspring.
Answer:
The probability is 0%.
Explanation:
We know that an individual with two A1 alleles (A1A1) are black, so if two black flowers are crossed that means two flowers with A1 (black)alleles, as these flowers do not have any A2 allele to give a mottled flower, the only type of flower that will come out from this cross is a black one.
We can see this with a Punnett square.
║A1 ║ A1
A1║ A1A1 ║ A1A1
A1║ A1A1 ║ A1A1
Largest planet in our Solar system with faint rings.
A.Saturn
B.Jupiter
C.Venus
D.Neptune
Answer: Jupiter
Explanation: No explanation.
Answer:
Jupiter
explanation:
Jupiter is the 5th planet in our Solar system and is the largest planet in the Solar System. Jupiter has a narrow and faint ring. Jupiter's rings are dark and are made up of dust and tiny pieces of rock. So The largest planet with faint rings in our Solar System is the planet Jupiter.
Trekian Fur is a dominant trait. Trekkies (on the planet Gomaz) from a pure-breeding population with the Trekian Fur gene are scored for their phenotypes. The two alleles at the Trekian Fur gene are T (dominant) and t (recessive).
80% of the Trekkies from this colony (genotype TT) have Trekian Fur; 20% of the Trekkies look wild-type.
Also, the penetrance of the Trekian Fur phenotype is 65% in the heterozygous Trekkies.
Pure breeding wild-type Trekkies (tt) show the Trekian Fur phenotype 10% of the time. Thus, the penetrance of Trekian Fur is 10% in homozygous wild-type Trekkies.
Problem: If two heterozygotes for the Trekian Fur gene (Tt x Tt) are crossed, what proportion of the offspring are expected to show the Trekian Fur phenotype?
A. 80%.
B. 55%.
C. 45%.
D. 50%.
E. 20%.
Answer:
B. 55%.
Explanation:
TT = 80percent progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype
Tt = 65% progeny exhibit Trekian fur phenotype
tt = 10% progrny exhibit Trekian fur phenotye
parent cross ; TT x Tt
progeny ; TT Tt tt
TT = 25% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 25 x 0.8 = 20%
Tt = 50% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 50 x 0.65 = 32.5%
tt = 25% ; percentage of progeny that exhibit Trekian fur phenotype = 25 x 0.1 = 2.5%
Total = 20 + 32.5+ 2.5 = 55%
7. The increased levels of telomerase associated with many tumor cells likely promote cancer by: A) enhancing levels of DNA repair so that cells remain normal and have stable genomes and thus would be able to replicate their DNA and divide more often. B) promoting the efficiency of the spindle-assembly checkpoint. C) reducing the expression of several oncogenes. D) decreasing the number of epigenetic changes that would promote cancer. E) allowing cells to continue to divide when nor
Answer:
The increased levels of telomerase associated with many tumor cells likely promote cancer by E) allowing cells to continue to divide when normally chromosomes should shorten beyond a point where division would be no longer possible
Explanation:
Telomerase is an enzyme that enables cells to stay its genome and be healthy. Increased levels of telomerase allow cells to have more divisions and more mutations, having as a result incomplete information for cells, becoming them cancer cells. When it is possible to inhibit this enzyme, telomers get shorter and cancer cells might die.
Completed option E
allowing cells to continue to divide when normally chromosomes should shorten beyond a point where division would be no longer possible
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Telemerase is a reverse transcriptase enzymes that maintains the length of telemoeres. The later is a repetitive nucleotide sequence of a chromosomes that stabilizes the end of the chromosomes from deteriorating and possible fusion with adjacent chromosomes. its length decreases with each cell division, but replenished by enzymes telemerase.
Telomeres undergo division to protect the removal of the gene portion located ahead of them on the chromosomes.They are protected by protein Shelterin,
In Cancer cells, telemere length is increased thus cells undergo prolong cell division which leads to multiple cells production. Therefore if telomerase concentration is increased, the telomeres will be replenished after each cell division, by this enzyme. its length will increase, and consequently more tumor cells will be produced.
5. Which is the first step of the scientific method?
Answer:
The first step in the Scientific Method is to make objective observations. These observations are based on specific events that have already happened and can be verified by others as true or false. Step 2. Form a hypothesis.
Explanation:
Answer: the first step is to make observations
Fermentation has a relatively low ATP yield compared to aerobic respiration because a. more reducing equivalents are used for anaerobic catabolism. b. less ATP is consumed during the first stage of aerobic catabolism. c. oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP. d. substrate-level phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP.
Answer:
c. Oxidative phosphorylation yields a lot of ATP
Explanation:
Fermentation is an anaerobic process that takes place in the anaerobic bacteria to produce an energy molecule called ATP. The process of fermentation involves the breakdown of the glucose through glycolysis which produces 2 ATP molecules, NADH and Pyruvate molecules.
The process does not undergo further steps like the Citric acid cycle and the oxidative phosphorylation which forms the high number of ATP molecules. Since the organism which performs the fermentation does not undergo oxidative phosphorylation therefore the yield of ATP in the cell is very less.
Thus, Option-C is correct.