In humans, a dimple in the chin is a dominant characteristic. a. A man who does not have a chin dimple has children with a woman with a chin dimple whose mother lacked the dimple. What proportion of their children would be expected to have a chin dimple? b. A man with a chin dimple and a woman who lacks the dimple produce a child who lacks a dimple. What is the man's genotype? c. A man with a chin dimple and a non-dimpled woman produce eight children, all having the chin dimple. Can you be certain of the man's genotype? Why or why not? What genotype is more likely, and why?
Answers
A.
Answer:
Let's assign the dominant allele for dimples as - D - and the recessive as – d.
Based on the description, the woman must be heterozygous (Dd) for the dimple allele while the man is homozygous recessive (dd).
For the woman, her mother never had dimples meaning she was homozygous recessive (dd). This means the woman got a dominant allele from his father’s side and one recessive from the mother.
The man and the woman will, therefore, have the chances of bearing offspring as shown in the punnet square below;
50% will have dimples while 50% will not.
B.
Answer:
The same as above (and punnet square attached) because there is merely a switch of genotypes between the sexes as per the description.
C.
Answer:
Yes because in such case, the man is homozygous dominant (DD) for dimple allele. This way all offspring will be heterozygous dominant meaning they'll all have dimples. See the next punnet square (attached)
Dimple in chin is a dominant trait controlled by genes. The children produced by mixed genotypes parents have certain percentages for expressing either trait typically. However, probability may not always translate into real world results due to luck.
Explanation:In genetics, traits like a chin dimple are controlled by genes. The term genotype refers to the genes of an individual that determine traits. The dominant trait (like a chin dimple in this case) can be denoted by 'B', while the recessive trait (like a smooth chin) is denoted by 'b'. Dominant traits only require one gene (either from the father or mother) to be expressed, while recessive traits require both parent genes to be expressed.
(a) A woman with a chin dimple (B) paired with a man without a chin dimple (b) would result in children who have a 50% chance of having a dimple (Bb), given that the woman would be carrying the recessive trait from her mother.
(b) If a man with a chin dimple (B) and a woman without one (b) produce a child without a chin dimple, it means that the man must have been heterozygous for the trait (Bb), otherwise all the children would have had chin dimples.
(c) If a man with a chin dimple and a woman without one produce all children with chin dimples, the man's genotype is most likely BB. This is because, if it were Bb, there would have been a 25% chance at least one child being without a chin dimple (bb), but if all children have chin dimples, it's more likely that the man is BB.
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Related Questions
Are disaccharide polymers?
Answers
Answer:
Yes they are polymers of monosaccharides.
Explanation:
Disaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides, which are simple sugar molecules such as glucose. Monosaccharides, monomers, are linked by glycosidic bonds to make disaccharides.
Example; the linkage of glucose and fructose to make sucrose.
Parts of some plants and animals grow according to the Fibonacci sequence of numbers developed by an Italian mathematician in which each number is the sum of the previous two numbers. The shell of the chambered nautilus the seeds in a sunflower and pineapples all exhibit a structure called the ""Fibonacci spiral""
Answers
Answer:
C Patterns
Explanation:
got 100 on quiz
The shell of the chambered nautilus the seeds in a sunflower and pineapples all exhibit a structure called the "Fibonacci spiral". This phenomenon represents the pattern phenomena by cross-cutting.
What is the Fibonacci spiral?A series of numbers in which every number is the sum of the two its previous numbers Fibonacci spiral. It starts at 0 and 1, the sequence: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, and goes on forever. Xn+2= Xn+1 + Xn is the mathematical equation that is used to describe or represent the Fibonacci sequence.
Several people have claimed that there are many special properties of this numerical sequence. They say that it is “nature’s secret code” for the construction of perfect structures. Some examples given are the Great Pyramid at Giza and the iconic shape of the seashell that is used as the cover of most mathematical textbooks. But most of these assumptions are incorrect.
Therefore, this is a pattern phenomenon represented by cross-cutting.
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What are the common promoter elements found in eukaryotic genes, and how are they different from enhancer elements?
Answers
Answer:
In eukaryotic cells you find core and proximal promoters.
Promotors are specific DNA sequences where transcription factors (proteins) and RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription. Promotors are located upstream the coding sequence
Core promoters are where RNA polymersae binds and proximal promoters are where transcription factors bind.
Enhancer elements are DNA sequences where transcription factors (proteins) bind to increase the rate of expresion of an specific gene. Enhancers can be located either upstream, downstream or thousands of nucleotids away from the of the coding region.
Explanation:
Promoters and enhancer are key elements for controling gene regulation. Transcription begins when chromatin rearranges from a condensed state to a accesible state, this allow to transcrition factors and RNA polymerase to bind specif DNA sequences (promotors). Proteins bind to enhancers , this complex develops a DNA loop, so that the protein that is bound to the enhancer interacts with the RNA polymersase. When this interaction is made, the activity of the RNA polymerase is increased.
The two primary functions of the ears are balance and hearing.
a. True
b. False
Answers
Answer: True
Explanation:
The ear is a organ found in the body of mammals and other animals that helps in hearing.
The ear consists of outer part and inner part. The outer part of the ear converges the sound waves and the transfers to the ear canal.
The sound is then amplified inside the ear and we hear sound. There is a fluid which is found inside the inner ear contains a fluid that helps in balancing of the body.
Cell A has half as much DNA as cells B, C, and D in a mitotically active tissue. Cell A is most likely in
(A) G1.
(B) G2.
(C) prophase.
(D) metaphase.
Answers
In the cell cycle, G1 is the phase when the cell has the least amount of DNA. This DNA is duplicated during S phase, meaning the cell has twice as much DNA in the G2 phase. So, if Cell A has half as much DNA as cells B, C, and D, then Cell A is likely in the G1 phase.
Explanation:In the cell cycle, the amount of DNA a cell has can help determine which phase it is in. The cell cycle consists of interphase (G1, S, and G2 phases), and the mitotic phase (including prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase). During the G1 phase of the cell cycle, a cell has the least amount of DNA because it hasn't duplicated its DNA yet. DNA replication occurs during the S phase, so by the G2 phase, the cell has twice as much DNA as it did in G1. Thus, if Cell A has half as much DNA as cells B, C, and D in a mitotically active tissue, Cell A is most likely in the G1 phase.
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Cell A is most likely in the G1 phase of the cell cycle, a stage prior to DNA synthesis, as it has half the amount of DNA than cells B, C, and D, which presumably already completed the S phase (DNA replication).
Explanation:Cell A is most likely in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. The G1 phase is a period in the cell cycle during interphase, before DNA synthesis (S phase). In G1 phase, the cell synthesizes mRNA and proteins in preparation for subsequent steps leading to mitosis. At this stage, it has half as much DNA as it will have after it completes the S phase. Therefore, cells B, C, and D, each having twice as much DNA, are probably in the G2 phase, metaphase, or any phase after DNA replication (S phase) happened, during which the amount of DNA in the cell has already been doubled.
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Most amino acids are coded for by a set of similar codons (see Figure 17.6). Propose at least one
evolutionary explanation to account for this pattern
Answers
The pattern of multiple codons encoding single amino acids could be an evolutionary protection mechanism against harmful mutations, providing a level of robustness and adaptability to organisms.
Explanation:Most amino acids are indeed coded for by a set of similar codons. This redundancy in the genetic code, often referred to as degeneracy, can be explained from an evolutionary perspective. One possible explanation for this pattern could be that it provides a level of protection against harmful mutations. If a mutation occurs at the third position of a codon, it's often less likely to result in an amino acid change, which might provide an advantageous buffer against potentially harmful mutations. These synonymous mutations, or silent mutations, won't fundamentally change the resulting protein. Such a system would have been favored by natural selection, providing a level of robustness and adaptability to living organisms.
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Within a cell, the amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule depends partly on
a. the degree of DNA methylation.
b. the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
c. the number of introns present in the mRNA.
d. the types of ribosomes present in the cytoplasm.
Answers
Answer:
b. the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
Explanation:
DNA is transcribed into mRNA which then joins ribosomes present in the cytoplasm to serve as a template for protein synthesis. Regulation of gene expression occurs at several levels.
One such regulatory mechanism is the stability of mRNA and the rate of its degradation which in turn affects the availability of template for the process of protein synthesis and thereby keeps a check on the total amount of protein being formed in a cell.
For example, a very short life span of bacterial mRNA (few minutes) allows them to regulate the pattern of protein synthesis quickly in response to the changes in surroundings.
The amount of protein synthesized from an mRNA molecule is influenced by the rate of mRNA degradation, which affects its stability and the duration of its presence in the cytoplasm for translation.
b is correct
Explanation:The amount of protein made using a given mRNA molecule within a cell depends on several factors, one of which is the rate at which the mRNA is degraded. mRNA carries the genetic message from the DNA during the process known as transcription, and it dictates the synthesis of proteins through translation in conjunction with ribosomes and other cellular machinery.
The mRNA is short-lived, and its stability in the cytoplasm is crucial as it influences the amount of time available for translation. A longer mRNA lifespan allows for more protein production. Thus, the correct answer to the student's question is option b. the rate at which the mRNA is degraded.
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Which end of a new mRNA transcript gets a cap during processing in the nucleus?
a. the top
b. the bottom
c. the 3' end
d. the 5' end
Answers
Answer:
d. the 5' end
Explanation:
Capping is a co-transcriptional modification made to RNA in the nucleus after the first 25–30 nts are incorporated into the nascent transcript, which is synthetized in the 5' ---> 3' direction.
The cap consists of a methylated guanosine nucleotide added to the 5' end of the new mRNA transcript, and is important for several processes, which include:
Protection of the mRNA from the attack of phosphatases and nucleases.Splicing of mRNA in the nucleus.Nuclear export of the mRNA to the cytoplasm.Cap-dependent protein synthesis.How many different DNA strands composed of 100 nucleotides could possibly exist?
Answers
Answer: There are 4¹⁰⁰ possible strands, approximately 1.61x10⁶⁰
Explanation:
This is a combinatorics problem. Each nucleotide has the possibility of being one of the four common nucleotides, adenine (A), guanine (G), thymine (T) and cytosine (C).
If the strand would be 1 nucleotide long, the possibilities would be 4, one for each possible nucleotide. If the strand would be 2 nucleotides long, for each nucleotide on the first position there would be four possible nucleotides on the second position, giving 4x4=4²=16 possible strands.
For 3 nucleotides long you have 4 possible nucleotides for each of the 2-nucleotide-long strands, 4x4x4=4²=64 possible strands. Following that pattern, for a 100 nucleotide long DNA strand, there would be 4x4x...x4x4=4¹⁰⁰ possible strands.
The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of
a.a body cavity. c.mesoderm
b.a complete digestive tract d.true tissues.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. True tissues.
Explanation:
The cell that made sponge does not form the tissue however sponge have cells that play important role and specific for specific function but does not have true tissues.
In other animal phyla cells form tissue or organ or organ systems and called as true tissues.
Thus, the correct answer is option D. True tissues.
It is mainly based on the true tissues.
Sponges are the multicelled organism of the phylum Porifera. The body of the sponges has various channels and pores, that allows water circulation.
What is a sponge made up of?Sponges are multicellular organism that consists of pores and channels in their body for water circulation and lacks specific tissues. They have cells assigned with specific roles and functions but lack true tissues unlike animals of the other phyla.
The animals of the various phylum are classified based on the body cavity, tissues, symmetry, fate of the blastopore.
Therefore, option d. is correct.
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Give three adaptive advantages of fungi involving spores and their production.
Answers
Answer:
Spores are made by the millions, so some of them are likely to land in a good place to grow. Spores are lightweight and can drift around on the slightest air currents, so spores are spread far and wide. Spores have hard outer coverings to protect them until they begin to grow.
Explanation:
Normally, wild violets have yellow petals with dark brown markings end erect stems. Imagine you discover e plant with white petals, no markings, and prostrate stems. What experiment could you perform to determine whether the non-wild- type phenotypes are due to several different mutant genes or to the pleiotropic effects of alleles at e single locus? Explain how your experiment would settle the question.
Answers
Answer:
It is fascinating to observe two distinct characters presented by the same plant. The inheritance of this plant can be determined easily by crossing the pure violets exhibiting yellow petals with dark brown marking and erect stems with violets exhibiting no markings, white petals, and prostate stems.
The F1 progeny will originate as a hybrid of the two characters. These F1 plants will then be crossed between themselves and the F2 progeny would be clearly evaluated. If the F2 plants come in the phenotypic ratio of 3: 1, then it would indicate the pleiotropic effect of the alleles found in a single locus. If any other combinations arise post crossing, it would indicate that the non-wild type phenotype is because of many distinct mutant genes.
All of the following are directly associated with photosystem I except
A) harvesting of light energy by chlorophyll.
B) receiving electrons from plastocyanin.
C) P700
D) photolysis
E) passing electrons to ferredoxin.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is D) photolysis
Explanation:
Photolysis is a process in which light energy is used by photosystem II to split water which generates oxygen, H⁺ions end electrons. oxygen is released in the atmosphere and inhaled by animals and electrons are used to generate energy.
The electron released by the splitting of water is transferred to the first electron acceptor called pheophytin. This electron is passed through a series of complex and produce energy in the form of ATP and NADPH.
The process of photolysis does not occur in photosystem I because lysis of water takes place and electron is passed from photosystem II to photosystem I.
Photolysis is not directly associated with Photosystem I. Instead, it's a process that occurs in Photosystem II, where water molecules are broken down into oxygen, protons, and electrons.
Explanation:The correct answer is D) photolysis. Photosystem I is a protein complex involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. Its primary functions include harvesting light energy by chlorophyll (option A), receiving electrons from plastocyanin (option B), possessing a reaction center known as P700 (option C), and passing electrons to ferredoxin (option E).
In contrast, photolysis - the breaking down of molecules using light - is not directly associated with Photosystem I, but instead with Photosystem II, where water molecules are broken down into oxygen, protons, and electrons.
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List two ways that the Light Dependent reactions are similar to the production of ATP in the Mitochondria.
Answers
Answer:
The process of ATP synthesis in both chloroplast and mitochondria is similar:
1. Generation of electrochemical gradient across the membrane: The movement of electrons generates a difference in the concentration of protons across the membrane in both organelle. Due to this, an electrochemical gradient is established.
2. Movement of protons or hydrogen ions through ATP synthase: The generation of electrochemical gradient leads to the movement of options across the membrane through embedded ATP synthase enzyme.
Thus, ATP production in both the organelles is similar.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
a. a sperm.
b. an egg
c. a zygote.
d. a somatic cell of a male.
Answers
The correct answer is A. A sperm
Explanation:
Sperms are a type of reproductive cells that are essential for sexual reproduction. Sperms are male reproductive cells different from eggs that are female cells. Additionally, these can have flagella that allow them to move to reach the egg or be non-motile. In the case of human sperms, these have a flagella and also they contain 23 chromosomes; additionally, in this there is 1 allosome chromosome that defines sex and in males and therefore sperms can be either X or and 22 autosomes that refer to chromosomes not related to sex, this is also particular from sperms as eggs in humans can only have an X allosome. According to this, it is a sperm the cell that contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome.
For fertilization to occur in humans, only one sperm is needed to weaken the barrier that surrounds the egg.
a. True
b. False
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Approximately 200 out of 200 million sperms ejaculated during intercourse reach the general vicinity of the egg. They sperms must undergo capacitation during which dilute inhibitory factors fluids of the female reproductive tract weaken the membrane of the sperm head so that head of the sperm can be broken easily when it came in contact with the egg.
The first sperm to reach an egg isn’t the one to fertilize it because the egg is surrounded by a gelatinous membrane called the zona pellucida. Outside this layer, a layer of small granulosa cells also present.
Therefore, it requires numerous sperm to clear a path through these barriers before one of them can penetrate the egg and fertilize it.
Mutation is a random and non-adaptive process. This was first proven by:
a. Lysenko and Lamarck, using the removal of mouse tails as an environmental stress.
b. Joshua and Esther Lederberg, using the removal of mouse tails as an environmental stress.
c. Lysenko and Lamarck, using replica plated E. coli and streptomycin as an environmental stress.
d. Joshua and Esther Lederberg, using replica-plated E. coli and streptomycin as an environmental stress
e. Mutation is not a random, non-adaptive process
Answers
Answer:
Option (d).
Explanation:
Mutation may be defined as the sudden, heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of the organism. Mutation may occur due to the errors in DNA replication or may occurs due to the mutagens.
Joshua and Lederberg experiment explains that mutation is the non adaptive and random process that occur in the organism. He used the replica plating of E.coli and grows them on streptomycin drug. The bacteria was grown on the the primary plate and they are transferred to the secondary plate with streptomycin drug in the growth environment. The resistant strain of bacteria grows in the streptomycin environment.The pattern of bacteria growth on the plate explained that mutation occurs randomly and it is a non adaptive process.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?
a. Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.
b. Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes.
c. Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk."
d. Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is D.
Explanation:
Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that usually help to regulate cell growth and differentiation.
If they acquire a mutation, they become oncogenes and therefore can induce cancer.
Additionally, if they increase the amount of certain proteins concentration or acquire chromosomal translocations they can also become oncogenes.
Complementary base pairing in DNA means that DNA is easy to copy. How does this work?
A. DNA isn't very easy to copy, but there's no need to do that, so it doesn't matter.
B. The base pairs that make up the center of the DNA molecule will only match with identical copies of themselves A:A, C:C, etc.
C. The base pairs that make up the center of the DNA molecule will only match up A with T or C with G.
D. It doesn't work very well, so many mistakes are made when DNA gets copied as cells divide.
E. The base pairs that make up the center of the DNA molecule match other DNA molecules perfectly.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
On the basis of Chargaff's rule, adenine always base pairs with thymine, and guanine always base pairs with cytosine. This rule is also called complementary base pairing. By following this rule, the DNA polymerase can produce the new strand of DNA easily.
It utilizes the old strand of DNA as a template and produces the new one by opting for the accurate nucleotide on the basis of the template strand. Thus, the correct answer is option C, that is, the base pairs, which make up the center of the molecule of DNA will only match up C with G and A with T.
Extrapyramidal effect of metoclopramide.
Answers
Answer:
Metoclopramide is a drug widely used for its antiemetic effect (that is, used for the symptomatic treatment of nausea and vomiting). Its adverse reactions are varied, affecting even the central nervous system, causing extrapyramidal syndromes.
Explanation:
Due to the antidopaminergic action of metoclopramide. Signs and symptoms can range from spasms of the muscles of the face, neck or tongue, motor agitation and tremor, acatisia (feeling restless and in need of constant movement) and acute dystonic reactions. Extrapyramidal syndrome is transient and disappears after eliminating or decreasing the dose of metoclopramide.
Metoclopramide is a drug that can be administered intravenously. Its administration can be in bolus or by a continuous infusion. Is there any method of choice to prevent or reduce the occurrence of pyramidal syndromes?
A recent systematic review concluded that, compared with bolus administration, continuous intravenous infusion of metoclopramide reduced the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects.
With this gesture we can perform quality care and try to avoid side effects to our patients.
In June 2003, the FDA approved the FluMist vaccine for influenza, which is administered by squirting tiny amounts of vaccine into each nostril. This would be a(n) __________ vaccine.
a. inactivated vaccine
b. attenuated vaccine
c. recombinant vaccine
d. acellular vaccine
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is: b. attenuated vaccine
Explanation:
FluMist is the trade name of the live attenuated influenza vaccine, manufactured by MedImmune. This vaccine is used for the prevention of influenza, also called flu.
It is an attenuated vaccine which is given in the form of nasal spray.
An attenuated vaccine alters the pathogen by reducing its virulence and makes it harmless.
Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging is a tool that has been very useful in identifying what parts of the brain do what. Scientists can have a person perform some particular activity and then look for active areas in the brain. How does fMRI work?
A. It takes a picture of the inside of the brain according to electricity levels. The more electrical current in the area, the more active it is.
B. It takes a picture of the inside of the brain according to blood flow. More blood flow indicates more activity in that area.
C. It takes images of thin layers of the brain and the more electrical activity in a layer, the more magnetic it is and this shows up in fMRI.
D. Electrodes attached to the skull can trigger activity in particular brain areas which then trigger a person to perform certain behaviors.
E. It takes a picture of the brain according to oxygen levels. More oxygen in an area indicates more activity in that area.
Answers
Answer:
E. It takes a picture of the brain according to oxygen levels. More oxygen in an area indicates more activity in that area.
Explanation:
Haemoglobin is diamagnetic when oxygenated but paramagnetic when deoxygenated. This distinction in magnetic characteristics leads to tiny variations in the blood MR signal. Since blood oxygenation differs, these variations can be used to identify brain activity depending on the concentrations of neural activity.
Organisms that can't live in the presence of oxygen are called facultative anaerobes.
a. True
b. False
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Facultative anaerobes are organisms that can grow in both the presence or absence of oxygen.
Organism that suffer a poisonous reaction or that can't live in the presence of oxygen are called obligate anaerobes.
Explain how the exon/intron structure of genes contributes to the generation of new gene functions during evolution.
Answers
Answer:
The exons may be defined as the coding region of the RNA that codes for the particular amino acid. The introns are the non coding region of RNA and must be removed in the final RNA product.
Exon shuffling result in the formation of new gene. The alteration of the exon and intron structure leads to the new gene function in evolution. The genes that are favored and conserved in the evolution perform new gene function. The genes that are selected against are deleted during the evolution.
The exon/intron structure in genes facilitates the evolution of new functions through exon shuffling, alternative splicing, and gene duplication, significantly contributing to genetic diversity and adaptability.
Explanation:The exon/intron structure of genes is pivotal in the evolution of new gene functions. Introns, which are non-coding sequences, serve as a buffer against deleterious mutations, and through unequal recombination during meiosis, they can lead to gene duplication and exon shuffling. This occurrence can result in new proteins with additional structural domains and functions, contributing to genetic diversity and evolutionary progress.
Exon shuffling is a mechanism by which exons can be mixed and matched between genes, potentially creating proteins that carry out new functions. Additionally, introns and their associated sequences play a crucial role in alternative splicing, which allows for the production of multiple protein variants from a single gene, further increasing the potential for diversity and adaptability.
Gene duplication, which can occur due to non-homologous recombination facilitated by introns, allows one gene copy to accumulate mutations while the other maintains its original function. This duplicated gene can then evolve over time, adding to the pool of selectable DNA sequences and leading to an increase in species diversity and evolutionary innovation.
List three dangerous recreational drugs and explain what they do to the nervous system.
Answers
Answer:
Three dangerous recreational drugs: crack cocaine, heroin, methamphetamines
Explanation:
Recreational drugs are the psychotropic drugs that induce an intoxicating effect. The three types of recreational drugs are depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens.
The drugs affect the nervous system and induce hallucinations, euphoria, enhanced alertness and locomotion, low blood pressure, anesthesia, analgesia and memory impairment.
Some of the dangerous recreational drugs are crack cocaine, heroin, methamphetamines and alcohol.
What would be the consequence to an organism if they are missing the following DNA repair mechanisms:
a. DNA polymerase proofreading
b. Mismatch repair enzymes
c. Nucleotide excision repair enzymes
Answers
Answer:
a. DNA polymerase proofreading: consequence of its absence is the DNA mutation
b. Mismatch repair enzymes : consequence of its absence impedes homologous recombination resulting in the final mutation
c. Nucleotide excision repair enzymes : the absence of nucleotide cleavage repair enzymes would impede the functioning of damaged DNA repair mechanisms
Explanation:
a. DNA polymerases are the enzymes that form the DNA in cells. During DNA replication (copying), most DNA polymerases can "check their work" with each base they add. This process is called review. If the polymerase detects that you have added a wrong nucleotide (incorrectly paired), remove it and replace it immediately, before continuing with DNA synthesis
b. In homologous recombination, the information from the homologous chromosome that matches that of the damaged one (or from a sister chromatid if the DNA has been copied) is used to repair the fragmentation. In this process the two homologous chromosomes are approached and the undamaged region of the homologue or the chromatide is used as a template to replace the damaged region of the broken chromosome. Homologous recombination is "cleaner" than the union of non-homologous ends and does not usually cause 11 mutations
c. Excision repair: damage to one or a few DNA bases is usually fixed by removing (excising) and replacing the damaged region. In repair by base cleavage, only the damaged base is removed. In nucleotide excision repair, as in the mating repair we saw earlier, a nucleotide section is removed
The absence of DNA repair mechanisms such as DNA polymerase proofreading, mismatch repair enzymes, and nucleotide excision repair enzymes can lead to an elevated mutation rate, causing genomic instability and increasing the risk of cancer and genetic disorders.
Consequences of Missing DNA Repair Mechanisms
The integrity of DNA is safeguarded by various repair mechanisms. When these systems fail or are absent, the stability and function of an organism's genome are compromised. Here's what happens when certain DNA repair mechanisms are missing:
DNA polymerase proofreading: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides during DNA replication and conducts proofreading to ensure accuracy. If proofreading is compromised, incorrect bases may be incorporated, resulting in mutations which can lead to cancers or other genetic disorders.
Mismatch repair enzymes: These enzymes correct errors that escape proofreading during replication. Without mismatch repair, these errors become permanent, increasing mutation rates and contributing to diseases like cancer.
Nucleotide excision repair enzymes: These enzymes repair bulky lesions such as thymine dimers which are primarily caused by UV light. Absence of these enzymes may lead to a higher incidence of skin cancer due to the accumulation of these lesions.
In summary, the lack of these DNA repair mechanisms can result in increased mutation rates, leading to genomic instability, and may significantly raise the risk of cancer and other hereditary diseases.
Semen contains all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Fructose
B. Mucus
C. Clotting enzyme
D. Substances to lower the pH of the uterine environment
E. An active cot-dissolving enzyme
Answers
Semen does not contain substances to lower the pH of the uterine environment.
Explanation:The correct answer is D. Substances to lower the pH of the uterine environment.
Semen is the fluid that contains sperm, which is released during ejaculation. It contains various components that help sperm in their journey to fertilize an egg. These components include fructose (a sugar that provides energy for sperm), mucus (which helps with the motility of sperm), clotting enzymes (to prevent semen from leaking out of the vagina), and an active cot-dissolving enzyme (to break down the mucus in the cervix).
However, semen does not contain substances to lower the pH of the uterine environment. This is because the female reproductive tract naturally provides an optimal pH for sperm survival without the need for additional substances in semen.
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Sketch the oxygen binding curves for myoglobin and haemoglobin and describe what each curve means in terms of the functions of each of these proteins.
Answers
Answer:
The oxygen dissociation curve for hemoglobin is sigmoidal where as for myoglobin it is hyperbolic.
Explanation:
Oxygen dissociation curve: A graphical representation of relationship between partial pressure of O2 and percentage saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is known as O2-dissociation curve. It is sigmoidal or S- shaped curve. The amount of O2 that can bind with Hb is determined by partial pressure of oxygen. The percentage of Hb that is bound with O2 is called percentage saturation of Hb.
In human adults, at pO2 of 25 mm of Hg the hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen. This partial pressure is called P-50.
Hemoglobin shows S shaped curve due to cooperative binding of oxygen that is binding of first oxygen increases the ability of second oxygen binding and so on. One Hb can carry 4 oxygen molecules.
In case of myglobin, it has more affinity for oxygen but it has only one Fe+2 group, there is no cooperative binding. The curve obtained will be hyperbolic than being sigmoid.
Please find the attached image which shows both the curves. (Image reference: Evolution of Myoglobin and Hemoglobin ; Author and Curator: Larry H. Bernstein, MD, FCAP )
Since myoglobin has more affinity for oxygen its P-50 value is less, that is at low partial pressure of oxygen myoglobin gets 50% saturated. But the P-50 value for hemoglobin is high which means comparatively more partial pressure of O2 is needed for hemoglobin to be 50% saturated.
Psychological and physiological dependence on a drug is called tolerance.
a. True
b. False
Answers
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Tolerance is when, after being exposed to a certain drug for a long period of time, the body can no longer respond to the same dose that used to trigger a biological response, so the dose has to be increased.
How is the circulatory system controlled (i.e. hormonally, neurally)?
Answers
Answer:
Neurally
Explanation:
Cardiac regulation is controlled neurally. The nervous systems receive signals regarding the condition of the circulatory system. Different receptors receive different type of signals. For example, the baroreceptors, receive information about the blood pressure, the chemoreceptors sends and codify information about the CO2, O2 and PH concentration in the bloodstream.
All of these signals are processed and analyzed by a group of neurons in the spinal bulb in the brain. This particular region of the brain, produces signals that travel trough neurons until the nerve supply of the heart and the smooth muscles (of veins and arterioles) to control the blood pressure and cardiac output.
"The circulatory system is controlled through both hormonal and neural mechanisms.
Neurally, the circulatory system is regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. The sympathetic nervous system, when activated, increases heart rate, cardiac output, and the force of cardiac muscle contractions, thereby increasing blood pressure. This response is part of the ""fight or flight"" reaction. Conversely, the parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate and promotes relaxation, which is part of the ""rest and digest"" response.
Hormonally, several key hormones play a role in regulating the circulatory system:
1. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine: Released by the adrenal medulla, these hormones increase heart rate and the force of cardiac contractions, similar to the sympathetic nervous system's effects.
2. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP): Secreted by the atria of the heart in response to stretching due to increased blood volume, ANP promotes excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which in turn reduces blood volume and pressure.
3. Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS): When blood pressure drops, the kidneys release renin, which leads to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex, which promotes sodium and water retention by the kidneys, further increasing blood volume and pressure.
4. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH): Also known as vasopressin, ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland in response to increased plasma osmolality or decreased blood volume. ADH increases water reabsorption in the kidneys, which increases blood volume and pressure.
5. Endothelins: These are a group of peptides produced by the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels. They are among the most potent vasoconstrictors known and play a role in regulating vascular tone and blood pressure.
These hormonal and neural controls work in concert to maintain homeostasis in the circulatory system, ensuring that blood flow and pressure are adjusted according to the body's changing needs."