Answer:
Oceans, lakes, any large bodies of water.
Explanation:
In terms of country populations, oceans separate the different populations from each other.
Diane wanted to demonstrate which pruning technique was best for controlling the growth of certain types of shrubs. She selected ten shrubs of the same type and randomly assigned each one to receive one of ten different pruning methods. Two weeks after pruning, she measured the regrowth, in inches, of the shrubs; the pruning method that minimized regrowth was recommended as the best method. Which of the following best describes why this is not a well-designed experiment?
A. The shrubs were not randomly selected.
B. Pruning methods were not randomly assigned to shrubs.
C. Each pruning method was used on only one shrub.
D. Each shrub did not receive all ten pruning methods.
E. Only two treatments should be used in an experiment.
Answer:
C. Each pruning method was used on only one shrub.
Explanation:
Reproducibility is one of the most important factors contributing to the reliability of scientific research. The researcher must be able to achieve the same results two to three times. In biological research, this is usually done in the from of triplicates i.e. one experiment is repeated three times. This is done for two reasons:
Producing reproducible resultsRuling out false positives (a negative result that presents as positive due to error) and negatives (a positive result that presents as negative due to error)Triplicates rule out the possibility that the observed change was caused by another factor or through mere chance. Therefore, in the current scenario, each pruning method should have been applied to multiple (at least 3) samples of a shrub.
All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.
Question is incomplete. Complete question is as follows:
All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.
a. estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle
b. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
c. the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation
d. a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation
Answer:
b. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
Explanation:
FSH and LH levels relatively go high from day 1-8 of the ovarian cycle.
FSH stimulates the development of 10-20 follicles resulting in the full maturation of a single dominant follicle- appearing in mid-follicular phase,
High LH and FSH triggered b drop in estrogen and progesterone levels from last cycle. Estrogen level starts to rise as follicular development occurs.
Hence All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except b. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
Which of the following is associated with the planarian's nervous system?
regeneration
flame cells
diffusion
ganalia
Answer:
ganalia
Explanation:
Which quadrilaterals always have consecutive angles that are supplementary?
Answer:
The quadrilaterals which have supplementary consecutive angles are called Parallelogram.Explanation:
A parallelogram is a type of quadrilateral which has two parallel sides on each opposite sides which are equal and the opposite angles in a parallelogram are also equal.The consecutive angles of a parallelogram are supplementary meaning that the sum of the consecutive angles in a parallelogram is equal to 180 degrees. The overall sum of all the angles in a parallelogram is 360 degrees as it is a quadrilateral.The diagonals of the parallelogram bisects each other and divides the parallelogram into equal halves.True or false: An allele is a version of a gene?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
I will give an example. Two plants cross breeds. A pink flower and a red flower. The red flower has a gene for red color and the pink has a gene for pink color. Mix the two together and you have an offspring with two different genes, or alleles, that are either going to be mixed or the plant will be one or the other color.
what is immune response
Answer:
I think that it is when you fighting off a sickness :D
Explanation:
The immune response is the body's defense mechanism against foreign substances, involving various immune cells and processes to identify, neutralize, and eliminate pathogens or abnormal cells.
What is immune response?The immune response is a complex series of physiological processes and mechanisms by which the body's immune system recognizes and defends against foreign substances, such as pathogens (e.g., bacteria, viruses), toxins, or abnormal cells. It involves a coordinated effort of various immune cells, including white blood cells, antibodies, and chemical messengers, to identify, neutralize, and eliminate these foreign invaders. The immune response includes both innate immunity, which provides immediate but non-specific defense, and adaptive immunity, which is specific and can develop memory to better respond to future encounters with the same pathogen. Overall, the immune response plays a critical role in protecting the body from harmful substances and maintaining overall health and well-being.
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Which of the following patterns is most likely to indicate a Foodborne illness
Patterns of foodborne illness
Explanation:
Patterns which may indicate a foodborne illness outbreak include various predominant symptoms of the illness, duration of the illness, population affected.
Differential clinical diagnosis of foodborne illness includes acute symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, abdominal pain, headache, fever etc. Microbial diagnosis needs to be done to identify the pathogen causing the foodborne illness.
Intensive surveillance needs to be done to detect serious outbreak of such foodborne illnesses. Diseases like typhoid, norovirus disease, hepatitis A, E. coli enteric diseases are caused to infection from contaminated food.
Answer: c
Explanation:Patterns which may indicate a foodborne illness outbreak include various predominant symptoms of the illness, duration of the illness, population affected.
Differential clinical diagnosis of foodborne illness includes acute symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, abdominal pain, headache, fever etc. Microbial diagnosis needs to be done to identify the pathogen causing the foodborne illness.
Intensive surveillance needs to be done to detect serious outbreak of such foodborne illnesses. Diseases like typhoid, norovirus disease, hepatitis A, E. coli enteric diseases are caused to infection from contaminated food.
Circulatory systems compensate for _____. _____ Select one: a. temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue b. the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances c. the problem of communication systems involving only the nervous system d. the need to cushion animals from trauma e. the need that fetal organisms have for maintaining an optimal body temperature
Explanation:
The circulatory system is a network consisting of blood, blood vessels, and the heartThis network supplies tissues in the body with oxygen and other nutrients, transports hormones, and removes unnecessary waste productsThe human circulatory system consists of several circuits: The pulmonary circuit provides blood flow between the heart and lungsThe systemic circuit allows blood to flow to and from the rest of the bodyThe coronary circuit strictly provides blood to the heartThe expression 0.5n is equivalent to
0.5 + 0.5 + 0.5... + 0.5.
0.5 times n.
0.5•0.5•0.5... •0.5.
Answer:
0.5 • 0.5 • 0.5 . . . • 0.5.
Explanation:
Hundreds of years ago, it was believed by many that our solar system was Geocentric. This means that Earth is at the center of the solar system, with the Sun and other planets orbit around it. Today, the solar system is now thought to be Heliocentric. What does this mean?
Answer:
This means that Earth is at the center of the solar system, with the Sun and other planets orbit around it. Today, the solar system is now thought to be Heliocentric.
What is a biomoleclue composed of amino acids connected you peptide bonds
What is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall?
Answer:
surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavityExplanation:
Each lung enclosed in two membranes called the pleurae . The outer membrane is called parietal pleura , and the inner membrane is called visceral pleura , which closely invest the lungs . A very narrow space exist between two pleura i.e., known as pleural cavity that contains pleural fluid secreted by the pleurae . Pleurae cause the production of pleural fluid and create cavities that seperates organ . Mesothelial cells of both pleural layer secretes fluid and cause lubrication on the surface . These lubrication mimize the friction between pleural layer to prevent the difficulty in breathing and creates surface tension that is responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall . Generally , pressure within cavities present between pleural layers is less than atmospheric pressure i.e., negative pressure in the pleural cavity which is also responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall .
Do a timeline of the process of formation of fraternal twins started by the oogenensis
Answer:
The process of Faternal twins start when an ovum or egg split into two, and develop into individual babies which are known as faternal twins. Oogenesis is the formation of egg.
Explanation:
After the formation of ovum, it splits.
The heartworms that can accumulate within the hearts of dogs and other mammals have a pseudocoelom, an alimentary canal, and an outer covering that is occasionally shed. To which phylum does the heartworm belong? a. Platyhelminthes b. Annelida c. Arthropoda d. Nematoda
Answer:
Nematode.
Explanation:
Heartworms belongs to phylum Nematoda, their biological name is Dirofilaria immitis. Their body structure is a tiny thread-like parasite roundworm. Adult heartworms always live in the lung arteries and the heart of the dogs and other mammals, it can spread from one species to another by the mosquito bites. Some characteristics of Nematoda phylum are:
1) Their body structure is triploblastic, bilaterally equal and cylindrical in shape.
2) They show a tissue-level organization.
3) Their body keeps a pouch or pseudocoelom.
Select the correct answer.
What is the first thing you should look for on a food label?
O A.
calories from fat
B.
calories
serving size
D. number of servings
Reset
Next
Answer:
B. Calories
Explanation:
Bone marrow can be found in the many hollow spaces in the
Bone marrow is found in the hollow spaces of spongy bone, which is located in the epiphysis of long bones.
Bone marrow can be found in the many hollow spaces of the spongy type of bone. The spongy bone, primarily located in the epiphysis of long bones, consists of tiny plates called trabeculae that add strength to the bone. Within the spaces of these trabeculae lies the red marrow, which is essential for the production of red blood cells, with a fascinating production rate of 2 - 3 million per second, and also produces various types of white blood cells.
Assume that 357,250,000 kilocalories are available at the producer level in this Chesapeake Bay ecosystem. Calculate the amount of usable chemical energy available at each level in the pyramid. Show your work.
Answer:
357,250,000 -> 35,725,000 -> 3,572,500 -> 357,250 -> 35,725
Explanation:
only 10% of the energy at one level gets passed to the organism in the next level.
hope this helps :)
At every level in the energy pyramid, 10% of the energy reduces from producers to quaternary consumers.
What is energy pyramid?Energy pyramid is the flow of energy.
What is reduces?Reduces mean decreases.
What are producers?Producers are the plants which can prepare food by themselves.
What are quaternary consumers?Quaternary consumers are the top most predators which consumes tertiary consumers.
So there are five energy levels in a pyramid. they are producers in which the energy is 357,250,000 KC, primary consumers (35,725,000 KC), secondary consumers (3,572,500 KC), tertiary consumers (357,250 KC) and quaternary consumers ( 35,725 KC).
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Donkeys have a somatic chromosome number of 62. Hybrids produced by crossing donkeys and zebras are called zonkeys, are sterile, and have many characteristics intermediate between the two parental species. If a zonkey has 52 chromosomes, what is the somatic chromosome number of zebras:
Answer:
42
Explanation:
The somatic chromosome of zebras will be 42.
During gamete formation prior to fertilization, reproductive cells divides by meiosis to give rise to haploid cells with half the number of chromosomes of the somatic cells.
During fertilization, two haploid gametes fuse together to give rise to a diploid zygote.
A donkey with 62 somatic chromosome will produce gametes with 31 chromosomes. Zonkey is a diploid organism and has chromosome number of 52, hence, the haploid gamete of zebra would have:
52 - 31 = 21 chromosomes.
Hence, the diploid (somatic) chromosome number of zebras will be:
21 x 2 = 42 chromosomes.
Which mRNA sequence is the complement to the DNA sequence GATCAC?
1.CUAGUG
2.UAGUGA
3.AGUGAC
4.GUGAUC
Final answer:
The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the DNA sequence GATCAC is CUAGUG, corresponding to option 1 in the multiple-choice question provided. This is determined by pairing each DNA base with its RNA complement following the transcription rules.
Explanation:
The student's question asks which mRNA sequence is the complement to the DNA sequence GATCAC. The transcription process in biology involves creating a complementary RNA strand from a DNA sequence. Each DNA base pairs with a specific RNA base: adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U) in RNA, thymine (T) pairs with adenine (A), cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G), and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C).
Using these pairing rules, we find the complementary RNA sequence for the DNA sequence GATCAC as follows:
DNA: G
mRNA: C
DNA: A
mRNA: U
DNA: T
mRNA: A
DNA: C
mRNA: G
DNA: A
mRNA: U
DNA: C
mRNA: G
Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence that is complementary to GATCAC is CUAGUG, which corresponds to option 1.
Examine the image. Then use the drop-down menu to choose the correct order for the relative age of the features from oldest to youngest -answer “b,w,e,q,k
Answer:
b w e q k
Explanation:
2 answer
quizlt testing your comprehen 1. identify which anatomical plane-sagittal, frontal, or transverse-is the only one that could not show (a) both the brain and tongue, (b) both eyes, (c) both the hypogastric and gluteal regions, (d) both kidneys, (e) both the sternum and vertebral column, and (f) both the heart and uterus. understand anatomical
The sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves, is the only anatomical plane that could not show both structures or regions like the brain and tongue, both eyes, hypogastric and gluteal regions, both kidneys, sternum and vertebral column, or the heart and uterus.
Explanation:To answer your question, let's first recall what each anatomical plane represents. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, the frontal (or coronal) plane divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions, and the transverse (or horizontal) plane divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) halves.
Given this understanding, we can deduce that the sagittal plane is the only one that cannot show: (a) both the brain and tongue, (b) both eyes, (c) both the hypogastric and gluteal regions, (d) both kidneys, (e) both the sternum and vertebral column, and (f) both the heart and uterus. This is because these structures or regions are located on opposite sides of the body (left and right) and not vertically or anterior-posteriorly.
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Mango the parrot jumped very quickly toward an empty paper cup. When she hit the cup, it moved into the air and fell off the table. What happened when Mango hit the cup?
A. Energy was transferred from the cup to Mango.
B. Both Mango and the cup gained energy.
C. Both Mango and the cup lost energy.
D. Energy was transferred from Mango to the cup.
Answer:
try D. Energy was transferred from Mango to the cup.
Explanation:
You are called to the scene of a man down. Dispatch reports the man is pulseless and bystanders are doing CPR. According to the NREMT Cardiac Arrest Management/AED skill sheet, which of the following sequences is appropriate?
A. Check for responsiveness, Assess for breathing, Check carotid pulse , put your gloves on
B. Question the bystanders, direct them to stop CPR , check for pulse and then attach the AED, Begin chest compressions
C. Turn on power to AED, open the patient's airway, insert an adjunct and then analyze the rhythm while doing chest compressions
D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions
The correct sequence for cardiac arrest management is to check breathing and pulse simultaneously and if the patient is pulseless and not breathing, immediately begin chest compressions.
The appropriate sequence for managing cardiac arrest according to the NREMT Cardiac Arrest Management/AED skill sheet is: D. Check breathing and pulse simultaneously, if the patient is pulseless and apneic, immediately begin chest compressions. When arriving on the scene where a person is pulseless, and bystanders are performing CPR, the steps should be rapidly executed without delay. Confirming the absence of pulse and breath allows for the urgent initiation of CPR. If an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is available, it should be applied as soon as possible after starting chest compressions.
How far in advance is weather forecasting most accurate?
So far weather forecasts are only accurate from three to five days in advance despite all the computing power, communications and data available.
Answer:
ONE WEEKExplanation:
ONE WEEK
How could a food web Based in water be connected to a good web based on land give examples?
Answer:
For an instance, an aquatic food web can be connected to a food web that is based on land. Planktons and algae are some of the main producers which are found in the marine ecosystem. These planktons are eaten by a tiny shrimp called krill. Whales, seals, squids and fishes feed on these tiny shrimps.
Explanation:
Write the complementary DNA strand for each given strand of DNA.
ACTAACGGTAGCTAGC
____________________
GTCAGTCGATCATGCA
_____________________
ATCGTGCTGATCGTAC
_____________________
ATGCTGATACACCTGA
_____________________
TGGACTGATCCATCG
______________________
Answer:
1. TGATTGCCATCGATCG
2. CAGTCAGCTAGTACGT
3.TAGCACGACTAGCATG
4.TACGACTATGTGGACT
5.ACCTGACTAGGTAGC
Explanation:
Taxol is a drug that stabilizes microtubules and prevents them from depolymerizing. Consequently, cells treated with taxol fail to complete mitosis. What is the last stage of mitosis that taxol-treated cells are likely to complete?
Answer:
Metaphase
Explanation:
Taxol is an anti-mitotic chemical which is used to treat cancer.
The taxol act by binding the microtubules which act as cytoskeletal structure. The microtubules are involved in the segregation of the chromosomes during the division of the cell.
The microtubules allow the movement of the chromosomes in the dividing cell during anaphase.
If the cells are treated with the taxol then the cells will be observed at the metaphase in which the chromosomes are aligned in the equatorial line. The microtubules will separate the chromosomes after the metaphase or during the anaphase but since the taxol prevents the depolymerization of the microtubules, therefore, cells are found in the metaphase.
Thus, Metaphase is correct.
A gene encoding one of the proteins involved in the DNA replication has been inactivated by a mutatiion in a cell. In the absence of this protein the cell attempts to replicate its DNA for the very last time. What DNA products would be generated in each case if the following protein were missing / mutated? (a) primase(b) DNA ligase(c) DNA polymerase I
Answer:
primase - unwinded parental double helix DNA, no replication.
DNA ligase - new double helix DNA, one old strand and okazaki fragments
DNA polymerase 1 - original DNA strands, daughter strands with primers still attached.
Explanation:
The primase enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of RNA primer which binds with unwinded DNA strands at the origin of replications and serves as a starting chain for the daughter strands. Hence, their absence during replication will lead to the discontinuation of the replication process after the unwinding of the double helix structure by the helicase enzyme.
DNA ligase functions as to join fragments of DNA synthesized discontinuously (okazaki fragments) during replication. Okazaki fragments are generated after replication of the leading and the lagging strands have been complete. Hence, the absence of the DNA ligase will result in the lagging strands existing as a lone strand along with the okazaki fragments and a newly replicated DNA consisting of one old leading strand and its newly synthesized complimentary strand.
The DNA polymerase 1 is responsible for the removal of RNA primers and replacing them with DNA nucleotides after the elongation process. Hence, the absence of the enzyme will cause incomplete replication process.
What is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?
Answer:
Several Things
Explanation:
Both have a flagella, plasma membrane, cell division, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and chromosomes.
What distinguishes phytoplankton from other kinds of plankton? Why are phytoplankton important?
Answer:
Their ability to manufacture their own food
Explanation:
There are two main types of plankton. this includes phytoplankton and zooplankton. Phytoplankton are different from zooplankton in that these plankton are plant-like and undergo photosynthesis manufacturing their own food. They are also regarded as being autotrophic. They are important in that other organisms including the zooplanktons depends on them for food, hence they can also be categoriZed as producers.
"Phytoplankton are distinguished from other types of plankton primarily by their ability to photosynthesize. They contain chlorophyll and other pigments, which allow them to convert light energy into chemical energy through the process of photosynthesis.
This sets them apart from zooplankton, which are heterotrophic and must consume other organisms for energy, and bacterioplankton, which are primarily decomposers.
The importance of phytoplankton is multifaceted:
1. Oxygen Production: Phytoplankton contribute significantly to the oxygen in our atmosphere. It is estimated that about 50% of the global oxygen production is due to phytoplankton photosynthesis, making them crucial for the survival of aerobic life on Earth.
2. Basis of Marine Food Webs: As primary producers, phytoplankton form the foundation of the marine food web. They are consumed by zooplankton, which in turn are food for larger organisms, including fish, whales, and birds. Thus, they support the immense biodiversity of marine ecosystems.
3. Carbon Sequestration: Phytoplankton play a key role in the global carbon cycle. Through photosynthesis, they absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. When phytoplankton die, some of their biomass sinks to the ocean floor, effectively sequestering carbon away from the atmosphere and mitigating climate change.
4. Regulation of Climate: Phytoplankton can influence climate patterns by affecting the heat distribution in the ocean. They can also impact cloud formation and albedo through the production of dimethyl sulfide (DMS), which can lead to the formation of clouds that reflect sunlight away from the Earth's surface.
5. Economic Value: Phytoplankton are the starting point for many commercially important fisheries. Their productivity affects the abundance and distribution of fish stocks, which are vital for the economies of coastal communities and the broader seafood industry.
In summary, phytoplankton are a critical component of Earth's ecosystems, influencing atmospheric composition, climate regulation, marine biodiversity, and human economies. Their health and abundance are indicators of the overall health of the world's oceans."