Answer: The probability that 3 have a blood type of O+, 2 have A+, 3 have B+, 2 have AB+, 1 has O-, 2 have A-, 1 has B-, and 1 has AB- is 0.0011%
Explanation: For calculate the probability, we have to use multinomial distribution:
P=n![tex]\frac{n!}{n1!n2!n3!..nk!} (p1n^{1} p2n^{2}p3n^{3}..pkn^{k})[/tex]
n: number of trials, p: probability for each possible outcome, k: number of possible outcomes.
The probability of each blood type are:
P1(0+)=0.30P2(A+)=0.33P3(B+)=0.12P4(AB+)=0.06P5(0-)=0.07P6(A-)=0.08P7(B-)=0.03P8(AB-)=0.01If 15 Austrian citizens are chosen at random, there are 15 trials. n=15
for n1=3 because 3 P(0+)
for n2=2 because 2 P(A+)
for n3=3 because 3 P(B+)
for n4=2 because 2 P(AB+)
for n5=1 because 1 P(0-)
for n6=2 because 2 P(A-)
for n7=1 because 1 P(B-)
for n8=1 because 1 P(AB-)
k=8 (because there are 8 possibilities)
[tex]P=\frac{15!}{3!2!3!2!1!2!1!1} (0.30^{3}0.33^{2}0.12^{3}0.06^{2}0.07^{1}0.08^{2}0.03^{1}0.01^{1})[/tex]
P=0.000011
Px100=0.0011
A 78-year-old client is in the emergency department following a motor-vehicle collision. Radiographs indicate a fractured humerus; the client is awaiting the casting of her upper extremity and admission to the orthopedic unit. Other than her bone, what other physical structures could be affected by this injury?a) All options are correctb) Nervesc) Blood vesselsd) Muscles
Answer:
a
Explanation:
We aren't told how bad the fracture is so it could be affecting nerves, blood vessels or muscles
Jonathan is disappointed when he enters his doctor's office and sees how crowded it is. He has to stand and is dreading the wait until he is called in for the appointment but he needs to see the doctor so he cannot leave. Which perceptual characteristic of the environment is Jonathan experience?
a. formality
b. warmth
c. privacy
d. distance
e. constraint
The perceptual characteristic of the environment that Jonathan is experiencing is: E. constraint.
What is a perceptual characteristic?A perceptual characteristic is also referred to as perceptual feature and it can be defined as the properties of an object or environment as they are being represented by a visual system. Also, perceptual characteristic are typically a central construct of an individual's perception.
Some examples of the perceptual characteristic of an environment include the following:
WarmthPrivacyDistanceConstraintIn this scenario, the perceptual characteristic of the environment that is being experienced by Jonathan is constraint because he had to stand until he is called in for the appointment.
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A nurse working in the intensive care unit (ICU) refers to the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle prior to planning patient care. The nurse realizes nursing interventions outlined in the bundle will improve patients’ outcomes. Which of the following statement best describes how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle?
a) Nursing interventions found within the IHI bundles were selected based on the ability to provide optimal time management for the nurse
b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles
c) Nurse case managers serving as patient advocates recommended nursing interventions to be included in the IHI bundles based on patient preference
d) Hospitals, physicians, and nurses worked collaboratively to design patient care activities included in IHI bundles
Answer: b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles.
Explanation:
A bundle is a orderly way used for improving the process of care and obtaining the patient response. It is a small, straightforward based on evidence are the practices generally 3 to 5 that, if performed reliable and collectively, can improve patient health outcomes. Hospitals, nurses and physicians work collaboratively by bundles.
IHI-established nursing interventions in the bundles are based on best practices from research, aimed at improving patient outcomes by reducing infections and enhancing patient care.
Explanation:The best description of how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle is that best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guide the inclusion of nursing interventions in the IHI bundles. The Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI) Ventilator Bundle is a set of evidence-based practices that, when implemented together, significantly improve patient outcomes. Interventions included in the bundles are chosen based on research evidence showing that they reduce infections, improve patient care, and ultimately, patients' health outcomes.
While collaborative work between hospitals, physicians, and nurses is essential in designing patient care activities, and while nurse case managers do serve as patient advocates, the core criteria for the inclusion of interventions in IHI bundles revolve around evidence-based practice rather than time management or stakeholder preference alone.
During a well child exam on a 4-year old child, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes that the clinic nurse recorded "20/50" for the child’s vision and noted that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam. What will the nurse practitioner recommend? a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months. b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist. c) Retest the child in 1 year. d) Test the child’s vision in 1 month.
Answer:
Test the child's vision in 1 month.
Explanation:
Eyes is one of the most important sense organ of the body that helps the organism to visualize the things. The vision of the organism may change due to the weakening of ciliary muscle or any other medical conditions.
The nurse has noticed that child has 20/50" for the child’s vision and feels difficulty in exam. The nurse should provide treatment to the child. Proper spectacles and diet should be accessed to child to improve his vision. She again attend the child after one month and must check the child's vision in one month.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
"The correct option is b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist.
When a child's vision is recorded as ""20/50,"" it indicates that the child can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. This suggests that the child has reduced visual acuity compared to the norm for their age. The fact that the child had difficulty cooperating with the exam could have contributed to the less accurate measurement, but it does not negate the need for further evaluation. Given the child's age and the concerning finding of reduced visual acuity, it is important to address this issue promptly. Early detection and treatment of vision problems in children are crucial for preventing long-term visual impairment and ensuring normal visual development. Here's the rationale for the recommended action: a) Follow up with a visual acuity screen in 6 months: This option may not be appropriate because a delay of 6 months could be detrimental if the child has a vision problem that requires intervention. b) Refer to a pediatric ophthalmologist: This is the most appropriate action because a pediatric ophthalmologist specializes in diagnosing and treating visual disorders in children. They have the expertise to perform a comprehensive eye exam, which is necessary to accurately assess the child's vision and identify any potential issues that could be affecting their visual development. c) Retest the child in 1 year: This option allows too much time to pass before addressing a potential vision problem. Delaying the evaluation could miss a critical period for effective treatment.
Angela can't sleep at night before making several trips through the house to repeatedly check all the door and window locks. This behavior is causing her to lose sleep and feel stressed. This example best describes __________.
Answer:
The best answer to fill in the blank here would be an anxiety disorder, best known as obsessive compulsive disorder.
Explanation:
Anxiety disorders, especially as acute and serious as obsessive compulsive disorder, can cause a person to lose any hopes of sleeping well. In turn the lack of sleep will also increase anxiety and can cause the appearance of compulsive actions, like the ones Angela is displaying. Due to anxiety, Angela cannot rest until she has taken several trips to check on all the locks. This action is typical of the obsessive compulsive disorder, and they display that Angela has a severe case of anxiety that triggers her obsession with the locks, and motivates the compulsive action of going back and forth to check, to the detriment of her resting and sleeping hours. All of this is characteristic of OCD.
Which of the following recommendations has been shown to improve blood lipid levels and reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease?
a) maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy
b) increasing saturated fat to at least 10% of total energy
c) decreasing intake of dietary omega-3 fatty acids from cold-water fish, nuts, and canola oil
d) consuming the UL for vitamin B6, B12, and folate from supplements
Answer:
Maintaining fat intake to within 20-35% of total energy
Explanation:
Making even small lifestyle changes can reduce the risk of cardiovascular ... Coronary artery disease (narrowing of the arteries supplying blood to the ... If you already have cardiovascular disease, you can follow these guidelines to ... increase in the risk for cardiovascular disease when total cholesterol levels
Increasing age.
Cardiovascular disease is more likely to occur as you get older. About 85 percent of people who die of coronary artery disease are age 65 or older.
Male gender.
Men have a greater risk of heart attack than women.
Menopause. After menopause, a woman’s risk of cardiovascular disease increases.
Family history.
Your risk of cardiovascular disease increases if your parents, brothers, sisters, or children have the disease, especially if male relatives were less than age 55 when diagnosed, or female relatives were less than age 65 when diagnosed.
Race.
The risk of cardiovascular disease is higher in African Americans, Mexican Americans, American Indians, native Hawaiians, and some Asian Americans. This increased risk is partly due to higher rates of high blood pressure, obesity, and diabetes in these populations.
To determine her blood pressureblood pressure, KeriKeri divides up her day into three parts: morning, afternoon, and evening. She then measures her blood pressureblood pressure at 22 randomly selected times during each part of the day.
What type of sampling is used?
A. Systematic
B. Simple random
C. Convenience
D. Stratified
E. Cluster
Answer: D. Stratified
Explanation:
In the case of stratified sampling the samples are divided into parts or groups and then samples for study are randomly chosen from these groups or parts. Here Kerikeri has divided up her day into three parts and she selects the blood pressure randomly from these parts. This is the example of stratified sampling.
Recognizing individual differences is especially important to psychologists interested in variations in an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is referred to as ____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - personality.
Explanation:
Personality is set of various characteristic or trait of feelings, behavior, and cognitions that developed from genetic and environmental components of an individual.
There is no proper definition for the personality due to difference in personalities of individual to individual which interests the psychologists.
Thus, the correct answer is - personality.
The question is asking about 'personality', which is a term used in psychology to define an individual's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Personality psychology, a branch of psychology, specifically focuses on these individual differences and patterns which are essential in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.
Explanation:Recognizing individual differences is significant for psychologists who are particularly interested in the variations in someone's characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. This is known as one's personality. Personality psychology is an area of psychology that focuses on these patterns of thoughts and behaviors that make each person unique.
This area of study includes examining different aspects such as inborn, genetically based differences, characteristic ways of behaviour, and personality traits like extroversion or introversion. The understanding of personality and its development has evolved from a variety of perspectives, such as Freud's psychosexual theory, to David Buss's studies considering the evolutionary viewpoint of these characteristics.
A component to be understood in personality psychology is the individual personality traits that are consistent and enduring, which makes each individual truly unique. Bearing this in mind, it is also important to remember that appreciating these individual differences and variations is crucial in understanding the social relationships and interactions of individuals.
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Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have
A) bipolar disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder
Answer:
The correct option is: B. Borderline Personality Disorder
Explanation:
Borderline Personality Disorder is a chronic mental disorder characterized by impulsiveness, disturbed sense of self, unstable emotions and relationships.
Symptoms of borderline personality disorder can be easily triggered by normal actions, events, social and environmental factors.
Other common symptoms of this disorder include insecurity, depersonalization, detachment from reality, feelings of emptiness and worthlessness, self-harm and anxiety.
Therefore, Kevin's behavior in the given example indicates that he may have borderline personality disorder.
78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
Answer:
A Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
From the list below, select all of the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits. anorexia nervosa bulimia cancer diabetes emphysema cardiovascular disease
Answer:
The Last Three Options
Explanation:
The diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.
What is anorexia nervosa?Anorexia nervosa, also known as just "anorexia," would be an eating condition that makes sufferers obsessive about food as well as weight.
What is eating habits?A balanced diet that limits salt, sugar, saturated fats, as well as trans fats from industrial production is crucial for good health.
Therefore, the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.
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When the preoperative client tells the nurse that he cannot sleep because he keeps thinking about the surgery, an appropriate reflection of the statement by the nurse is:A. "Sounds as if your surgery is a pretty scary procedure." B. "You have a great surgeon. You have nothing to worry about."C. "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."D. "You shouldn't be nervous. We perform this procedure every day."
Answer: An appropriate reflection of the nurse to the patient is "The thought of having surgery is keeping you awake."
Explanation:
The nurse will validate what the patient is thinking and not cross any boundaries. The nurse should never tell a patient that the surgery sounds scary, as this will cause more stress to the patient. The nurse should never say that the patient should not be nervous since he has every right to be nervous and this can make the patient feel inferior or silly. Lastly, the nurse should not make statements about how the great the surgeon is and there is nothing to worry about. The patient should have the nurse there to listen to them and validate that she understands he is not sleeping because of the thought of surgery.
In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?
Answer:
Type II alveolar cells.
Explanation:
Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) may be defined as the medical condition in which the amount of lung surfactant is reduced. This disease is also known as hyaline membrane disease.
The main function of the type II alveolar cells is the secretion of the surfactant. The deficiency of surfactant causes the alveoli membrane cling to each other and causes difficulty in inflation. Hence, type II alveolar cells are not fully developed and doing their job.
Thus, the correct answer is Type II alveolar cells.
"A client suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being scheduled for testing. The client asks which of the tests ordered will determine if the client is positive for the disorder. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?"
Answer:
the blood test
Explanation:
The systemic lupus erythematosus, is a sickness that is quite difficult to detect, is a mixture of the observations by the doctor, the inconvenience mention by the client and the blood analysis because there need to be a depletion in leukocytes, lymphocytes and platelets. Also the client need to present purple color in feet and hands, some fever, muscular pain, among other symptoms.
Gabe's roommate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, he needs to awaken him so that they both can get to a party on time. He is sleep talking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his roommate wakes up. He was in what stage of sleep?
A) NREM-1 sleep
B) NREM-2 sleep
C) NREM-3 sleep
D) REM sleep
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
The stages of sleep are divided in REM and NREM, also the NREM stages are divided in 1, 2, 3 and 4.
In stages NREM 3 and 4 occurs the deeper sleep and the person is less likely to be awaken during these stages.
In stages 1 and 2 occur the lighter sleep.
In REM stage the person is in a state very similar to the awake state and therefore is more likely to be awaken in this stage. Also, in the REM stage occur dreams.
A nurse is teaching a class on X-linked recessive disorders. Which of the following statements would the nurse most likely include?A) Males are typically carriers of the disorders.B) No male-to-male transmission occurs.C) Daughters are more commonly affected withthe disorder.D) Both sons and daughters have a 50% risk ofthe disorder.
Answer:
B) No male-to-male transmission occurs
Explanation:
X-linked recessive disorder are passed via X chromosomes. A female with two recessive alleles will have the disorder while a female with one recessive allele will be a carrier. Since a male has only one X chromosome, having a single copy of the recessive allele is enough to make him affected. Hence, males can not be carrier of these disorders, they will either be affected or unaffected.
Sons are also more commonly affected by this disorder since they require only one recessive allele to express it. Since males pass on Y chromosome to sons and not X chromosome, male to male transmission of the disorder is not possible.
A nurse teaching about X-linked recessive disorders would indicate that no male-to-male transmission occurs, as males cannot be carriers. While sons have a 50% chance of being affected, daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers, not of being affected.
Explanation:When teaching a class on X-linked recessive disorders, a nurse would most likely include the statement that no male-to-male transmission of the disorder occurs. This is due to the fact that males have only one X chromosome and any gene mutation on it will express the disorder rather than the individual becoming a carrier. Specific characteristics of X-linked recessive disorders include:
Females can be carriers of the disease and have a 50% chance of passing the gene to their offspring. However, they will typically not display symptoms of the disorder since they have two X chromosomes and the normal one will compensate for the defect.Males who inherit the mutated gene will be affected by the disorder because they have only one X chromosome and no backup copy to offset the mutation.Daughters of a carrier mother and an unaffected father have a 50% chance of being carriers themselves. They will not be affected unless they receive a recessive gene from both parents.Sons of a carrier mother have a 50% chance of being affected as they receive only one X chromosome from their mother.Therefore, the accurate statement among the options given would be 'B) No male-to-male transmission occurs.' Since males cannot be carriers, they cannot pass on a carrier status. Similarly, as the daughters can be carriers, the risk of them being affected is not the same as for sons.
Behavioral science includes anthropology, microbiology, and psychology. True False
Answer:
True it includes those because they check how u behave and act
the answer would be true i had a test with the same question.
Mrs. Worden has an unusual fear of buttons. Every time she spots a loose button on the floor of her laundry room, she becomes extremely anxious and feels sick. In order to minimize her discomfort, Mrs. Worden only wears clothes that are button-free. If she sought help for her problem, what would Mrs. Worden's diagnosis probably be?
Answer:
Specific phobia
Explanation:
Formerly called simple phobia, specific phobia is persistent and recurrent fear of a particular object or circumstance that triggers a strong anxiety reaction whenever presented to the phobic patient, Similar to what Mrs Worden feels about buttons.
Phobias, in general, are characterized by the absence of reason to arouse the verified fear, or for being the exaggerated fear before the phobic object. People with specific phobia do not have a history of trauma, injury or threat from exposure to the most common objects of specific phobia. If this happened, it would be necessary to differentiate specific phobia from post-traumatic stress. Most of the time people with a specific phobia are not affected in their routine because the phobic object is not part of it. When it is part, treatment is indicated.
A pharmaceutical company conducts an experiment in which a subject takes 100 mg of a substance orally. The researchers measure how many hours it takes for one quarter of the substance to exit the bloodstream. What kind of variable is the company studying?
The pharmaceutical company is studying the response time of the substance exiting the bloodstream, which is a dependent variable. It depends on the amount of substance ingested.
Explanation:In the context of the pharmaceutical company's experiment, the variable being studied is the response time for a quarter of the substance to exit the bloodstream after being ingested. This response time is a dependent variable, as its value depends on the amount of substance ingested (the independent variable). These types of variables are relevant in experimental studies, where researchers actively manipulate one variable (independent) to observe its effects on another (dependent).
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which of these should always be included in a personal health plan for fitness? select the two correct answers
A. Goals
B. measurements
C. weight loss
D.pain
Answer:
A, B
Explanation:
After teaching a class about agents commonly associated with the development of malignant hyperthermia, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which drug as a possible cause?
Answer:
Morphine
Explanation:
Malignant hyperthermia is a syndrome that manifests during general anesthesia, however morphine is not associated with malignant hyperthermia. Among the main characteristics are the rise in body temperature, hence the name, accompanied by the exhalation of carbon dioxide, muscle stiffness and increased heart rate.
Symptoms may also occur post-anesthetically, which is rarer. Usually, the suspicion of malignant hyperthermia occurs when the person under anesthesia is under adequate mechanical ventilation and yet has increased carbon dioxide and tachycardia. The clinical picture is considered serious, since there is the possibility of evolution to an irreversible shock, which may even lead to death (hence the malignant term) if not diagnosed and, if necessary, taken the appropriate measures.
Answer:
the drugs can be any of the following-potent volatile anesthetic gases such as halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane and the depolarizing muscle relaxant succinylcholine
Explanation:
The incidence of MH episodes during anesthesia is between 1:5,000 and 1:50,000–100,000 anesthesias. Even though a MH crisis may develop at first exposure to anesthesia with those agents known to trigger an MH episode, on average, patients require three anesthesias before triggering. Reactions develop more frequently in males than females (2:1). All ethnic groups are affected, in all parts of the world. The highest incidence is in young people, with a mean age of all reactions of 18.3 years. It has been found that children under 15 years age comprised 52.1% of all reactions. Although described in the newborn, the earliest reaction confirmed by testing is six months of age [2]. The oldest is 78 years.
Genetically, MH is an autosomal dominant condition; the estimated prevalence of the genetic abnormalities may be as great as one in 3,000 individuals (range 1:3,000 to 1:8,500).
Numerous factors could be involved in triggering MH – age, type of anesthetic, environmental temperature, mitigating drugs administered simultaneously, and degree of stress [3]. Mauritz et al. [4] found an incidence of 1:37,500 in patients who had been diagnostically tested, which was similar to the incidence estimated by Robinson et al. (1:30,000) [5], although wide variability has been reported. A recent report suggested that the MH susceptible (MHS) trait may be present in 1:2,000–3,000 of the French population [6]. Bachand and colleagues examined the incidence of MH in Quebec, Canada, where many families had been biopsied [7]. They traced the pedigrees of the patients to the original immigrants from France and found an incidence of MH susceptibility of 0.2% in this province. However, that represented only five extended families.
Choose the best answer: A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of ________________. biopsychosis behavioral modification environmental effect epigenetics
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various geneticists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of Epigenetics. This term refers to the study of changes that occur to an unborn human that does not involve alterations in the DNA sequence. High fat foods affect the baby's health development but since it does not alter the DNA sequence we can say that this is the term being described.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
Epigenetics
Explanation:
A pregnant mother eats high fat foods, which then influences her child's behavior for life time is an example of epigenetics.
Dr. Leung gives all of her clients a short questionnaire that asks questions about sleeping and eating habits, daily activities, and emotional states. Based on this information, Dr. Leung is able to assess whether depressive symptoms are present in each client. Dr. Leung is making use of __________ to assess psychopathology.
Answer:
Psychology testing.
Explanation:
Psychology testing was used to determine the behavior of an individual. This test is used to construct and determines the ability of an individual to cope up with the given tasks.
The psychological testing asks the individual questions related to eating, emotional activity and sleeping habits. The doctors can diagnose the psychological condition of the patient and its depression state by the psychology testing. Hence, Dr. Leung is doing psychological testing with his patient.
Thus, the correct answer is psychology testing.
A nurse working for a home health agency is scheduled to evaluate a client with worsening heart failure to determine whether the client is a candidate for the new "Hospital at Home" program. Which statement accurately reflects an outcome for this program?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which statement accurately reflects an outcome for this program, when talking about a nurse who is visiting a patient with worsening heart failure, and who might be a candidate for the "Hospital at Home" program, would be: "Patients who are treated and cared for at home, and who are exposed to the influence of their loved ones, and friends, recover faster, and have a better outcome, are happier, than those who remain in the hospital. Therefore, the "Hospital at Home" program, is a great opportunity for patients like the one in this case."
Explanation:
It has been constantly proven that the best environment for patients, especially certain types like this one, is their own, and that is their own home, where their family and friends are. The impact of familiar surroundings, and the influence of family members, loved ones, and friends, on the health conditions of patients, has proven that programs like this one will improve quality of life, and health outcomes.
Aaron has started working for a new firm. There are thirty people on his floor. He is having problems remembering their names. Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Which should Aaron do to improve his ability to recall names, would be: to repeat the names of the people he meets at least twice, as he speaks to them, as repetition, and drilling, enhances short-term memory and motivates long-term memorization.
Explanation:
Short term memory is passive, meaning, the brain will only retain what it immediately needs, and discard, or store, those things that are not immediately necessary, to meet the demands at the moment. Because of this, people tend to forget certain things like names, especially if there are many, and, like Aaron, are having problems with memory on this ocassion. In order for his short-term memory to engage, and his long-term memory to come into the picture, one strategy is drilling and repetition. By saying the names of the people while talking to them, at least twice, Aaron is not just repeating, but also associating, which will help with long-term memory and also motivate short-term memorization.
When should clients, who don’t require PPIs or H2 inhibitors, take their antacids?
a) Routinely before meals
b) Routinely after meals
c) Whenever heartburn occurs (prn) Q.I.D.
d)At bedtime only
Answer:
c) Whenever heartburn occurs (prn) Q.I.D.
Explanation:
Antacids are OTC drugs (no prescription needed) used to treat heartburn. They are usually salts (aluminium, calcium or magnesium) that neutralize the excess of acid in the stomach.Examples of antacids are: Pepto Bismol (P&G), Maalox (SANOFI) and Tums (GSK)There are other types of medications that control heartburn, but they do it through a different mechanism: instead of neutralizing the excess of acid, they inhibit the production of acid in the stomach. These are: PPIs (Proton Pump Inhibitors) and H2 inhibitors/blockers. These medications have important side effects and interactions, which is why they shouldn't be taken instead of an antacid to relief sporadic heartburn symptoms.Ranitidine (Zantac, by SANOFI) is an example of an H2 inhibitor, and Pantoprazole (Protonix, by Pfizer) is an example of a PPI.People who present heartburn only from time to time and have no underlying reflux disease are not prescribed PPIs or H2 inhibitors. It is advised that they take antacids after meals when heartburn occurs, but not in a routinely manner and not for more than 2 weeks. If symptoms persist or worsen, clients should see a doctor.Diet and lifestyle changes are also recommended for people who present heartburn; these include: avoiding foods that trigger it such as fried and spicy food & carbonated beverages, eating smaller meals, maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding smoking, and avoiding lying down after eating.Corey was in an automobile accident that resulted in an injury to her brain. She now has difficulty with her hearing and her memory. The part of her brain most likely injured was her ________.
a. parietal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. frontal lobe
d. auditory lobe
e. temporal lobe.
Answer:
The correct option is: e. temporal lobe
Explanation:
The temporal lobe of the human brain is responsible for processing auditory and visual sensory information and retention of the visual memory, emotional associations and language recognition.
It is responsible for explicit long-term memory of an individual which can be divided into episodic memory, related to events and the semantic memory, related to facts.
Final answer:
Corey's difficulties with hearing and memory suggest that her temporal lobe is the part of the brain that was injured in the automobile accident.
Explanation:
The part of Corey's brain that was most likely injured in the accident is the temporal lobe. This region of the cerebral cortex is associated with hearing, memory, emotion, and some aspects of language. It contains the primary auditory cortex, which is responsible for processing auditory information. Since Corey is experiencing difficulty with hearing and memory, it is the temporal lobe that is implicated because it plays a crucial role in auditory processing as well as housing structures like the hippocampus, which is vital for memory formation.
An independent-measures research study uses a total of 18 participants to compare two treatment conditions. If the results are used to construct a 90% confidence interval for the population mean difference, then the t values will be ±1.746
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Dr. Baker designed an experimental study to assess potential differences between science students and art students on a math reasoning abilities test. Dr. Baker found a mean difference in math performance between science and art students. On average, art students performed higher on the math reasoning test compared to the science students. Dr. Baker's findings support which hypothesis?
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Dr. Baker´s findings support which hypothesis, would be: a research hypothesis.
Explanation:
Dr. Baker sets out an experiment in which he wants to measure the differences between art students and math students regarding their reasoning abilities when taking a math reasoning abilities test. Most likely Dr. Baker hypothesizes that math students would rank higher than art students given that creative minds tend to be less stringent in logical thinking patterns, than scientific, or mathematical minds. However, the results he finds are totally different to his expectations and he finds out that his probable hypothesis is not correct. Due to the fact that the study type included experimentation, the selection of sample groups to test, and the implementation of an actual experimenting tool (the test), this study done by Dr. Baker is an experimental research study and it requires a research hypothesis.
A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?a. insist the client begin an exercise program for her own goodb. compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to beginc. describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercised. provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise
Answer:
Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
Explanation:
Whenever we are going to start something we should be informed about all the benefits and risks we may take with the new activity. This is no different when we decide to start an exercise program. We must consume all sorts of information to understand the advantages of exercise, the duration, the risks, the intensity, and everything about what we start. For this reason, we can conclude that the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help a client progress in the staging preparation section of the exercise change model is to provide the client with easy-to-read educational materials about the benefits of exercise.