Answer:
4. be cut by the same restriction enzyme
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes are the endonucleases and cut the DNA molecules at specific sites. These sites are unique for each restriction enzyme and are called restriction sites. Since restriction enzymes cut DNA only at their respective restriction sites, digestion of two DNA molecules with the same restriction enzyme creates DNA fragments with complementary ends.
The restriction digested DNA fragments then can be ligated with each other with the help of enzyme DNA ligase. Therefore, to insert a human gene into a plasmid, both must be digested with the same restriction enzyme to create restriction fragments with complementary ends which in turn would facilitate their ligation.
To insert a human gene into a plasmid, both the gene and the plasmid must be cut by the same restriction enzyme to ensure that their ends are compatible for ligation.
Explanation:In order to insert a human gene into a plasmid, both must be cut by the same restriction enzyme. This process involves cutting the gene of interest with a restriction enzyme, and doing the same to the expression plasmid DNA to generate compatible ends. The DNA fragment, usually isolated by PCR and/or restriction digestion, is then cloned into a plasmid that has been cut with a compatible restriction enzyme. These enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cut them in such a way that the cut ends have single-stranded overhangs, which are complementary and can therefore anneal to each other. The plasmid and the human gene are then joined using DNA ligase, creating a recombinant DNA molecule that can be introduced into a bacterial cell for replication and gene expression.
When a new viral infection appears in a population, scientists usually try to develop a vaccine against the virus. Which substances would most likely be contained in the new vaccine?A. live bacteria that ingest virusesB. white blood cells from an infected individualC. weakened viruses associated with the infectionD. a variety of microbes that will attack the virus
Answer: option C) weakened viruses associated with the infection
Explanation:
A vaccine is a derived from a disease-causing organism, and administed to uninfected people in order to induce the release of antibodies and set up immunity against such disease.
Therefore, weakened viruses associated with the infection, is used by scientists to develop vaccine.
Option C is the answer
Evolution has been tested in various ways. Genetic, fossil, anatomical, physiological and behavioral studies all confirm that evolution is the mechanism of the origin of species. Thus, in science evolution is considered a scientific ____.
Answer:
Theory.
Explanation:
Evolution may be defined as the changes in the species characteristics with respect to time. Different evidences like fossil evidence, genetic evidence and the behavioral study is used for the evolutionary study.
Scientific theory may be defined as the explanationary aspect of the world's phenomena. The scientific evidence, experiment and results are important to make a scientific theory. The phenomena of the evolution can be explained by the scientific theory.
Thus, the answer is theory.
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be?
Answer:
The options
A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
C. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.
D. Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.
The ANSWER IS SURELY B.
B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
Explanation:
In assessing Musculoskeletal Injury as in this case, check for Circulation, sensation, and movement, apply a sling and bandage/swathe followed by transporting the patient quickly to the hospital for further checkup
Answer:
pito
Explanation:
panochon
The family of a deceased victim protests having an autopsy of their loved one due ro religious beliefs. The medical examiner will honor their wishes unless:
Answer:
In case of involvement of crime or in case if autopsy is a threat to public health
Explanation:
There can be two cases where a medical practioner will not perform the autopsy as requested by family member of the patient –
a) If the death of the person involves any criminal link
b) If the patient has no abnormal disease which on autopsy could become a public threat
In all other scenarios, the doctor can undergo autopsy on the request of family member. Autopsy is basically performed to test the determine the exact cause of death. In case of natural death, there is not point of doing autopsy.
Create an explicit equation for each recursively-defined sequence below.
t(1)= 3, t(n + 1) = 5 × t(n)
Answer:
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Explanation:
The recursive formula describes a sequence in which each term is 5 times the one before it. This is a geometric sequence with common ratio 5 and a first term that is said to be 3.
As you know, the generic formula for a geometric sequence is ...
an = a1·r^(n-1)
For a1 = 3, r = 5, and a sequence named "t", this is ...
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Answer:
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Explanation:
im guessing this may not be right...
A new kind of tulip is produced that develops only purple or pink flowers. Assume that flower color is controlled by a single-gene locus, and that the purple allele (C) is dominant to the pink allele (c). A random sample of 1000 tulips from a large cultivated field yields 847 purple flowers, and 153 pink flowers.
a. Determine the frequency of the purple and pink alleles in this field population.
b. Estimate the proportion of all purple flowering plants that are heterozygotes and homozygotes.
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476
Answer:
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476
Explanation:
Given -
Purple flowers - 847
Pink flowers - 153
The frequency of recessive genotype i.e
[tex]q^ 2 = \frac{153}{1000} \\q^ 2 = 0.153\\[/tex]
Frequency of recessive allele i.e q is equal to
[tex]q = \sqrt{0.153} \\q = 0.391[/tex]
As per hardy Weinberg's first equilibrium equation -
[tex]p + q = 1\\p = 1-q\\p = 1-0.391\\p = 0.609[/tex]
Frequency of purple homozygous species
[tex]= p^2\\= 0.609^2\\= 0.371[/tex]
Number of purple homozygous species [tex]= 0.371 * 1000= 371[/tex]
Number of pink homozygous species [tex]= 0.153 * 1000= 153[/tex]
Heterozygous species is equal to
[tex](1-0.371-0.153)* 1000\\= 0.476 * 1000\\= 476[/tex]
Answer:
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, purple heterozygotes = 476
Explanation:
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
p + q = 1
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where, p = frequency of dominant allele
q = frequency of recessive allele
p² = frequency of dominant homozygous genotype
2pq = frequency of heterozygous genotype
q² = frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
a. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
frequency of pink flowers (cc) = q² = 153/1000 = 0.153
frequency of pink allele c = q = √0.153 = 0.391
p + q = 1 where p = frequency of dominant allele
So, frequency of purple allele C = p = 1-0.391 = 0.609
b. Purple homozygotes = CC = p² * total population =
(0.609)² * 1000 = 370.88 = 371
Purple heterozygotes = Cc = 2pq * total population =
2 * 0.609 * 0.391 * 1000 = 476.23 = 476
Which physical change always happens to both the male and female body during puberty?
A. muscle development
B. increase in perspiration
C. increase in body fat
D. formation of eggs
Answer:
The answer is letter B, increase in perspiration.
Explanation:
Puberty- this refers to the process in which children experience physical change in their body as a sign of maturity. Both boys and girls experience such a change in their body due to hormones that are being released. Boys' puberty occurs between ages 12 and 16, while girls' puberty occurs between ages 10 and 14. Girls and boys have different signs of physical change when it comes to puberty, but they also have something in common such as having an increase perspiration or sweating due to having active sweat glands. The sweat glands become active at this stage.
Letter A, muscle development: this occurs in boys. This is due to the male's testosterone hormone.
Letter C, increase in body fat: this occurs in girls. This is due to the female's estrogen hormone.
Letter D, formation of eggs: this occurs in girls.
After the effector cell has been stimulated by acetylcholine (ACh), what enzyme stops this stimulation and allows the effector membrane to repolarize?
A) Decarboxylase
B) Norepinephrine
C) Acetylcholinesterase
D) Catecholamine
Answer:
The correct answer is C) Acetylcholinesterase.
Explanation:
Neurotransmitter release occurs in the neuron axon. The sending neuron has vesicles filled with neurotransmitters in their interior. When an action potential reaches the nervous terminal or the varicosities, it causes the neurotransmitter release by exocytose forward to the synaptic space. The molecule binds to its receptor in the postsynaptic neuron. This receptor is a protein structure that triggers an answer. As long as the acetylcholine is in the synaptic space, it keeps linking to its receptor and causing a postsynaptic answer. To stop this process, the neurotransmitter must be taken out from the synaptic space. There are two mechanisms by which the neurotransmitter can be eliminated:
Enzymatic degradation/deactivation: In the synaptic space, there is a specific enzyme called Acetylcholinesterase that can inactivate the neurotransmitter by breaking or degrading it. In this case, the new molecule won’t be able to bind to the neurotransmitter receptor. Reuptake: There are receptors located in the presynaptic membrane that can capture de molecule to store it back in new vesicles, for posterior use.Final answer:
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) is the enzyme that stops the stimulation of effector cells by acetylcholine (ACh), allowing the effector membrane to repolarize and preventing uncontrolled muscle contractions. Hence, the correct answer is C) Acetylcholinesterase.
Explanation:
After the effector cell has been stimulated by acetylcholine (ACh), the enzyme that stops this stimulation and allows the effector membrane to repolarize is acetylcholinesterase (AChE). Acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft and rapidly degrades ACh into choline and acetate molecules, thereby terminating the action of ACh. This degradation is essential because it prevents continuous stimulation of muscles, which would lead to uncontrolled muscle contractions. The choline can be reuptake into the presynaptic cell to synthesize new acetylcholine. Hence, the correct answer is C) Acetylcholinesterase.
The modern approach to classification, with the broader goal of reconstructing the evolutionary history, or phylogeny, of organisms is:
systematics.
morphology.
biodiversity.
biology.
systematics.
Answer:
systematics is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The modern approach to classification, with the broader goal of reconstructing the evolutionary history, or phylogeny, of organisms is: systematics.Systematics plays an important role in the field of biology.Carl Linnæus is the father of Systematics.Systematics refers to the study of the diversification,nomenclature, and classification of the living organism in the past and also in present.Systematics is used to understand the evolutionary relationship and the purpose of systematics is to describe and explain biological variety.The main objective of systematics is to identify species and to give scientific names to organisms, it used to determine the arrangement of the living organism and to study the evolutionary history of organisms.One reason why small patches of protected land could be disadvantageous is _____. it would be difficult for forest rangers to keep track of the different patches it would require too many roads to connect the patches it would make it difficult for animals to move around and seek resources in other areas park visitors would be less likely to visit all areas of a park
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
I think the main and most important disadvantage of small patches of land that are seperate from each other would be the option given in C. It would basically force the animals into small areas where there is finite resources and that would lead to territory problems among them where groups start fighting. This action would also remove the possibility of the different species interacting with each other and thus disrupting the food chain which is crucial for a stable habitat.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?A. phosphate groupsB. nitrogenous basesC. DNA polymeraseD. sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
Final answer:
In the twisted ladder model of DNA, the steps or rungs represent the nitrogenous bases—adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine—which pair together to form the structure of the DNA ladder.
Explanation:
If we liken a double-stranded DNA molecule to a twisted rope ladder, the steps in the ladder represent the nitrogenous bases. More specifically, these bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). In the DNA structure, adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine. These pairings create the rungs of the ladder.
It is essential to note the ladder's rails are the sugar-phosphate backbone, which consists of alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups. On each side of the ladder, a strand of this backbone runs in opposite directions (antiparallel) which is crucial for the function and replication of DNA.
_____ is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder. This _____ allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
Answer:
Bile juice.
Explanation:
Digestion is the process of the breakdown of the large food molecules into the simpler substances. Digestive enzymes and digestive juices also plays an important role in digestion process.
Bile juice contains no enzyme and has salts that helps in the emulsification of fat. Bile is produced by the liver and it neutralize the acidic environment of the intestine. The fats gets broken down into the simpler substances by the action of the bile juice.
Thus, the answer is bile juice.
Bile is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder. This bile allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
Bile is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder.
This bile allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
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A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the ________ level of protein structure.
a) Primary
b) Secondaryc) Tertiaryd) Quaternary
e) Infinite
d) 3.14 factual recall42
Answer:
the correct option is D.
Explanation:
in case of quaternary level of protein structure , protein has more than one polypeptide chains and in this level , the polypeptide chains are aggregated and held together by hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen and ionic bonds. this specific arrangement is called the quaternary structure.for example :-
Haemoglobin the oxygen carrying protein of red blood cells, exhibits such a structure.
A protein with more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the quaternary level of protein structure, which results when multiple polypeptide chains come together to form a functional protein.
Explanation:A protein that contains more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the quaternary level of protein structure. Proteins are composed of amino acids linked together in a specific sequence, which is termed as the primary structure. The secondary structure comes from hydrogen bonding that forms alpha-helices or beta-pleated sheets. In the tertiary structure, the protein folds into a complex 3D shape due to interactions among various side chains. Finally, the quaternary structure occurs when two or more polypeptide chains associate to form a functional protein.
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One difference between human cheek cells and onion cells is: 1. the presence of cytoplasm 2. the absence of a nucleus in the plant cells 3. the absence of a cell wall in human cells 4.none of the above
Answer:
3. the absence of a cell wall in human cells
Explanation:
Animal cells do not have cell walls. Cell membranes separate the cytoplasm of the animal cells from the surroundings and maintain their interior. Plant cells have cellulosic cell walls. A cell wall surrounds the cell membrane of a plant cell. Cell walls serve to provide structural support and protect plant cells from pathogens. Cell walls also help keep excess water out of cells so they do not burst. Therefore, human cheek cells would not have cell walls while the onion cells would have cell walls made up of cellulose.
Disturbances cause a decrease in carrying capacity for all populations in the disturbed habitat. This statement is:
a. correct; all populations in an area of a disturbance have a temporarily lowered carrying capacity.
b. incorrect; the definition of a disturbance is an event that temporarily lowers carrying capacity.
c. incorrect; although a disturbance may lower carrying capacity for some populations, it may increase carrying capacity for others.
d. incorrect; disturbances have minimal effect on carrying capacity.
e. correct; biotic disturbances increase carrying capacity for all the populations.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
You have discovered a new microorganism and would like to classify it as a eukaryote or a prokaryote. To investigate this question you prepare a slide with a simple stain and view it with a light microscope with a 40X objective lens and 10X ocular lens. You also prepare a control slide using Saccharomyces cerevisiae (a unicellular eukaryote). You can see the cells on your control slide, but you don't see cells when you look at your unknown microorganism. What can you conclude from this experiment?
Answer:
the unknown microorganism is a PROKARYOTE.
Explanation:
if it were a eukaryote then similar type of cells would be seen under light microscope as those seen in case of unicellular eukaryote i.e Saccharomyces cerevisiae . but as the unknown microorganism does not have those cells then we can easily classify it to be a PROKARYOTE.
The inability to visualize the new microorganism under a light microscope compared to the visible Saccharomyces cerevisiae suggests it may be smaller than the resolution limit of the microscope, inadequately stained, or present in low numbers. Additional methods are needed to determine whether it is a eukaryote or prokaryote.
Explanation:If you prepared a slide with a simple stain and viewed it under a light microscope using a 40X objective lens and a 10X ocular lens and did not see cells from the new microorganism compared to the visible Saccharomyces cerevisiae cells in your control slide, you can conclude several possibilities:
The microorganism may be smaller than the resolution limit of the microscope.The staining technique used might not have been suitable for visualizing the microorganisms.The microorganism might have not been present in the sample in sufficient numbers to be detected.Remember that Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a unicellular eukaryote, which is larger than prokaryotes such as Escherichia coli. However, since eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells can be differentiated by size and by the presence of specific structures (e.g., a nucleus in eukaryotes), not seeing the microorganism does not immediately determine its classification. More rigorous methods may be required, like using higher resolution microscopy or different staining techniques that can reveal small prokaryotic cells.
Robert's mother is usually meticulous in her presentation. When picking her up for a family dinner, he noticed that her make-up was only applied to the right side of her face. Her hair was also brushed on the right side, but on the left it was matted and uncombed. He immediately took her to the hospital after she was unaware of any problems. She was diagnosed with __________, which is evidenced by damage to the association areas of the right hemisphere.
Answer: HEMISPATIAL NEGLECT
Explanation This is a neuropsychological condition which arise from injury( mostly from strokes) to the right cerebral hemisphere.
The damage leads to loss of attention and awareness of one side of vision in the damaged side of the hemisphere.
The patient failed to initiate and perceive stimuli one side of the body relative to the environment; despite receiving sensory stimulation from that part of the body, and the environment.
→Treatment involved Rehabilitation trying to bring the patient to the right
→Wearing of glasses with prism lens to pull the patient vision towards the left side.
which of the following observations or statements represents the e in gems diamond?
A)The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
B)The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
C)Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect.
D)A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. "The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater".
Explanation:
The GEMS Diamond is a four letter key that helps physicians to remember four important points for geriatric care. The "E" in the GEMS Diamond comes from Environmental Assessment. This refers that the physician must look at the patient’s home or surroundings to avoid any external element that could represent a harm for the patients health. One example could be that the patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. In this case the heater must be repaired or the patient must be relocated to avoid any health complication resulted from an exposure to a cold environment.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by __________, whereas anorexia nervosa is characterized by __________.
Answer: excessive eating; food starvation
Explanation:
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by excessive eating, whereas anorexia nervosa is characterized by food starvation.
Both bullimia nervosa and Anorexia nervosa are EATING DISORDER with different root cause; the former involving excessive eating followed by forceful ejection of ingested food DUE to FEAR of gaining weight, WHEREAS the latter is characterized by FOOD STARVATION due to fear of gaining weight.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors,
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise to avoid weight gain. It often involves a preoccupation with body shape and weight. Treatment typically includes therapy and nutritional counseling.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by attempts to compensate for the excessive amount of food that was consumed. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa is characterized by the maintenance of a body weight well below average through starvation and/or excessive exercise. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and view themselves as overweight even though they are not.
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When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome
The gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome during mitosis.
Explanation:
Mitosis is a process by which an Eukaryotic organism divides its cells into two cell keeping all the genetic setup and the genetic configurations same. During mitosis, at first, during the G0 phase of mitosis, the cell prepares itself for mitosis, where it duplicates its DNA and some of the other proteins required during cell division.
During the mitosis these DNAs concentrate as different chromosomes and are separated and pulled apart into two different poles by spindle fibers and two new cells are eventually formed. Thus, during mitosis, cells produce ultimate gene duplication.
Which of the following statements describes integral membrane proteins?
I. They protect the contents of the cell from chaotropic agents such as urea.
II. They are easily dissociated from the membrane by changes in pH or high salt concentration.
III. They are held tightly in place by hydrophobic effects between the membrane and hydrophobic amino acids.
Integral membrane proteins are essentially permanently attached to the cell membranes due to hydrophobic effects. They are not easily removed and their functions can greatly vary.
Explanation:The term integral membrane proteins refers to proteins that are permanently embedded in the biological membrane. They are tightly held in place by hydrophobic effects between the lipophilic or hydrophobic amino acids of the protein and the fatty acid chains of the membrane lipids, making statement III correct. They are not easily dissociated from the membrane by changes in pH or high salt concentration, contradicting statement II. Statement I about protecting the cell from chaotropic agents such as urea is not generally applicable to all integral proteins as it depends on the specific protein function.
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Integral membrane proteins are firmly embedded in the biological membrane due to hydrophobic interactions, and are not easily dissociated by changes in pH or high salt concentration. They are not specifically responsible for protection against chaotropic agents like urea.
Explanation:Integral membrane proteins are a type of protein that is permanently attached to the biological membrane. Among the statements provided, the one which accurately describes integral membrane proteins is III: 'They are held tightly in place by hydrophobic effects between the membrane and hydrophobic amino acids.' This is due to their structure, which typically includes a hydrophilic 'head' and a hydrophobic 'tail', allowing them to interact with both the interior of the lipid bilayer and the aqueous environment outside the cell.
However, the statements I and II are not entirely accurate. While integral membrane proteins do play a role in the cell's defenses (statement I), including against certain types of toxins, they aren't specifically designed to protect against chaotropic agents like urea. For statement II, it is misleading, because integral membrane proteins are not easily dissociated from the membrane simply by changes in pH or high salt concentration – these proteins are firmly embedded in the membrane due to the hydrophobic interactions between the protein and the lipid bilayer.
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__________ enter the lymph and need transport carriers to circulate in the bloodstream.
Answer:
Long-chain fatty acids
Explanation:
Answer:
Long-chain fatty acids is right
Explanation:
What source of fuel is used by the body during long periods of low-intensity exercise, such as a day-long hike?
Answer:
The fatty acids stored in the adipose tissues.
Explanation:
The adipose tissues are connective tissues that consist fat cells known as the adipocytes.
They are found all around the body. Those that are found under the skin are subcutaneous fat, while those that are found in the abdominal cavity, around the internal organs are visceral fats.
The adipose tissues store energy in form of fat, and insulate the body.
During low-intensity exercises like a day-long hike, the body uses fatty acids as the primary energy source through aerobic metabolism, with a small amount of glucose, until glycogen stores are depleted and fatigue sets in.
During long periods of low-intensity exercise, such as a day-long hike, the body primarily uses aerobic metabolism to produce ATP, which is the immediate fuel source for cellular activities.
The primary energy source during these activities is fatty acids, which are abundant in the body's reserves, allowing for sustained energy production over a long duration. Alongside fatty acids, the body also uses a small amount of glucose, which is derived from glycogen stores. However, unlike fat reserves, glycogen stores can become depleted, leading to fatigue.
Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to a determination of common origin (single source). Which type of evidence CANNOT yield such results?
A. fingerprints
B. single-layer paints
C. DNA
D. wear patterns on tires
Answer:
Answer is B. Single-layer paints
Explanation:
All the options mentioned are used by forensic experts to detect or have evidence about a person that committed a crime that is being investigated.
Single-layer paints cannot yield individual characteristic evidence because they can be mass-produced and are not unique to a single source, meaning they cannot be definitively linked to a single origin.
Explanation:The type of evidence that cannot yield such results is B. Single-layer paints. Fingerprints, DNA, and wear patterns on tires are all examples of evidence with individual characteristics that can lead to a determination of common origin. However, single-layer paints cannot yield such results because they can be mass-produced and are therefore not unique to a single source. For example, a specific color of paint may be identical across different sources, making it impossible to link it to one single origin.
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Imagine that you've discovered a regulatory sequence thousands of base pairs away from the promoter and that when this sequence is lost due to mutation, levels of gene expression decrease sharply. This sequence is most likely ______.
A. A silencerB. An enhancerC. A promoter-proximal elementD. A promoter
Answer:
An Enhancer
Explanation:
Enhancers are the regulatory sequences and are generally located 80-160 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site. Enhancers have bidirectional elements that are involved in the initiation of transcription. Enhancers serve as the binding sites for activators to increase the concentration of activators in the vicinity of the promoter and thereby increase the rate of transcription of the gene.
According to the given information, the loss of a regulatory sequence led to a reduced level of transcription of the gene. This means that the regulatory sequence was involved in the upregulation of transcription. The presence of the sequence far away from the promoter makes it an enhancer.
On a global scale, energy _______ ecosystems whereas chemical elements __________ ecosystems.
a. is biologically magnified in... are recycled in
b. is dissipated in.... flow through
c. flows through... are recycled in
d. is continuously supplied through... are continuously removed through
e. is recycled in.... flow through
Answer:
c. flows through... are recycled in
Explanation:
In an ecosystem, energy gotten from the sun by plants flows through the ecosystem from one trophic level to another, as the energy in is transformed from one form to another via nutrition.
On the other hand, chemical elements in the form of nutrients are recycled and made available to primary producers when decomposers in the ecosystem to break down organic matter. During decomposition, energy is released. Several nutrient recycling process have feedback mechanisms that ensures chemical elements are recycled back into the ecosystem as they are being used up by organisms.
Which of the following types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) retinal ganglion cellsB) auditory outer and inner hair cellsC) retinal bipolar cellsD) olfactory receptor cells
Answer:
D) olfactory receptor cells
Explanation:
The olfactory receptor neurons are located in the nasal cavity, they have dendrites that go all the way to the mucus. In vertebrates the olfactory system has the parcularity of performing neurogenesis and the replacement of degenerating receptor neurons through all the adult life.
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Concerning comb shape in chickens, which of the following is true? Multiple Choice
The R gene is dominant to the P gene.
The R and P must both be present to produce a walnut comb.
R is recessive to r and produces a rose comb.
P is recessive to p and produces a single comb.
Answer:
The R and P must both be present to produce a walnut comb.
Explanation:
Comb shape in chickens is an example of intergenic interaction. Two genes R and P come together to determine the type of comb.
If R is present in dominant form and p in recessive form ( R_pp ) : Rose combIf P is present in dominant form and r in recessive form ( rrP_ ) : Pea combIf both R and P are present in dominant form ( R_P_ ) : Walnut combIf both r and p are present in recessive form ( rrpp ) : Single combHence, it is clear that both R and P must be present to produce a walnut comb.
The codon AUG specifies the amino acid methionine. What would the tRNA anitcodon be that recognizes this codon?
Answer:
UAC
Explanation:
This example portrays that translation, which is the second process of protein synthesis, is about to occur. Translation cannot occur without a special type of RNA called tRNA or transfer RNA.
A tRNA contains a set of three nucleotides called ANTICODON. The tRNA matches an mRNA codon with the amino acid it encodes. The tRNA initially binds to the mRNA and reads the mRNA codon using its anticodon (which is complementary to the mRNA's codon). The actual reading is done by matching the base pairs through hydrogen bonding following the base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. After reading the mRNA codon using its anticodon, it then carries the specific amino acid encoded by that codon it binds to, in order to add to the growing polypeptide chain.
For example, a codon AUG (start codon that signals beginning of translation) will be read by tRNA anticodon, UAC. Since the codon AUG codes for amino acid, Methionine. The tRNA then carries Methionine via its amino acid attachment site and adds to the polypeptide chain (future protein).
What best describes the difference between paracentric and pericentric inversion?
A. the number of genes inverted
B.the number of centromeres inverted
C.the placement of centromeres in the inversions
D.if the inversion is on autosomal of sex chromosomes
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Paracentric and Pericentric Inversions both are terms used to describe the action of inversing a part of the chromosome. But the main difference between the paracentric and pericentric inversions is that pericentric inversion, unlike the paracentric inversion, does include the centromere in the inversion process. So the answer is B, which is zero for paracentric inversion.
I hope this answer helps.
The main difference between paracentric and pericentric inversions is the option c. involvement of the centromere. Pericentric inversions can change the relative lengths of the chromosome arms.
The involvement of the centromere is the primary distinction between these two types of inversions. Paracentric inversions do not include the centromere because they take place outside of it.
This indicates that the positions in relation to the centromere remain unchanged and that the inversion is restricted to just one arm of the chromosome.
Conversely, pericentric reversals incorporate the centromere inside the upset fragment. Because of this, the relative lengths of the chromosome arms above and below the centromere can change in a pericentric inversion, making these inversions easy to spot.