If a nurse takes a blood sample immediately before and after a healthy persons performs exercise, which of the following is the most likely finding?

If A Nurse Takes A Blood Sample Immediately Before And After A Healthy Persons Performs Exercise, Which

Answers

Answer 1
I think the one on the bottom.
Answer 2
The answer you are likely looking for is A. You don't breathe heavily before you begin to exercise, and you do later because the body is trying to bring in needed oxygen for the exercise.

So A is your best answer.

Related Questions

Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are

Answers

The answer is T cells. They develop from a progenitor lymphoblast ( found in the bone marrow) which could also differentiate into B cells and natural killers cells of the adaptive immune system, through lymphopoiesis. B cells, the other type of lymphocytes, attain immunocompetence in the Gut-associated-lymphoid tissue (GALT).

Final answer:

Thymocytes are lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus through a series of developmental stages. They are formed in the bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus to develop their T cell receptors. Thymocytes differentiate into different types of T cells, such as helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells.

Explanation:

The lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are called thymocytes. Immature T-cells, or thymocytes, enter the thymus and go through a series of developmental stages that ensures both function and tolerance before they leave and become functional components of the adaptive immune response.

Thymocytes are formed in the bone marrow and then migrate to the thymus, where they develop their T cell receptors. This process of maturation in the thymus is critical for the development of a functional immune system.

Once mature, these thymocytes differentiate into different types of T cells, such as helper T cells (CD4+T cells) and cytotoxic T cells (CD8+T cells), which play crucial roles in the immune response.

summarize the meaning of the following information regarding trait inheritance: For a certain trait, identical twins have concordance rate of 54% and fraternal twins have a rate of less than 5%

Answers

Concordance = presence of the same trait.
Identical twins have a higher rate than fraternal because most of their DNA is identical, it’s identical because the zygote split into two so the babies shared an amniotic sack. (Zygote is fertilized egg) so the baby got duplicated meaning only one egg and sperm created two babies. Fraternal twins happen when two eggs are fertilized and grow in separate amniotic sacks. So two different babies, two different eggs and sperm.

A galaxy is likely to be a collection of which of the following
1. Universe and interstellar matter
2. Stars and interstellar matter
3. Clusters and constellations***
4 stars and clusters

Answers

3. would be the correct answer 

Answer: Stars and interstellar matter

Explanation:

Clusters are a group of galaxies so that can't be correct. A universe is bigger than a galaxy so it can't be that. Constellations are a group of stars forming a recognizable pattern that is traditionally named after its apparent form or identified with a mythological figure. So the only answer is stars and interstellar matter.

How could you tell xylophagous and phyllophagous insects apart?

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Xylophagous insects eat wood and phyllophagous insects eat plants.

Explanation:

A xylophagous insect feeds the wood and decaying parts of the woods.

In their digestive system symbiotic bacteria is present which helps in the breakdown of the cellulose.

Examples of xylophagous insects are furniture beetles, Beavers, deathwatch beetle, Shipworms.

Whereas a phyllophagous insect feeds plants and leaves.

Examples of phyllophagous insects are giraffe, insects, bears, elephants, koala, and deer.

Identify the gas being produced by plants.

Answers

Plants produce oxygen 

In which zone can rooted plants be expected to be found attached to the seafloor? What is the name of this zone and why are plants found there?

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Rooted plants (seaweed) would be found close to the shore in the intertidal zone, called the littoral zone. Seaweed is found here as the water here is shallow, and seaweed requires sunlight for photosynthesis, so the water cannot be too deep for the sunlight to penetrate. Seaweed is not a plant as such but rather may belong to one of several groups of multicellular algae.

Answer: Plants that are attached to the ocean surface live in the benthic zone. These plants are also found in the epipelagic zone which maxes at 200m. Plants and life need warmth, oxygen, and sunlight. At these depths, all of these are available to ocean life.

what is a gene?
A) a section of a protein that codes for DNA
B) the alternate version of a trait
C) the visible trait in the F1 generation
D) a section of DNA that codes for a specific trait

Answers

A gene is a section of DNA that encodes instructions for creating a specific protein or RNA molecule, effectively determining a particular trait in an organism.

A gene is a locus (or region) of DNA that encodes a functional RNA or protein product, and is considered the molecular unit of heredity. The transmission of genes to an organism's offspring is the basis of the inheritance of phenotypic traits. In simpler terms, genes carry instructions for making all the proteins that are required for an organism's growth, development, and biological functions, thus determining specific traits.

A gene is a discrete sequence of DNA nucleotides. Often, one gene is responsible for making one protein, but this is not always the case. The expression of genes can be influenced by environmental factors, and some proteins may be the result of multiple genes working together.

An example of how a gene works is seen in pea plants, where a specific gene might code for flower color. Therefore, to answer the student's original question, the correct option is:

D) a section of DNA that codes for a specific trait

If a cell that has six chromosomes goes through meiosis, how many chromosomes will the daughter cells have? 1

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Half of 6, 6 / 2 = 3

During what trimester does cartilage begin to harden?

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The embryonic cartilage begins to harden into bone at anytime around the 2nd trimester. The embryonic cartilage undergoes endochondral ossification wherein the chondrocytes is slowly replaced by osteocytes with subsequent deposition of calcium and hydroxyapatite; therefore converting the cartilages into bones.

Suppose george washington completely removed the bark from around the base of a cherry tree but was stopped by his father before cutting the tree down. the leaves retained their normal appearance for several weeks, but the tree eventually died. the tissue(s) that george left functional was (were) the

Answers

Hi! 

What George Washington did was called "Girdling"

It consists of removing bark, cambium, and phloem from a tree, and leaving only the xylem and heartwood functional

What it does to the tree is to remove the tissue that is responsible for carrying the sugar from the leaves to the roots. This causes the roots to die, and with them, the tree dies too. This process is very slow and is used by horticulturists to kill trees while giving the environment time to adjust.

The heart rate slows, breathing becomes more shallow and irregular, and an eeg would show the first signs of sleep spindles in _____ sleep.

Answers

The correct answer in the space provided above is Non REM stage 2. It is because by this stage, the person drifts to sleep that made the body temperature drop, the slow heart rate to occur and as well as the breathing to become more shallow in which is mentioned in the statement above.

Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.
a.thalamus
b.superior colliculus
c.chiasma
d.occipital lobe of the cortex

Answers

d.occipital lobe of the cortex

cerebral cortex (cerebrum) is the most conscious part of the human brain, contains: frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes
Final answer:

The conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the occipital lobe of the cortex, which is the primary area of the brain responsible for visual interpretation.

Explanation:

The conscious perception of vision likely reflects activity in the occipital lobe of the cortex. The occipital lobe in our brain is primarily responsible for interpreting visual information sent from our eyes. The process starts when light enters our eyes and hits the retina. The information is then transferred by the optic nerve through the thalamus to the occipital lobe, where it is consciously perceived as vision.

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9 one-way streets have unique features including __________.

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One way streets have unique features including all vehicles pointing in one direction.  The street also has no yellow center line marks. A one way street is a street that has either a one way traffic or designed to direct vehicles in one direction and that is why it has those features.

One-way streets are roadways where traffic is allowed to flow in only one direction.

Directionality: The most defining feature of a one-way street is its restriction to traffic flowing in a single direction.

Lane markings and signage: One-way streets typically have clear lane markings and signage indicating the allowed direction of travel.

Increased capacity: One-way streets can often accommodate higher traffic volumes compared to two-way streets.

Thus, these features aim to enhance traffic flow, safety, and efficiency, providing a distinct transportation option within road networks.

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(Earth/Space)
Answer fast to get brainliest.
What kind of stars are found in the spiral arms of the Milky Way?
A. old, metal-rich stars
B. old, metal-poor stars
C. young, metal-rich stars
D. young, metal-poor stars

Answers

the answer would be b

Young, metal-rich stars found in Milky Way's spiral arms. So, the correct option is (C).

What are Stars?

A star is defined as a celestial object which consists of a luminous sphere of plasma held together by its own gravity. The nearest star to the Earth is the Sun. Other stars are visible to the bare eye at night, but their extreme distance from Earth makes them appear as fixed points of light.

Stars are called stars because they shine and shine, because even when they are bathed in light, they seem to be a resplendent being of their own.

Population I or metal-rich stars are said to be the young stars with the highest metallicity of the three populations and are typically found in the spiral arms of the Milky Way galaxy.

Thus, Young, metal-rich stars found in Milky Way's spiral arms. So, the correct option is (C).

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To find out which ingredient the cockroaches are refusing, you can carry out a controlled experiment. hydramethylnon is dissolved in oleic acid before being mixed with corn syrup to prepare the poisoned bait, so you should test all three ingredients. suppose you conducted a feeding trial to test each ingredient. in the trial, a set of four agar dishes, three containing all except one ingredient and one with all three ingredients (the control), were weighed and placed 3 cm apart on the kitchen floor in an infested apartment. after two days, the dishes were weighed again to measure food consumption. you then repeated the trial 4 times and averaged the results

Answers

Answer:

The correct options for this question are:

A) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no hydramethylnon as they did from the control dish.
B) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no oleic acid as they did from the control dish.
F) Roaches are refusing corn syrup.


In this scenario (before pesticides were ever introduced to cockroaches) a certain subset of the population was genetically more likely to avoid oleic acid for whatever reason.  Traits like this float throughout populations and contribute to genetic variance.  When pesticides are introduced to the population, cockroaches with the previously neutral trait of oleic acid avoidance were now given a significant boost in regards to their relative fitness.

Final answer:

The percent yield of sodium bicarbonate when purified by dissolving in hot water and then precipitating in cold water is calculated by comparing the weight of precipitated NaHCO₃ to the initial amount dissolved. The percent yield is determined to be 57.93%.

Explanation:

To determine the percent yield of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) purification, you first calculate the amount of NaHCO₃ that can be dissolved in hot water, then the amount that precipitates when cooled, and finally compare the precipitated amount to the theoretical yield expected. Given the solubility of NaHCO₃ at 60 °C is 164 g/L and at 0 °C is 69 g/L, the amount of NaHCO₃ that remains in solution upon cooling can be accounted for to determine the loss.

To calculate the percent yield: If 1 L of saturated solution at 60 °C is cooled to 0 °C, the initial amount of NaHCO₃ is 164g. Upon cooling, only 69g of NaHCO₃ can remain in solution, meaning 95g (164g - 69g) precipitates out. The theoretical yield (start amount) is 164g, so the percent yield = (95g / 164g) * 100% = 57.93%. This calculation assumes complete precipitation and no losses during filtering.

Radiometric dating __________. radiometric dating __________. allows us to determine an absolute, errorless date only works on rocks younger than 75,000 years relies on the fact that the daughter isotope decays to the parent isotope at a constant rate allows us to indirectly date fossils up to billions of years old based on minerals in surrounding volcanic strata

Answers

I think Radiometric dating relies on the fact that the daughter isotope decays to the parent isotope  at a constant rate. Radiometric dating is the process of determining the age of rocks from the decay of their radioactive elements. It is a techniques used to date materials such as rocks or carbon in which trace radioactive impurities are selectively incorporated when they are formed. 
Final answer:

Radiometric dating is a scientific method to estimate the age of rocks and artifacts based on the decay rate of radioactive isotopes. It allows us to indirectly date fossils up to billions of years old. While it provides a significant estimate of age, it doesn't offer an absolute, errorless date.

Explanation:

Radiometric dating is a method used in geology and archaeology to determine the age of rocks and artifacts. It is based on the known rates of decay of radioactive isotopes - chemical elements that release energy by emitting radiation - present in the rocks or artifacts. When a radioactive isotope decays, it transforms into another chemical element, known as the daughter isotope, and this transformation occurs at a constant and known rate.

This method enables us to indirectly date fossils that are billions of years old, based on analyzing the minerals in the surrounding volcanic strata or rocks. By comparing the amount of the original radioactive parent isotope to the amount of its decayed daughter product in a rock or mineral, we can estimate how long the decay process has been taking place, and hence, the age of the rock.

It is important to note that while radiometric dating provides a significant estimate of the age of objects, it doesn't give us an absolute, errorless date. Furthermore, radioactive dating doesn't work only on rocks younger than 75,000 years but can help estimate the age of rocks up to billions of years old. There are several radiometric dating techniques available based on different isotopes, such as uranium-lead dating that revealed the oldest known rocks on Earth from Australia to be almost 4.4 billion years old.

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Paenibacillus wynnii uses the oxygen produced by cyanobacteria for which cellular process?

Answers

The answer is respiration. Paenibacillus wynnii is a facultative bacteria found in soil and other environments. Being facultative, it can survive in both oxygenated or anoxic environments. Therefore, if put together with Cyanobacteria that produces oxygen, Paenibacillus wynnii will use the oxygen in respiration.


The oxygen produced by cyanobacteria is used by Paenibacillus wynnii in respiration. The Latin name paene means almost, which reflects its name “almost bacilli”.  This endospore-forming bacteria, specifically genus P. larvae is known to cause American foulbrood in honeybees but they are essential in agriculture and horticulture.

In addition, these bacteria can catalyze a wide variety of synthetic reactions ranging from cosmetics to biofuel production for they produce extracellular enzymes like polysaccharide-degrading enzymes and proteases.

To best evaluate the adequacy of breathing in an unresponsive​ adult, the emt​ should:

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Check their carotid pulse, neck (only if they're unresponsive), and look at the patients chest for rising and falling. I think, since I just had and EMR course.

Without enzymes, the metabolic pathways are _____.

Answers

longer
higher energy level

Answer:

Inhibited or blocked

Explanation:

Without the enzymes, the metabolic pathways are blocked.

The genetic code of the gene is responsible for the production of a specific enzyme, which regulates the metabolic pathways in the cell during meiosis; the combination of chromosomes in a gamete is due to chance.

During which phase of meiosis do tetrads line up along the metaphase plate

Answers

During the Metaphase I, the tetrads line up along the plate.

Answer these questions based on what you learned from the lesson. are single-celled organisms with no nucleus. The kingdom is relatively small. Eubacteria are classified by . Coccus are round bacterial cells. Bacillus are rod-shaped bacterial cells. Spirillium are spiral-shaped bacterial cells.

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1.) [Bacteria] are single-celled organisms with no nucleus.  

2.) The kingdom [Archaebacteria] is relatively small.

3.) Eubacteria are classified by [shape].

4.) [coccus] are round bacterial cells.

5.) [bacilli] are rod-shaped bacterial cells.    

6.) [spirilli] are spiral-shaped bacterial cells.

Can you explain why the presence of three types of pigments (chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoids) increase the functioning of photoautotrophs?

Answers

Photoautotrophs are organisms, typically a plant, that obtains energy from the sun to be able to convert inorganic materials to organic materials for cellular functions to take place such as biosynthesis and respiration. Its function is increased by the presence of the three types of pigments namely chlorophyll A and B and carotenoids because these are "enablers" of photosynthesis.

The chlorophyll serves as the stepping stone for the sunlight "energy-capture" . This pigment contains porphyrin ring through which electrons can freely to move. Since they move freely, the ring has the ability to gain or lose electrons easily thus they also have the ability to provide energized electrons to other molecules.

However, the carotenoids are accessory pigments only because they cannot directly transfer the energy from the sun to the photosynthetic pathway which means that the absorbed energy must be passed on to chlorophyll first.

The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the ___ and the ___

Answers

The answer is splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein. To simplify, the hepatic portal vein is made by the union of the splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein. The hepatic portal vein is one of the utmost significant veins that obtain blood from the body and transfer it to the liver for filtration and treating. This vein is a portion of the hepatic portal system that obtains all of the blood strenuous from the abdominal digestive area also from the pancreas, gallbladder, and spleen. 
Final answer:

The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of the splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein. It carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs to the liver.

Explanation:

The hepatic portal vein is formed by the union of two major vessels in the body, the splenic vein and the superior mesenteric vein. The splenic vein drains blood from the spleen and the inferior mesenteric vein, while the superior mesenteric vein collects blood from the small intestine, large intestine, and other digestive organs. These two veins join together behind the pancreas to form the hepatic portal vein, which carries nutrient-rich blood from the digestive organs to the liver.

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You are managing an rosc patient. while transitioning the patient to the​ ambulance, your partner dropped and broke the pulse oximeter. during​ transport, how much oxygen should be​ provided?

Answers

I think an amount of 15 lpm, would be appropriate. Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) is resumption of sustained perfusing cardiac activity associated with significant respiratory effort after cardiac arrest. Signs of ROSC include breathing, coughing, or movement and a palpable pulse or a measurable blood pressure. 

Which of these are greenhouse gases? Choose ALL that are correct.


carbon dioxide


nitrogen


oxygen


methane


carbon monoxide


water vapor

Answers

Carbon dioxide nitrogen oxygen
Greenhouse gases that occur both naturally and from human activities include water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone.

Why is storing hazardous wastes in barrels and burying them deep in the ground a bad idea ?

Answers

This due to the risk of contaminating the water table, especially where the water table is high. The water table is usual defined as the highest zone / horizon of high saturation of water in the soil, underground. The water table feeds river through springs. If contaminated, the water in springs will also be contaminated and affect any living things that consumes the water.

________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.

Answers

tonsils are large lymphatic nodules h are located in the walls of the pharynx

The patient with copd has a prescription for ibuprofen 600 mg. the nurse questions the prescription, knowing that ibuprofen interacts with which concurrent medication?

Answers

I think the use of ibuprofen should be questioned with the concurrent  use of hydrocortisone, a 28 corticosteroid. The use of medication together increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Ibuprofen and sertraline azithromycin, or ipratropium will not cause adverse effects.

The nurse questions the prescription of ibuprofen for a COPD patient due to its interaction with d) hydrocortisone, which can increase the risk of gastrointestinal complications. Ipratropium, Sertraline, and Azithromycin do not have significant interactions with ibuprofen.

The patient with COPD has a prescription for ibuprofen 600 mg. The nurse questions the prescription, knowing that ibuprofen interacts with which concurrent medication? The correct answer is Hydrocortisone.

Ipratropium: This is a bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm, but it does not have significant interactions with ibuprofen.Sertraline: This is an antidepressant (a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) and does not have a significant interaction with ibuprofen.Azithromycin: This is an antibiotic commonly used to treat respiratory infections and does not have a significant interaction with ibuprofen.Hydrocortisone: This is a corticosteroid, and combining it with ibuprofen (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug) can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects such as ulcers and bleeding.

complete question:

The patient with COPD has a prescription for ibuprofen 600 mg. The nurse questions the prescription, knowing that ibuprofen interacts with which concurrent medication?

a. Ipratropium

b. Sertraline

c. Azithromycin

d. Hydrocortisone

Natural resources are materials from the earth and are either renewable or nonrenewable. Some of these resources are recoverable after their first use. An example of resource recovery 

Answers

An example is using household food waste as compost in garden to provide nutrients for plant growth.

The answer is composting plants and food wastes. Resource recovery is extracting materials that can be recycled and processed for other uses.

What is one factor that makes women more susceptible than men to urinary tract infections?​?

Answers

One  of  the  factor  that  make  women   more  susceptible  than  men  to  urinary  tract  infection  is  because  male  have   longer   urethra  while  female  have  shorter  urethra.this  make  infectious  agent  to  reach  the bladder  more  easily  through   the  short  female  urethra  than  through  the  longer  male  urethra.women   are  affected 50-60  times  as  often  to  men
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