In 2012, Teller Company sold 3,000 units at $300 each. Variable expenses were $210per unit, and fixed expenses were $120,000. The same selling price, variable expenses,and fixed expenses are expected for 2012. What is Teller's break-even point in salesdollars for 2012?

Answer:

1) Net sales: Income statement

2) Assets: Balance Sheet

3) Cash generated by operating activities: Cash flow statement

4) Retained earnings change: Retained earning statement

5) Total debt: Balance Sheet

6) Company performance: Income statement

7) Dividend: Retained earnings

8) Cash generation and spending: Cash flow statement

9) Financial position: Cash flow, Balance sheet, Income statement

Answer:

Ans. the break even point is 58 people, or a ravenue of $14,500

Explanation:

Hi, first we need to add up all fixed costs and expenses (Room rental+Advertising) and find the contribution margin (Price - Variable costs). The math to this is as follows.

[tex]Break EvenPoint(units)=\frac{Fixed Costs}{(Price-VariableCost)}[/tex]

[tex]Break EvenPoint(units)=\frac{11000}{(250-60)}=58 people[/tex]

[tex]BreakEvenPoint(Dollars)=58persons*\frac{250}{person} =14500[/tex]

Based on the various costs to be incurred by Golden Age Retirement Planners, the breakeven number of people will be 58 people.

First find the fixed costs:

= Cost of room + Cost of advertising

= 1,000 + 10,000

= $11,000

The breakeven point is:

= Fixed costs / (Charge - Variable cost)

= 11,000 / (250 - 60)

= 57.9

= 58 people

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Answer:

The partial labor and capital productivity figures for the parent and subsidiary is 5.03 units per hour, 1.37 units per hour and, 1.68 units per hour, 4.20 units per hour

Explanation:

The computation of the partial labor for the parent and subsidiary is calculated by applying the formula which is shown below:

= Sales ÷  Labor (hours)

For U.S = 100,080 units ÷  19,880 hours = 5.03 units per hour

For LDC = 20,500 units ÷  14,880  hours = 1.37 units per hour

The computation of the capital productivity for the parent and subsidiary is calculated by applying the formula which is shown below:

= Sales ÷ Capital equipment (hours)

For U.S = 100,080 units ÷  59,400 hours = 1.68 units per hour

For LDC = 20,500 units ÷  4,880  hours = 4.20 units per hour

Answer:

[tex]q_1=\frac{a-m}{2b}-\frac{q_2}{2}[/tex]

Explanation:

Note that Total Costs are given by fixed costs (F) and marginal costs (m) that depend on the production level of the firm

[tex]CT_i=F+mq_i[/tex]

for i=1,2. The market demand is given by

[tex]p=a-bQ[/tex]

where [tex]Q=q_1+q_2[/tex] is the total production, so it's the sum of each firms production

Firm 1 will maximize it's own profits

[tex]max\,\Pi_1=p=(a-b(q_1+q_2))q_1-F-mq_1[/tex]

The first order conditions (take derivative of the profit with respect to [tex]q_1[/tex] are given by

[tex]a-2 b q_1-b q_2-m=0[/tex]

Then the best-response function for Firm 1 will be

[tex]q_1=\frac{a-m}{2b}-\frac{q_2}{2}[/tex]

and the solution for Firm 2 would be symmetric.

Note that only marginal costs are relevant for getting the best-response function, so adding fixed costs (F) don't change the results

Answer:

Using the straight-line method, the book value at December 31, 2018 would be $53.760

Explanation:

                2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

Cost      67200 53.760 40.320 26.880 13.440

Dep-Acu      13.440 13.440 13.440 13.440 13.440

Book Value53.760 40.320 26.880 13.440 0

Answer:

Ans. The carrying value of this bond on Dec. 31/17 is $25,185,800.90

Explanation:

Hi, the carrying value of this debt depends on the unpaid coupons and its principal, and since 2 semi-annual coupons were already paid, we have to bring to present value (to Dec /17) the remaining coupons and the principal to be paid. The formula is as follows.

[tex]Carrying Value=\frac{Coupon((1+r)^{n-1}-1) }{r(1+r)^{n-1} } +\frac{FaceValue+Coupon}{(1+r)^{n} }[/tex]

Where:

[tex]Coupon=25,300,000*\frac{0.078}{2} =986,700[/tex]

[tex]Yield(semi-annual)=(1+0.08)^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.03923[/tex]

[tex]n=20years*2-2(paid coupons)=38[/tex]

[tex]Carrying Value=\frac{986,700((1+0.03923)^{37}-1) }{0.03923(1+0.03923)^{37} } +\frac{25,300,000+986700}{(1+0.03923)^{38} }[/tex]

[tex]Carrying Value=25,185,800.90[/tex]

Best of luck.

Answer:

Cost of goods manufactured= $16,129

Explanation:

Total manufacturing cost is the aggregate amount of cost incurred by a business to produce goods in a reporting period.

Generally accepted accounting principles require that the cost of goods sold shall consist of:

the cost of direct materials

the cost of direct labor

the cost of manufacturing overhead

In this exercise:

Cost of goods manufactured:

Direct materials= $7,700

Direct Labor=179hours  * $31=$5,549

Factory overhead= $32*90 hours= $2,880

Total= $16,129

Answer:

Rottweiler's Net Capital Spending for 2008: $0,465 million.

Explanation:

December 31, 2007 Net Fixed Assets of $1.875

Dureing 2008 Depreciation Expense of -$0,220

December 31, 2008 Net Fixed Assets of $1.655

Net Capital Spending for 2008                 $0,465 .

December 31, 2008 Net Fixed Assets of $2.120

Answer:

(C) input prices; Supply decreases

Explanation:

The input prices are all the cost Anonio inccurs to produce a pizza.

The pepperoni will be part of his input price.

The lowest price at which Antonio can sale a pizza is determinate by his cost.

Now Antonio need to sell their pizzas for more cash. So this increase generated a supply decrease.

Answer:

Bad debt expense $5.125

Explanation:

Initial Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 43.000  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 1.250

Entry    

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 775  

Accounts Receivable   $ 775

New Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 42.225  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 475

Entry Adjustment

Bad debt expense  $ 5.125  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 5.125

END Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 42.225  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 5.600

The correct answer is c. The bad debt expense for 2016 would be: $5125

To calculate the bad debt expense for 2016, we need to follow these steps:

1. Determine the beginning balance of the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

- Beginning balance: $1,250

2. Account for the write-offs during the year:

- Accounts written off: $775

3. Determine the required ending balance of the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

- Required ending balance: $5,600

4. Calculate the Bad Debt Expense:

- The bad debt expense is the amount needed to adjust the allowance account to the required ending balance after considering the beginning balance and the write-offs.

Step-by-Step Calculation:

1. Beginning Balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts:

Beginning Balance = $1,250

2. Less: Write-offs during the year:

Write-offs = $775

3. Balance after write-offs:

Adjusted Balance = $1,250 - $775 = $475

4. Required Ending Balance:

Required Ending Balance = $5,600

5. Calculate the Bad Debt Expense:

Bad Debt Expense = Required Ending Balance - Adjusted Balance

Bad Debt Expense = $5,600 - $475 = $5,125

Therefore, the bad debt expense for 2016 would be: 5125

Therefore, the correct option is c. 5125 .

The complete question  is:

On December 31, 2015, Coolwear Inc. had balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts of $43,000 and $1,250, respectively. During 2016, Coolwear wrote off $775 in accounts receivable and determined that there should be an allowance for uncollectible accounts of $5,600 at December 31, 2016. Bad debt expense for 2016 would be:

a. $7400

b. $2400

c. $5100

d. $950

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Final answer:

True, the cash surplus can be used for short-term consumption needs or long-term investments. People choose various financial options like savings accounts, stocks, and bonds, weighing liquidity against potential returns to manage their finances and accumulate wealth.

Explanation:

The statement regarding the utilization of a cash surplus is true. Individuals and households can choose from various options to manage their finances depending on their goals, such as increasing future wealth, preserving purchasing power, or ensuring liquidity. For instance, they may opt to replace consumables or enhance their living standards in the short term. Alternatively, they can focus on financial investments like savings accounts, stocks, and bonds for long-term benefits.

In the context of wealth preservation and accumulation, individuals might consider the liquidity of checking accounts, the higher returns from bond market mutual funds, or investments in real assets. These choices reflect a balance between immediate accessibility of funds for everyday transactions or emergencies and the prospects of higher earnings through financial markets.

Ultimately, financial decisions are influenced by preferences for liquidity versus returns, and the potential uses of money - for consumption, investment, or saving - which can contribute to wealth accumulation over time.

Answer:

What amounts of

Warranty Revenue                             50000

Unearned Warranty Revenue          150000

Explanation:

Cash                          200000  

Unearned revenue           200000

Sold warranty  

Unearned Revenue           50000

Extended warranty                         50000  

Based on the warranty period, the warranty revenue will be $50,000 and the unearned warranty revenue will be $150,000.

This refers to the warranty for the year that wasn't claimed by customers.

This amount is:

= Total warranty / Number of years served

= 200,000 / 4

= $50,000

This is the warranty left to be claimed:

= Total warranty - Warranty for 20X9:

= 200,000 - 50,000

= $150,000

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Answer:

overrated

Explanation:

The expected vale of the stock is below their current market value.

This means the expected earnings and dividends of the company are going to decrease in the following months. Or that other stocks semes more profitable, making this stock price going down:

This may occurs because, the price earings of this stock (times the Earings per share pays the market price is greater than other stock. Investor will move from a stock with a P/E of 20 to another which P/E is % as their return in investment will be higher.

The mutual fund that has the lowest standard deviation also has the highest rate of return consistency. The solution is (C), thus.

The least unpredictable Mutual Fund C has a 4% standard deviation. This indicates that its returns are the most stable and least likely to change drastically.

Mutual Fund A, Mutual Fund B, and Mutual Fund D all have standard deviations of 8%, 6%, and 9%, respectively. As a result, the returns from all of these funds are more likely to fluctuate dramatically than those from Mutual Fund C.

Mutual Fund C is the mutual fund investment that has produced the highest consistent returns.

Hence, the correct option is C, Co-joined Investments.

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Mutual Fund C is the most consistent mutual fund investment in terms of rate of return as it has the lowest standard deviation, which indicates less variability in its returns.

Among the four mutual funds (A, B, C, and D) that all had the same mean rate of return of 12% over the last 10 years, the mutual fund with the most consistent rate of return would be the one with the lowest standard deviation. The standard deviation is a measure of the dispersion of returns around the mean return, where a lower standard deviation indicates less variability and thus more consistency in the rate of return.

Therefore, Mutual Fund C, with the lowest standard deviation of 4%, is the most consistent in terms of rate of return. Comparatively, Mutual Fund D has the highest standard deviation of 9%, making it the riskiest in terms of return variability.

Answer: Followers of the efficient market hypothesis believe that "C) investors react quickly and accurately to new information.".

Explanation: The efficient market hypothesis states that the current price of an asset in the market reflects all available information that exists (historical, public and private). It considers that any news or future event that may affect the price of an asset, will make the price adjust so quickly, that it is impossible to obtain an economic benefit from it.

This adjustment happens so fast because investors act quickly and accurately in the face of new information.

The efficient market hypothesis posits that investors react quickly and accurately to new information, implying all available information is already factored into stock prices. Thus, it suggests focusing on diverse investments to match the market's performance rather than attempting to beat it.

Followers of the efficient market hypothesis believe that investors react quickly and accurately to new information (option C). This hypothesis suggests that the stock market is always correctly priced because it assumes all relevant information about each stock is already incorporated into its price, leaving no room for above-average, risk-adjusted returns through stock selection or market timing. This theory suggests that instead of trying to 'beat the market', investors should focus on creating a diversely balanced portfolio, such as through index funds, to match the market's performance. This removes the pressure of trying to predict which stocks will perform better than others.

A common visual representation of this theory is the random walk hypothesis, which depicts price changes in the stock market as a random walk and implies that the past movement or trend of a stock price or market cannot be used to predict its future movement.

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Answer: Real estate

Explanation: Liquidity refers to the ability of a security to be converted into cash without having a major change in its price. In other words, liquidity is the relationship between the speed of sale of a security and its change in price.

Real estate refers to the land or other housing facilities etc. These assets require huge amount for purchase. It takes to find a buyer willing to make such a big investment, thus, they are not liquid.

Hence from the above we can conclude that the right option is C.

Answer:

g = 16%

dividends yield:

Year 1 4.60%

Year 3: 4.78%

expected rate of return:

year 1 20.6%

year 3 20.78%

Explanation:

grow rate:

D1 /D0 = g

1.16/1.00 - 1 = 0.16

1.3456/1.16 - 1 = 0.16

the grow rate is 16%

dividend yield:

dividends/stock price =  dividend yield

1/21.7 = 0,0460 = 4.60%

1.3456/28.15 = 0,04780 = 4.78%

expected rate of return:

dividend yield + grow rate

4.60% + 16% = 20.6%

4.78% + 16% = 20.78%

The growth rate in dividends is calculated to be 7.71% using the given dividends details. The expected dividend yield is found to be 4.61% by dividing the annual dividend payment by the stock’s price. Subsequently, the expected total return, which sums up the dividend yield and the dividend growth rate, is 12.32%.

First off, to calculate the growth rate in dividends, we'd need to understand that it's the percentage increase in the amount of dividends from one year to the next. The average growth rate, g, is then calculated as: g = [(D2/D1)^(1/2)-1] * 100 where D2 is dividend in year 2, D1 is dividend in year 1. So, g = [($1.16/$1.00) ^ (1/2) - 1] * 100 = 7.71%.

To calculate the expected dividend yield, you take the annual dividend payment and divide it by the stock's price. Therefore, the dividend yield for the first year would be: Dividend yield = D1 / P = $1.00 / $21.70 = 4.61%.

Lastly, the expected total rate of return, often used to compare the performance of different investments, is the sum of the expected dividend yield and the dividend growth rate. So, in this case, Expected total return = Expected dividend yield + Dividend growth rate = 4.61% + 7.71% = 12.32%. As such, the expected total return is 12.32% if the market is in equilibrium.

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Answer: Option (A) is correct

Explanation:

Here in the given case, in the context of supply change, the corporation did go wrong on part of adaptability. Adaptability is known as a feature of a process or of a system. This term has been utilized in several different discipline and organization operations. According to Gronau and Andresen, adaptability in organizational management can be referred to as ability to bring changes to oneself or something in order to fit the changes occurring.

Profits and losses signal to businesses which ventures are most productive, driving them to invest in successful areas, while losses encourage firms to leave or improve. This effective resource allocation contributes to innovation and economic gains as firms compete to meet consumer needs.

Profits and losses play a key role in the market economy and can indicate the health of a firm as well as influence resource allocation. When a business generates profits, it suggests that consumers value its products or services, which can lead to expansion and investment in that area. On the contrary, consistent losses signal that resources may be better used elsewhere, and can lead to firms exiting the market. This process of profit and loss serves to direct businesses towards the most productive projects and away from less productive ones. It does not solely signal to government which businesses to subsidize, dictate consumer preferences, or balance total profits with losses across the economy.

Moreover, competition leads to innovation, better and cheaper products, and overall gains for the economy. Firms that are unable to keep up may suffer losses, and potentially cease to exist. This competitive environment helps to ensure that only businesses that efficiently meet consumer needs survive in the long run. Government intervention may be considered to balance benefits of scale against loss of competition.

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Answer:

cash flow provided by operation         260,000

Explanation:

net income                                        200,000

adjustment for non-monetary terms: (A)

depreciation expense       60,000

loss on sale of land            15,000

adjusted net income                         275,000

Change in working capital:

decrease in AR           30,000

Decrease in AP          (45,000) (B)

net change in WC:      (15,000) (C)

cash flow provided by operation         260,000

(A) we must focus on cahs movement so the depreciation and loss on sale which are non-mentary term. This are not related to cash

(B) the decrease in account receivable means we colelct from our customer more.

(C) the decrease in accounts payable represent we use more cash to pay up the suppliers

Answer:

direct labor= $30000

Explanation:

With the following information we need to calculate the direct labor:

Beginning work-in-progress (BWIP): $12,000

Ending work-in-progress (EWIP): $10,000

Cost of goods manufactured (COGM): $97,000

Direct materials issued to production: $20,000

Factory overhead is assigned at 150% of direct labor.

We know that:

Cost of good manufactured= Beginning work in progress+ direct materials of the period + direct labor + manufactured overhead - ending work in progress

97000=12000 + 20000 + direct labor + 1,5*direct labor - 10000

direct labor= (97000-12000-20000+10000)/2,5

direct labor= 30000

Manufacturing overhead= 30000*1,5= 45000

Comprobation:

cost of manufactured goods= 12000+20000+30000+45000-10000=97000

Final answer:

The direct labor for Griss Co. in the month of August is calculated to be $12,000 by analyzing the relationship between factory overhead, which is 150% of direct labor, and other provided manufacturing costs.

Explanation:

To find the direct labor costs for the month of August for Griss Co., we need to understand that the factory overhead, which is 150% of direct labor, plays a significant role in this calculation. First, let's use the given formula to calculate the direct labor based on the information provided:

We know that COGM is calculated as follows: BWIP + Total Manufacturing Costs - EWIP. The Total Manufacturing Costs include Direct Materials, Direct Labor, and Factory Overhead. Given the factory overhead is 150% of direct labor, let's denote Direct Labor as DL. Thus, Factory Overhead = 1.5 * DL.

Using the information and the formula for COGM, we can set up the following equation:

$97,000 = $12,000 + ($20,000 + DL + 1.5DL) - $10,000

Solving for DL, we get:

$97,000 = $22,000 + 2.5DL

DL = ($97,000 - $22,000) / 2.5 = $30,000 / 2.5 = $12,000

Therefore, the direct labor for the month of August was $12,000.

Answer:

GDP= 9,872

Explanation:

The Expenditure Approach is a method of measuring GDP by calculating all spending throughout the economy including consumer consumption, investing, government spending, and net exports. This method calculates what a country produces, assuming that the finished goods and services of a country equals the amount spent in the country for that period.

The formula is:

GDP=C+I+G+/-NX

GDP: Gross Domestic Product

(C) consumer spending – this is the amount that all consumers spend on goods and services for personal use.

(I) investment – this is the amount that businesses or owners spend to invest in new equipment or expansions.

(G) government spending – this includes spending on new infrastructure like bridges and roads.

(NX) net exports – this includes spending on a country’s exports minus its spending on imports.

GDP= 6,728+1,767 +1,741+(1,102-1,466)

GDP= 9,872

Answer:

Statement II and III

Explanation:

For Statement I

We know that in a perfect competitive market the profit is maximum where either Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost, or the Price + Marginal Cost is the point defining the profit.

Therefore, firm having to exercise maximum power in market will produce more up till Marginal Revenue > Marginal Cost.

Therefore, statement I is false.

Statement II

For the time till when the marginal revenue is more than the marginal cost, more and more goods shall be produced to increase the quantum of profit.

as this will assure no losses up to the time where MR>MC.

Thus, statement II is true.

Statement III

If there is no cost of production then entire amount received for a good will be profit, accordingly till the time the marginal revenue does not fall to 0 the goods shall be supplied to consumers, as the entire amount received will be profit with no cost associated.

Thus, statement III is also True.

Final answer:

To prepare the current assets section of Chin Company's balance sheet, the assets are listed from most liquid to least liquid: cash, debt investments, accounts receivable, supplies, and prepaid insurance.

Explanation:

Preparation of the Current Assets Section

To prepare the current assets section of the balance sheet for Chin Company, we should list the assets in order of liquidity. Liquidity refers to how quickly an asset can be converted into cash without losing value. In the given list, cash is the most liquid asset, followed by cash equivalents and investments, then accounts receivable, and finally, the least liquid of the current assets are the prepaid expenses and supplies.

Here is how the current assets section would look:

Summing up these amounts, we have the total current assets. It's important to note that although supplies have a monetary value, they are not cash equivalents and are not as liquid as the other assets listed above, hence they are placed after accounts receivable.

Answer:

Net income = $ 150500

Return on assets = 20.07 %

Explanation:

Net income = (annual sales)*7%

                    = $ 2150000*7%

                    = $ 150500

return on assets = [net income*100]/[assets to support expansion]

                           = (150500)(100)/(750000)

                           = 20.07 %

Therefore, the Net income for the year is $ 150500 and the Return on assets for the year is 20.07 %.

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

Structural unemployment is the type of unemployment that arises because of mismatch in skills that the workers possess and the skills that the employers want.  

In the given example, Dora is unemployed because she does not have the skills required to work in industries other than a textile mill. This is an example of structural unemployment.  

Marsha's case is an example of cyclical unemployment as it caused due to recession.  

Alan and Jim's cases are examples of frictional unemployment. Both of them remained unemployed for a short time when moving from one job to another.

In the provided options, Dora's case where she lost her job when the textile mill closed and doesn't possess the skills for another industry, resulting in her being unemployed for over a year, is an example of structural unemployment. Structural unemployment is due to the mismatch of skills between unemployed individuals and those needed for available jobs.

The example of structural unemployment in the options provided is: A. Dora lost her job when the textile mill closed. She does not have skills to work in another industry and has been unemployed for over a year.

Structural unemployment occurs when a labor market is unable to provide jobs for everyone who wants one because there is a mismatch between the skills of the unemployed and the skills needed for the available jobs. In Dora's case, the industry she was employed in closed down, and she does not possess the skills necessary to secure another job in a different industry. This leads to a long term unemployment scenario because she can't transfer her skills to another industry or job. This is a classic example of structural unemployment.

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Answer:

B) Climate of trust

Explanation:

The problem seems to be Climate of trust. This fundamental factor allows teams to perform better than the sum of the performance of each of its members. Through an environment of trust, each member is supported and coached by other team members making individual improvements and increasing synergies within the team. A climate of trust is not exempt from criticism, but this criticism is understood as a helping tool rather than an instrument of personal harm. Finally, a climate of trust allows that errors and mistakes become a useful source of learning.

Answer:

Gross profit would be $86.000

Explanation:

Gross Margin income statement  

Sales $ 190.000

Sales Discount -$ 5.000

Sales Return &  Allowances -$ 6.000

Cost of Goods -$ 93.000

Gross Profit $ 86.000

Gross Profit does not take operating expenses into account.

Answer:

EBITDA Multiple = 3,067

Explanation:

The EBITDA multiple is a financial ratio that compares a company’s Enterprise Value to its annual EBITDA. This multiple is used to determine the value of a company and compare it to the value of other, similar businesses. The ratio takes a company’s enterprise value (which represents market capitalization plus net debt) and compares it to the Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation, and Amortization (EBITDA) for a given period.

Formula:

EBITDA Multiple = Enterprise Value / EBITDA

To Determine the Enterprise Value and EBITDA:

Enterprise Value = (market capitalization + value of debt + minority interest + preferred shares) – (cash and cash equivalents)

EBITDA = Earnings Before Tax + Interest + Depreciation + Amortization

In this exercise:

Enterprise Value= market value + value of debt - cash= 635000+ 215000 - 39000=$811000

Ebitda= ebit + depreciation and amortization = 96400+168000= $264400

EBITDA Multiple = Enterprise Value / EBITDA=811000/264400=3,067

Answer:

10,970,000 x 21% = 2,303,700‬ income tax expense

10,755,000 x 21% = 2,258,55‬0 income tax payable

Explanation:

permanent difference:

sale of fixed asset          (117,000-73,500)       43,000

tax-exempt life insurance proceeds.            (258,000)

total                                                                  (215,000)

temporary difference ( which generates tax liability or benefit )

 170,000 bad debt expense

(300,000) higher tax depreciation

 (130,000) deferred tax liability

The taxable income will be for

10,840,000

-   215,000 permanent difference

+    130,000   temporary difference

10,755,000

Then, we apply the 21% corporate tax rate which is the income tax rate for 2019

10,755,000 x 21% = 2,258,55‬0 income tax payable

The accounting income tax expense will be calculate based on the temporary difference only:

10,840,000 + 130,000 = 10,970,000 x 21% = 2,303,700‬ income tax expense