Answer: Option D. "Heme"
Explanation:
Deoxyhemoglobin can be defined as a form of which has no oxygen binded to the hemoglobin.
When deoxyhemoglobin is replaced with oxyhemoglobin then the oxygen binds to the heme component of the hemoglobin protein in red blood cells.
Each heme group has iron atom that has the ability to bind to oxygen (02) molecule.
Four oxygen molecules bind to a single hemoglobin protein.
Hence, the correct answer is option D "Heme".
Answer:
Explanation:
B
No muscle works independently, with this in mind discuss the roles of agonists, antagonists synergists, and fixators in movement.
Answer and Explanation:
There are four major roles of muscles that provide the movement that are given bellow.
AGONIST : They are also known as prime movers it provides force to complete the movement.
example : flexion of elbow
ANTAGONIST : They oppose the movement which was produced by agonist
example : extension of elbow by triceps
NOTE : They also slows down the movements
SYNERGISTS : Their main role is to stabilize the joint in which moment take place they also help in performing the movement to agonist.
FIXATORS : Their main role is to stabilize the origin of agonists and stabilize the joint
example : Rotator cuff muscles
Final answer:
Agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators all play important roles in movement.
Explanation:
In movement, no muscle works independently, but rather they work together in pairs or groups. These groups include agonists, antagonists, synergists, and fixators, each with their own specific roles. The agonists are the prime movers that generate the main force for a particular movement, while antagonists oppose or resist the movements of the agonists. Synergists assist the agonists by providing additional force or stability, and fixators stabilize a muscle's origin so that the desired movement can occur.
Describe how the tibial collateral ligament could be damaged if the knee is impacted on the lateral surface.
Answer:
the tibial collateral ligament can be damaged when the knee is impacted on lateral surface -
Sprain is mild stretch or tear , Sprain is partial tear and Sprain is full tear of the ligament .
Explanation:
Tibial Collateral ligament
Tibial Collateral ligament is one of the four important ligaments in knee. It joins femur with tibia or shinbone. The kneecap sits in the middle of this joint. Ligaments are very sensitive to strains. Tibial collateral ligament is most common ligament to get damage, specially for athletes. There could be three form of injury to this ligament.
Grade 1
Sprain is mild stretch or tear,
Grade 2
Sprain is partial tear and
Grade 3
Sprain is full tear of the ligament.
The damage occurs due to sudden force which is extensive for the ligament and it overstretches. Sudden impact on lateral surface will push the knee sideways, giving stress on the ligament, making it overstretch; and if the force is too great ligament will tear.
Blood in the urine can be a sign of kidney damage. Why is blood not usually found in the urine of a healthy person?
Explanation:
The reason for the fact that the blood is usually not found in the urine of a healthy person is:
Kidneys are located in back just below the lowest rib. Each kidney is about 4.5 inches long and weighs about 5 ounces. Each kidney contains about a million functional units called nephrons.
Every nephron consists of glomerulus and tubule. Each glomerulus unit functions as tiny filter. Blood in the body passes through these glomerulus, that retains the blood cells and large biomolecules like proteins in circulation while allowing fluid and some small molecules to pass through to tubule.
As the fluid flows through tubules, much of the volume of the liquid is absorbed back in bloodstream. The tubules then join to form collecting system of each kidney. By this point, the concentrated fluid has all characteristics of the urine.
If blood occur in the urine, that means the nephrons cannot function properly which can lead to kidney damage.
A muscle spindle is composed of several?
Answer:
The muscle spindle is composed of several intrafusal muscle fibers, consisting of three types: static fibers, dynamic fibers and nuclear chain fibers. Its main function is the transmission of proprioceptive information from the body segments to the cortex, it also generates an environment of functional relaxation of the muscles, thus being responsible for avoiding muscle injuries.
Answer:
A muscle spindle fiber is composed of several specialized thin muscle fibers innervated by sensory neurons.
A muscle spindle consists of the several divided muscle fiber which are enclosed in the spindle-shaped connective tissue sac.
Muscle spindle consists of 5-14 muscle fibers. They are dynamic nuclear bag fiber, nuclear chain fibers and static nuclear bag fibers.
They form the muscles of he body that helps in the movement of the skeletal system and movement of the body.
Articulation betwwen the scapula and clavicle
Answer:
The answer to the question: Articulation between the scapula and clavicle, would be: Acromioclavicular joint.
Explanation:
In the human skeleton, the upper limbs are joined together to the torso by a series of joints, or articulations, which are basically the points at which two bones join each other. These articulations allow the bones to be together, while at the same time ensuring that there can be movement without the two bones hitting each other and damaging one another due to friction. The clavicle and the scapula are two such bones that articulate with the head of the humerus, to form the shoulder joint. Without these articulations, there would be no upper limbs at all. The point at which, the scapula, with its acromion, which is its final flap, and the distal end of the clavicle meet together, is called the acromioclavicular joint, in honor of the two bones and the portions of them that articulate.
Cordlike part that attaches a muscle to a bone
Answer:
Tendon
Explanation:
The Cordlike part that attaches to a muscle to a bone is called a Tendon because it's like an elastic cord to a strong fibrous collagen tissue that attaches the muscle to the bone
The external nose functions in :
a. modifying speech vibrations
b. detecting gustatory sensations
c. cooling and drying air entering the respiratory system
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The answer is E: A, B And C are correct.
Explanation:
The external nasal nose, in addition to its support function, presents others such as detecting odors, either from food or toxic substances; It has valves that initially clean the air entering the lungs, in addition to heating it, Also contributes to speech vibrations.
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
Answer:
the answer will be delayed cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in immunology. It indicates that the person's immune system has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Explanation:A positive tuberculin skin test is primarily an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in medical terminology. When a person is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, our body's immune system responds. The second time it encounters the same pathogen, the immune response is faster and stronger, which is captured by the tuberculin skin test. When the tuberculin, which contains inactivated tuberculosis bacteria, is injected under the skin, any prior exposure to the bacteria will trigger a reaction. This reaction appears as a hard, raised bump on the skin signifying a positive test.
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Describe the mutualistic relationship between the Trichonymphs, termite, and bacteria.
Answer:
Mutualism relationship.
Explanation:
Mutualism may be defined as a type of biological interaction in which the species get mutual benefit from each other. This is a type of positive relationship between the species.
Triconymphs has the enzyme glycoside hydrolase that has the capability of digesting cellulose and helps the termite. The termites provide shelter and food to the termites, thus shows mutualistic relationship. Bacteria present inside Triconymphs helps them in the digestion of lignin and in return Triconymphs provide them food and shelter. Hence, they all show the mutualistic relationships.
What is CHF and pulmonary edema?
Answer:
CHF or Congestive heart failure is defined as a chronic condition in which fluid builds up around the heart and causes it to pump inefficiently. this affects the pumping power of heart muscles. CHF arises when ventricles are unable to pump enough blood volume to body, then blood fills back to lungs, liver, abdomen or other lower body parts.
Most common cause of CHF can be hypertension, valve conditions and coronary artery disease. It can be treated by angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Pulmonary edema is defined as a condition in which fluid collects in the air sacs in lungs that makes breathing difficult due to excess fluid in the lungs. One of the cause of Pulmonary edema can be CHF (Congestive heart failure).
What is the equilibrium potential for Na?
a. 60 mv
b. +60 mv
c. -90 mv
d. 90 mv
Answer:
B. +60 mv
Explanation:
Equilibrium potential of ions is the difference of electric potential in the cell membrane that equilibrates the concentration gradient of an ion.
Final answer:
The equilibrium potential for sodium (Na) is (option b) +60 mV, representing the electrical potential at which the movement of Na+ ions across the cell membrane is balanced, with no net flux of Na+ ions into or out of the cell.
Explanation:
The equilibrium potential is a crucial concept in understanding how ions move across cell membranes, affecting the cell's electrical charge and contributing to processes such as nerve impulses and muscle contractions. Sodium ions (Na+) have a higher concentration outside the cell than inside. When sodium channels open, Na+ ions flow into the cell, moving down their concentration gradient. This influx of Na+ makes the inside of the cell more positive. The movement of sodium ions continues until the electrical potential inside the cell becomes positive enough to prevent further Na+ entry, reaching an equilibrium. According to provided information, the equilibrium potential for Na+ is around +60 mV. This potential is crucial for generating action potentials in neurons and muscle cells, where the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through voltage-gated sodium channels leads to the depolarization phase of the action potential.
What is the drug of choice to treat patients with bipolar disorder?
Answer:
The drugs of choice to treat Bipolar disorder are Anticonvulsant, Antipsychotic, and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI).
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder is a serious mental disorder, characterized by extreme episodes of mood swings from manic highs to depressive lows. Therefore Bipolar disorder is also called manic depression.
The drugs used to treat bipolar disorder are - Anticonvulsant, Antipsychotic, and Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI).
Antipsychotic drugs are often taken along with mood stabilizers to help stabilize the symptoms of mania.
On the 1 AM rounds, the nurse finds a patient awake and frustrated that she cannot go to sleep. The nurse administers an ordered hypnotic to help the patient sleep. Two hours later, the nurse finds the patient out of bed, full of energy, cleaning her room, and singing. Which of the following describes what is happening?
a. An allergic reaction
b. An idiosyncratic response
c. A teratogenic effect
d. A synergistic effect
Answer:
B. An idiosyncratic response.
Explanation:
It is also known as Type B response and is unusual or abnormal responses to a drug by an individual. This response cannot be reproduced in a substantial number of subjects in the population.
Normally they occur when the patient is first exposed to a new drug that had not been fully tested about its possible side-effects.
I hope this answer helps you.
Which statement is best to document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way?
a. "The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."
b. "The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."
c. "The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."
d. "The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."
The correct option is b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change.""
To document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way, it is important to describe the observable behaviors without adding interpretations, judgments, or assumptions. The statement in option b simply describes an action that was observed without attributing a motive or characterizing the patient's behavior in a subjective way.
Let's analyze each option:
a. ""The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."" - This statement is biased because it includes an interpretation of the patient's behavior as ""hostile,"" which is a subjective term.
b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."" - This statement is objective and factual, describing a specific behavior without interpretation or judgment.
c. ""The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."" - Similar to option a, this statement uses the subjective term ""rudeness"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is an interpretation rather than a direct observation.
d. ""The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."" - Again, this statement uses a subjective term, ""belligerent,"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is not an unbiased observation.
Therefore, option b is the best choice for documenting the patient's behavior in an unbiased manner. It reports the facts without including personal opinions or interpretations."
Which of the following is not a response to a decrease in blood pressure?
a. Angiotensin II
b. NE
c. ANP
d. ADH
Answer:
ADH.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also known as vasopressin and released from the posterior pituitary.This is a peptide hormone that regulates the physiological functioning of the body.
ADH hormone increases the blood pressure by constricting the blood arteries increases the insertion of aquaporin in the kidney. Hence, ADH is not a response to decrease in a blood pressure.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
As a result of cold environmental temperatures. T3/T4 production _______:
a. remains unchanged
b. increases
c. decreases
This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding.
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. LH
d. insulin
e. aldosterone
f. ACTH
Answer:
This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding: oxytocin - a.
Write a short journal on the benefits of stress to nursing student.
Nursing students are prone to stress due to the transitional nature of college life. High levels of stress are believed to affect student's health and academic functions.
Which hormone is secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas?
a. glucose
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
d. glycogen
Answer:
glucose
Explanation:
glucose is the answer
Calcium channel blockers mechanism of action. True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Calcium channel blockers are NOT a mechanism of action.
What is an antigen?
a) a molecule keyed to a particular pathogen that helps target it for destruction
b) a substance that triggers an allergic reaction
c) a substance that triggers an immune response
d) immune cells that ingest and digest pathogens
e) immune cells that insert a fragment of a pathogen into a surface protein
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Antigen is defined as a protein or polysaccharide that arises an immune response in lymphocytes. Antigen is a substance that binds to a specific antibody.
For human body, an antigen can be any substance that evokes immune response, Example: dust particle,pollen grain, any food particle. The interaction between antibody and antigen is defined from lock-and-key binding model.
Antigen receptor, are located on B cells and T cells, that binds to antigens and initiates potential immune responses.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesteronde and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Answer:
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesterone and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Explanation:
When the follicular phase begins, estrogen and progesterone levels are low. As a consequence, decomposition and shedding of the upper layers of the uterine lining (endometrium) occurs and menstruation takes place.
The answer is: d. the follicular phase.
Pharmacology integrates an understanding of the:
a. transformation of plants and living organisms into effective medications
b. the synthesis of drugs in pharmaceutical laboratories
c. treatment of disease through naturally occurring substances
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Answer:
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Explanation:
Pharmacology involves action, movement and research in use of drugs in living systems. Also regards the effects of substances like caffeine, antibiotics. The sciences studies the process that occur as they come to the body, since any drug will change the internal chemical balances. Bodies will respond. The changes will happen, and thus we develop better drugs
Main applications include:
Searching or discovery of better medicines to fight diseases, preferably reducing side effects. Studying differences among the experiences led by different target populations with the same drugs and other variables.
Pharmacology lies at the heart of biomedical science, linking together chemistry, physiology and pathology. Pharmacologists work closely with a wide variety of other disciplines that make up modern biomedical science, including neuroscience, molecular and cell biology, immunology and cancer biology.
Pharmacological knowledge improves the lives of millions of people across the world. It maximises their benefit and minimises risk and harm
As new diseases emerge, and older medicines - like antibiotics - no longer work as well, the contribution of pharmacology to finding better and safer medicines becomes all the more vital.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion for labor augmentation. The nurse notes six contractions in a 10 min period with a non-reassuring FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
b. Turn the client to her left side.
c. Administer terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously.
d. Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask.
Answer:
The answer is A discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Explanation:
Oxytocin is a medicine used to help labor when it is dysfunctional, it is necessary to keep in mind with the use of this medicine, the baby's respiratory rate and the number of uterine contractions in a minute to decide whether or not to continue with this medicine.
Final answer:
The first action a nurse should take if a client receiving oxytocin for labor augmentation shows signs of fetal distress is to discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion to reduce the risk of fetal distress by decreasing uterine contractions. The correct answer is a. Discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Explanation:
When a client is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion for labor augmentation and is observed to have six contractions in a 10-minute period with a non-reassuring Fetal Heart Rate (FHR), the first action the nurse should take is to discontinue the oxytocin IV infusion.
Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, reducing oxygenated blood flow to the fetus, possibly leading to fetal distress. Immediate cessation of oxytocin can decrease the frequency of contractions and decrease the risk of further distress to the fetus. Following this, the nurse should reposition the client, administer medications as ordered, or apply oxygen as needed to optimize fetal oxygenation and maternal comfort.
The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body's internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. melatonin
d. cortisol
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body´s internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?, would be, C: Melatonin.
Explanation:
The process of sleep and wakefulness, also called the circadian cycle, its a pretty complex system that is controlled by several parts of the brain, but most importantly, structures of the diencephalon (vital is the hypothalamus), the pineal gland, and the stem of the brain. All these structures, and some others, respond to changes both in light perception by the eyes and other senses, heat, and homeostatic balances. These factor play a vital role in telling the human body that it is time for sleep, or to awaken. The pineal gland, as part of this melody, is essential, as it secretes the hormone, melatonin, in response to light changes. Melatonin will balance out the process of sleep, when it is secreted in high quantities by the pineal gland, and wakefulness, when it is no longer secreted in response to the presence of light. This is what is called the circadian cycle.
What are five common symptoms caused by lesions of the cerebellum?
Answer:
1.Poor coordination.
2.Unsteady walk
3.Difficulty with fine motor tasks,
4.back-and-forth eye movements
5.Difficulty swallowing.
Explanation:
Ataxia or lesion of the cerebellum shows a lack of muscle control, such as walking or picking up objects, coordination of voluntary movement. It can affect movements, eye movement, creating difficulties with speech, and swallowing.
persistent lesion of the cerebellum usually causes damage to the part of your brain cerebellum that controls movement and coordination.
Thus, the mentioned symptoms are given above.
Lesions of the cerebellum can cause symptoms such as ataxia, sensory deficits, gait and station problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty maintaining balance.
Explanation:The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, so lesions in this area can cause various symptoms. Some common symptoms caused by lesions of the cerebellum include:
Ataxia: Loss of coordination in voluntary movementsSensory deficits: Problems with balance and proprioceptionGait and station problems: Difficulty with walking and maintaining a stable postureMuscle weakness: Difficulty moving and performing tasks that require muscle strengthDifficulty maintaining balance: Trouble staying upright and steadyLearn more about Symptoms of lesions in the cerebellum here:https://brainly.com/question/12993500
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During what stage of spermatogenesis do the developing sperm lose most of their organelles and cytoplasm?
a. capacitation
b. spermiation
c meiotic division
d. spermiogenesis
e. mitotic division
Answer: d. spermiogenesis
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis is a process that occurs in the testicles, the male gonads. The cells of the testicles are organized around the seminiferous tubules, in which the sperm are produced. Testosterone is secreted by interstitial cells. Surrounding the seminiferous tubules are the Sertoli cells responsible for nutrition and support of the germline cells, that is, those that will generate the sperm. Spermatogenesis is divided into four phases, but we will be looking only at one stage to answer this question:
Spermiogenesis: It is the process that converts spermatids in sperm, losing almost the entire cytoplasm. The vesicles of the Golgi complex fuse together, forming the acrosome, located at the anterior end of sperm. The acrosome contains enzymes that pierce the membranes of the egg, in fertilization. Centrioles migrate to the region immediately after the nucleus of the spermatid and participate in flagella formation, the structure responsible for the movement of sperm.
Answer: b. spermiation
Explanation:
Spermiogenesis is one of the processes of spermatogenesis. In this stage the maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa takes place. The mature spermatozoa are released from the Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule, this process is known as spermiation. The spermiation removes the unnecessary cytoplasm and organelles. The mature spermatozoa are mature but it lacks the motility.
The origins of skeletal muscles:
a. represent the attachment to the movable bone
b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
c. is usually far away from the site of action
d. all of the above are correct
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
Explanation:
The origin is the site that doesn't move while muscle contracts. The insertion is the site that does move when the muscle contraction occurs.
The skeletal Muscles in most of the cases have the origin at the attachment to the immovable bones. During contraction, it produces an action or a movement of the appendage.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. is the attachment to the immovable bone.
Which of the following disorders results from a deficiency of factor VIII?
a. Sickle cell disease
b. Christmas disease
c. Hemophilia A
d. Hemophilia B
Answer:
(c). Hemophilia A
Explanation:
Hemophilia A can be defined as a genetic disorder, characterized by severe external or internal bleeding. Hemophilia A is caused by defective or missing factor VIII, due to mutation in gene for factor VIII that leads to formation of a non-function or truncated clotting protein.
Factor VIII is a blood clotting protein, which prevents excessive blood loss during injury. Hence, deficiency of factor VIII can leads to development of hemophilia A.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Vertical transmission of HSV-2, typically occurs during?
a) Fetal development
b) Birthing (Passage through birth canal)
c) Breast Feeding
d) Vertical Transmission is not possible
Answer:
The correct response to the question: Vertical transmission of HSV-2, typically occurs during, would be: B: Birthing (passage through the birth canal).
Explanation:
HSV, be it type 1, or 2, are both of the herpesviridae family. This virus, also called herpes simplex, usually causes lesions of the skin in areas where the nerves where they reside, are present. As such, the herpes virus resides in latent form inside certain nerve clusters, like the trigeminal ganglia, or the lumbosacral ganglia, and becomes activated given the right conditions, to form lessions that are visible in the skin. During pregnancy, the possibility of a fetus acquiring the infection is present, but not as common, and can only happen during the first 20 weeks of gestation. Most commonly, however, is the vertical passage of the herpes infection from mother to child during birth, and some times post-partum, when the baby comes into contact with lessions. But the most common form, is during the birthing process, when the baby comes into contact with vaginal skin lessions.