Answer:
She mentions that more than ninety percent of the big fish in the ocean have been fished and eaten. That almost half of the coral reefs are dying and disappearing. She also mentions how oxygen levels are decreasing causing the ecosystem and wildlife to die.
*WARNING*
Do not copy this word for word as you'll be caught for plagarism!
Explanation:
The first minute of the talk:
"I want to share with you my personal view of changes in the sea that affect all of us, and to consider why it matters that in 50 years, we've lost -- actually, we've taken, we've eaten -- more than 90 percent of the big fish in the sea; why you should care that nearly half of the coral reefs have disappeared; why a mysterious depletion of oxygen in large areas of the Pacific should concern not only the creatures that are dying, but it really should concern you. It does concern you, as well."
Final answer:
Human activities over the past 50 years have led to significant changes in the oceans, including sea-level rise, decrease in fish populations, ocean acidification, introduction of non-native species, and pollution and habitat destruction.
Explanation:
Human Impacts on the Oceans
In the past 50 years, human activities have significantly altered the oceans. Some of the changes include:
Sea-level Change: Due to climate change, sea levels have been rising, affecting coastal processes and habitats like salt marshes.Decrease in Fish Populations: Overfishing and changes in marine ecosystems have led to large decreases in the abundance of fish.Ocean Acidification: The increase in carbon dioxide emissions has resulted in acidification of oceans, affecting marine life with calcium carbonate shells.Introduction of Non-native Species: Global commerce and other human activities have introduced thousands of invasive species, causing ecological and economic harm.Pollution and Habitat Destruction: Activities such as bottom trawl fishing, coastal development, and aquaculture have damaged marine habitats and contributed to pollution.These are just a few examples of the human impacts on ocean ecosystems, illustrating the urgent need for conservation and sustainable management of ocean resources.
The lengthy small intestine receives secretions from the ____________ and ____________, completes digestion of the nutrients in ________________, absorbs the products of digestion, and transports the remaining residues to the ________________ intestine.
Answer:The lengthy small intestine receives secretions from the ______pancrease______ and ______liver______, completes digestion of the nutrients in _________chyme_______, absorbs the products of digestion, and transports the remaining residues to the ________large________ intestine.
Explanation: digestion of food is necessary for absorption of nutrients. In this process food is broken down into forms that can be absorbed by the body . food is broken down by the teeth and the enzymes in saliva,when it is in the mouth. From there it moves to the stomach through the oesophagus. In the stomach, the content is further mixed with enzymes and the churning breaks down food further.From the stomach food moves to the small intestine. In the small intestine, digestive enzymes from the pancreas and liver acts on food. The small intestine is where digested food is absorbed.it has a large surface area and finger-like projection called villi to carry out the function of absorbing nutrients.
From there, undigested food us passed to the large intestine from where it is passed out through the anus
In the process of isolating DNA for transcription and translation, you digest the DNA with BamHI ad ligate the gene into a plasmid vector. However, even though all of the controls work, no transcription is obtained using your fragment. Working backward, you note that restriction digestion has removed approximately 250 base pairs from the 5' end of the gene. What is a possible explanation for this observation?
Answer:
the promoter was removed
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that one possible explanation for this observation is that the promoter was removed. The promoter is a sequence of DNA which protein bind to in order to initiate transcription of a single RNA from the DNA downstream of it. Therefore if the promoter was removed, no transcription would be initiated, such as it happened in this situation.
What is an essential task by which the circulatory system helps the body maintain homeostasis by?
Answer:
Transporting Nutrients.
Answer:
Moving blood throughout the body.
Explanation:
The circulatory system is basically your blood vessels, and the system's main task is to transport blood around. This makes sure that the body's temperatures remain consistent, that blood is directed where it needs to be, and that the nutrients in the blood are transported.
Although birds and mammals descended from differentancestors, they both have a four-chambered heart. Thisis the result of:_________
A) the necessity for rapid movement of blood.
B) convergent evolution.
C) genetic aberrations that resulted from mistakes insomatic cell division.
D) the simplification of the cardiovascular system
Answer: B) convergent evolution.
Explanation:
Convergent evolution in evolutionary biology is the process according to which, organisms that are not closely related, develop similar traits independently so that they will be able to adapt to similar ecological niches or environments.
Several examples of convergent evolution are shark and dolphin heads, bat and insect wings, and a four-chambered heart of birds and mammals. Analogous structures emerge from convergent evolution, but neither do homologous structures.
Hence, the correct option is B) convergent evolution.
Contraction of myofibrils within a muscle fiber begins when
Answer: calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
Muscle contraction is the stimulation of sites that produce stress within muscle fibres.
Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin in inducing muscle fibre contraction, exposing active site for Crossbridge formation on actin. Then ATP binds to myosin, transferring the myosin to its high-energy state, freeing the myosin head from the active actin site. Triggering tension-generating sites within muscle fibres.
Hence, the contraction process is initiated with teh relaease of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Contraction of myofibrils within a muscle fiber begins when calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions to contract muscle fibre myofibrils. Calcium ions are released into the cytoplasm by muscle fibre nerve impulses. Calcium ions bind to troponin on myofibril thin filaments.
Calcium binding to troponin promotes a conformational shift that pushes tropomyosin away from actin filament myosin-binding sites. The exposed myosin-binding sites allow myosin heads to build cross-bridges with actin filaments.
The cross-bridge cycle follows for myosin heads. Myosin heads swivel and create force using hydrolyzed ATP, causing actin filaments to slide through. ATP hydrolysis and calcium ions power cross-bridge cycling, which contracts myofibrils and shortens muscle fibres.
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Gluconeogenesis shares some, but not all, enzymes with the glycolytic pathway. It would appear to be more efficient if both pathways used all of the same enzymes since the pathways are essentially the reverses of each other. Why don't both pathways use all of the same enzymes?
A) The reactions where enzymes differ occur in different parts of the cell for glycolysis versus gluconeogenesis.
B) Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only in one direction, so naturally the two pathways have some enzymes that differ.
C) In tissues where gluconeogenesis occurs, the glycolytic enzymes are present at extremely low concentrations.
D) Three of the reaction steps in gluconeogenesis would have prohibitively large, positive free energies if they used glycolytic enzymes for their catalysis.
Answer:
D) Three of the reaction steps in gluconeogenesis would have prohibitively large, positive free energies if they used glycolytic enzymes for their catalysis.
Explanation:
The glycolytic enzymes catalyze the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, while gluconeogenesis enzymes catalyze the formation of carbohydrates from pyruvate.
A disease caused the population of small planktivorous fish in the region to sharply decline. How will this situation affect the competition for food in the region? Consider direct and indirect effects.
This situation would lead to increase in price of this kind of food and increase in demand of other close substitutes.
Explanation:
With the decrease in the small planktivorous fish in the region would definitely affect the situation of food in that region because the demand would be high but the supply would be less. Thus the price of this kind of fish will increase.
The other effects of this situation would be increase in the demand of the other close substitutes of this kind of fish in this region for the consumption of the people.
Answer:
The zooplankton population may rise because the small planktivorous fish eat them for food. There also may be more phytoplankton for bivalves and small invertebrates because there will be less competition for these food resources from small planktivorous fish. But gulls, terns, large fish, and wading birds will have much more competition for food, both interspecific and intraspecific. This competition can indirectly affect the food supply for large carnivorous birds, such as bald eagles and ospreys. If the large fish don’t have enough food to survive, their populations may also decline, which will decrease the food supply for these larger carnivores.
Explanation:
answer from Plato
which statements best describe gases
Imagine a species with three loci thought to be on the same chromosome. The recombination rate between locus A and locus B is 35%, and the recombination rate between locus B and locus C is 33%. Predict the recombination rate between A and C.
Answer:
Recombination rate or recombination frequency between locus A and locus C is either 2% or 50%.Explanation:
As given,
Recombination frequency between locus A and B is 35%, means that the distance between A and B is 35 cM.
Recombination frequency between locus B and C is 33% , means the distance between B and C is 33 cM.
Therefore, if the locus C is present between A and B, then the recombination frequency between A and C would be 2%
A-----C ----------B
A---C= 2%
A----B= 35%
B---C= 33%
So, here the recombination frequency between A and C is 2%, means their distance is 2 cM.
If the locus C is as, A---35---B--33----C ; A-----B------C
A-----B= 35%
B------C= 33%
A-----C= 33+35= 68%
As rule, maximum frequency can not exceed 50%, as here the Recombination frequency between A and C = 50%.
2) A population of animals is permanently split by a natural barrier into two separate populations in different environments. What will likely result after a long period of time? A) The evolution of the two populations will be identical. B) The production of variations will stop in the two populations. C) The two populations will evolve into separate species. D) Autotrophic nutrition will replace heterotrophic nutrition in the two populations.
Answer:
C) The two populations will evolve into separate species.
Explanation:
In the given question, the population of animals has been split into two different populations due to a natural barrier present between them.
When we will observe these species after a very long time, the species will not be able to reproduce with each other and will be reproductively isolated. This reproductive isolation will lead to the formation of new species but belonging to the same genus.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
A patient is being treated with albendazole [Albenza] for neurocysticercosis caused by larval forms of the pork tapeworm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the drug regimen?
A. "I may need to take this medication for a month before the infestation is cleared."
B. "I should take this drug with a fatty meal to improve absorption."
C. "I will need to have liver function tests before and during treatment."
D. "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free
days."
Answer:
D. "I will take the drug in 3 consecutive cycles of 28 days, followed by 14 drug-free days."Explanation:
Albendazole us a type of medicine that is used to treat the infections that are caused due to certain worms. This drug prevents the larval form to multiply or their growth. Since the larval forms of the tapeworm Taenia solium are responsible to develop neurocysticercosis disease. This disease mainly affects the central nervous system and generally causes epilepsy and some other neurological infections. So drug such as albendazole is taken in a consecutive way that is based on 8 to 30 days to treat this disease. This drug is used with a high-fat meal to increase absorption.a car traveling 65 mph is an example of its
Answer:
speed
Explanation:
mph=miles per hour, which indicates speed
A researcher who detects a higher-than-normal amount of interferon in a laboratory rat would correctly conclude that a.the rat has, or recently had, a viral infection. b.cancerous cells are present in the rat. c.the rat's diet is deficient in calcium.d.monocytes are differentiation into macrophages in the rat's bloodstream.
Answer: I don’t know
Explanation:
Trace the ductal pathway from the epididymis to the urethra. (Module 26.5C)
epididymis,
seminal gland,
ampulla of ductus deferens,
ductus deferens,
ejaculatory duct,
urethra
Answer:
epididymis
ductus deferens
ampulla of ductus deferens
seminal gland
ejaculatory duct
urethra
Explanation:
Epididymis is a tube that connects the back side of the testicles to the vas deferens (ductus deferens). The vas deferens is the connecting link between epididymis and urinary tract/urethra and is responsible for transporting sperm to the urethra. Seminal vesicles are small glands that lie above the prostate gland and make up more than 50% of the total semen. Seminal vesicles are connected to the vas deferens through ejaculatory duct. This duct empties sperm and semen into the urethra
Hence, the correct order is
epididymis
ductus deferens
ampulla of ductus deferens
seminal gland
ejaculatory duct
urethra
Besides the ability of some cancer cells to over proliferate, which of the following situations might logically result in a tumor? A) changes in the order of cell cycle stages B) lack of appropriate cell death C) inability to form spindles D) failure of cells to enter S phase
Answer: A
Explanation: Cancer is unchecked cell growth. Mutations in genes can cause cancer by accelerating cell division rates or inhibiting normal controls on the system, such as cell cycle arrest or programmed cell death. As a mass of cancerous cells grows, it can develop into a tumor.
Besides the ability of some cancer cells to over proliferate, the following situations might logically result in a tumor - B) lack of appropriate cell death.
Cancer is unchecked cell growth or uncontrolled cell production or proliferation. Mutations in genes can cause cancer.
Mutation in genes that are associated with inhibiting normal controls on the system, such as cell cycle arrest or programmed cell death.As a mass of cancerous cells grows, it can develop into a tumor.The loss of apoptotic control allows cancer cells to survive longer and causes the accumulation of mutations.It increases invasiveness during tumor progression, stimulates angiogenesis, deregulates cell proliferation, and interferes with differentiationThus, Besides the ability of some cancer cells to over proliferate, the following situations might logically result in a tumor - B) lack of appropriate cell death.
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what is the Japanese tree frog's scientific name?
Answer:
Either Dryophytes japonicus or Hyla japonica
Explanation:
The scientific name for the Japanese tree frog is Hyla japonica, an amphibian species displaying the significant biodiversity found in these creatures.
The scientific name of the Japanese tree frog is Hyla japonica. Japanese tree frogs are a species found in East Asia, known for their unique calls and adaptation to both forest and human-modified environments.
They are an example of the biodiversity and complexity of amphibian life, much like the Australian green tree frog and the Limosa Harlequin Frog (Atelopus limosus), the latter of which is an endangered species from Panama known to suffer from a fungal disease called chytridiomycosis, as highlighted in several figures with the red lesions being indicative of this disease.
Which of the following traits do archaeans and eukaryotes share? Which of the following traits do archaeans and eukaryotes share? presence of a nuclear envelope presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall presence of introns sensitivity to streptomycin
Answer:
presence of introns
Explanation:
The only trait that archaeans and eukaryotes share of all the options is the presence of introns.
Introns are also known as the non-coding segments of transcribed RNA. They are as opposed to the coding segments known as exons.
When RNAs are transcribed from DNAs, not all the sequence is translated during protein synthesis. Some sections in the sequence do not code for any trait. Thus, these sections are cut off from the RNA. The coding segments (exons) are then joined back before they are utilized in protein synthesis.
Both archaeans and eukaryotes are known to have non-coding segments in their transcribed tRNA.
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In the process of carbon fixation, three molecules of RuBP combine with three molecules of CO2 to produce three six-carbon molecules, which are then split to produce 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. After phosphorylation and reduction produce 12 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), what more needs to happen to complete the Calvin cycle?
The study of plants is called botany.
The correct answer to the following question is regeneration.
What is the Calvin cycle?The formation of food in the presence of sunlight in a few plant species is called the Calvin cycle.Steps involve the Calvin cycle?CarboxylationReductionEndothermic repetitionRegeneration
After the process of carbon fixation, three molecules of RuBP combine with three molecules of CO2 to produce three six-carbon molecules, which are then split to produce 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. After phosphorylation and reduction produce 12 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
The RUBP compound released from the G3P compound to start the cycle again as the primary acceptor of the carbon dioxide is RUBP which makes the First stable compound.
Hence, the correct answer is regeneration.
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Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
a) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue.
b) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue.
c) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens.
d) sets the stage for repair processes.
Answer:
B) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue.
Explanation:
Inflammatory response:
When there is injury to the tissues by bacteria, toxins, heat, trauma or by any means then inflammatory response occurs by release of chemicals known as histamine, prostaglandins, bradykinin. It will prevent the spread of injurious agent to nearby tissue. It causes the swelling of tissue by liquid from the vessels. It also disposes of the pathogen and cellular debries and help in the repair of damage tissues.
Replacement of injured tissues with connective tissue is not a function of the inflammatory response, hence option B is correct.
Histamine, prostaglandins, and bradykinin are released as part of the inflammatory response when tissues are damaged by bacteria, toxins, heat, trauma, or any other reason. It will stop the harmful chemical from spreading to neighboring tissue.
The liquid from the arteries produces the swelling of the tissue. Additionally, it eliminates the pathogen and cellular debris and aids in the healing of injured tissues.
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The mutations that made snake venom deadlier over time had a positive impact on those snakes. How might those mutations have had a negative impact on other organisms in that environment?
Answer:
Explanation:
Im not 100% sure, but I think that because the snake venom gets stronger, other species that have adapted to the weaker venom have a harder time fighting it. For example, the honey badger can fight of snake venom with its very thick skin and ability to sleep it off. However, if the snake venom got stronger/deadlier, the honey badger would have a much harder time fighting it, and might die.
Gene duplication has made the snake venom deadlier over time had a positive impact on the snakes. This is because this resulted into more production of venom.
What is gene duplication?
Gene duplication is a type of mutation. In this process, a region of DNA coding for a gene is copied twice. Gene duplication can occur as the result of an error in the recombination during meiosis or through a retro-transposition event in the gene. Duplicate genes are often immune to the selective pressure under which the genes normally exist.
Gene duplication is the common mechanism of evolution which is thought to be followed by natural selection for adaptive traits in a species. The adaptations produced through this process include the production of venom more toxic to specific prey in several lineages, proteins that pre-digest prey, and also a method to track down prey population after a bite.
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A bird flew and landed on its swing. When the bird "hit" the swing, the swing began to move back and forth. What happened when the bird landed on the swing?
A. Energy was transferred from the air to the swing.
B. The swing and the bird gained energy.
C. The swing's energy and the bird's energy each stayed the same.
D. Some of the bird's energy was transferred to the swing.
Answer:
D. Some of the bird's energy was transferred to the swing.
Which antivenom will save
Tyler?
Answer: Anticenom D
Explanation
The snake that bit Tyler is
= most closely related to a
tiger snake. Tyler needed
antivenom D but now it's too
latel Venoms from similar
snake species tend to be
Ealike so the same
Tyler will be saved by Antivenom D.
What do you mean by Antivenom?
Antivenom may be defined as a form of antibodies that are synthesized in animals by injecting a small amount of venom.
Antivenoms commonly function by stimulating your immune response after a specific type of snake bite.
Therefore, Tyler will be rescued by Antivenom D.
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I NEED THE ANSWER TO THE QUESTION!!! FRIST PERSON GETS BRAINLIEST!! I NEED THIS ANSWER BEFORE 1 hour.
Kilauea is a Hawaiian volcano that erupted in 1959, destroying vegetation and animal life over an area of 5 million square meters. Before the eruption, many organisms lived on the volcano in a rain forest community. The rain forest was dominated by ohia trees and two species of tree ferns. Small trees, tall shrubs, and herbaceous plants (plants lacking woody tissues) were also present. After the eruption, scientists closely monitored the area to track the recolonization of the devastated habitat. Scientists did not find any organisms living in this area for the first six months following the eruption. The table below shows the changes in one localized area that was covered by a massive amount of lava rock with many cracks and crevices. Despite the colonization of the area by several different types of organisms by year 9, the overall cover of the habitat was so low that the surface still looked barren. The community continued to change after year 9 of this study. a. Identify the ecological process taking place over the nine years of this study. b. Describe the expected distribution of the five original types
of organisms on Kilauea in another 20 years. Explain your reasoning.
Answer:
In the graph it shows the change in the ecosystem over the course of 9 years. Slowly plant life reappeared. Year one after the eruption, when the plant life started to grow back again, competition wasn't a problem and algae, mosses, and ferns grew back quicker than the rest although at the end seed plants were more common. So on that note, in another 20 years, the area will indeed come back as a forest like before. And most likely, animals will come back. There will be more seed plants than the rest of the organisms because at the end of the 9 year study, they grew more and more. But lichens won't be common because of their low number throughout the nine years.
Sorry if it its not quite correct
Which of these explain how ice cores can be used to correlate atmospheric makeup and climate changes over time?
A) As ice melts into water, the thermal expansion traps gases from the atmosphere that can later be analyzed
B)As ice forms, a latent heat is released from the ice. This causes carbon dioxide levels to increase in the atmosphere.
C) As snow packs freeze and build up gradually over time, gases from the atmosphere are trapped within the ice and can be analyzed.
D) As snow falls onto an existing glacier, methane is released and carbon dioxide is trapped, indicating the makeup of the atmosphere at a particular time period.
Answer is C according to Usatestpep
Answer:
C if you are in USATestPrep
how do you describe muscle insertion?
Answer:
Skeletal muscles are attached to bones on each end by tendons. The origin is the fixed attachment, while the insertion moves with contraction. The action, or particular movement of a muscle, can be described relative to the joint or the body part moved.
The insertion of the muscle is defined as that end of the muscle that attaches to the freely moving bone of its joint. To understand muscles and joint movements, there are four things to keep in mind:
Movement happens at joints, where one bone acts freely as the other remains relatively stationary.
The bones can and do switch roles depending on the action you're making and the position you're in, but such is knowledge is a bit more advanced. (The Pilates method takes advantage of this phenomenon in the design of exercises that work your "anti-gravity" muscles.)
That said, a brief example is the comparison between walking and bending over while in a standing position. Both use the same hip action — flexion — but when you walk, your leg is freely mobile. When you bend over at the hips, your pelvis is the bone that is performing the movement.
Muscle attachments are named with this in functionality mind, so the label is given to an insertion (one of the two types of attachments) generally includes a reference to the bone that does the moving most of the time. In our walking versus bending at the hip example above, we walk way more than we bend over at the hips. This means that some of the muscles that go from pelvis to thigh bone reflect the fact that the thigh bone is freely movable during walking. An example of this is the rectus femoris, that big bulky muscle that lives at the front of your thigh. The word "femoris" refers to your thigh bone.
For your internship at the local zoo, you have been assigned to help with the new orangutan-breeding program. Little is known about orangutan reproductive hormones, but hormone feedback cycles are often the same in closely related animals. You have been asked to use your knowledge of the interactions of human reproductive hormones to recommend injections to promote ovulation in a female orangutan when a visiting male arrives for a brief breeding visit.
Refer to the paragraph on the orangutan breeding program. Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation right away?
vasopressin, LH, estradiol, progesterone, or testosterone?
Answer:
luteinizing hormone (LH) is mainly used to induce ovulation.
Explanation:
Ovulation refers to the release of an egg.During menstruation ovarian follicle discharges an egg.The egg is also known as an ovum, oocyte, or female gamete. It is only released on reaching maturity.
Ovulation induction uses hormonal therapy to stimulate egg development and release egg or ovulate.
By increasing the production of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) by the pituitary gland, follicles are stimulated and hence egg growth is seen.
A surge in the Luteinizing hormone (LH) causes the egg to release or ovulate. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced and released in the anterior pituitary gland. This hormone is a gonadotrophic hormone and plays an important role in controlling the function of ovaries in females and testes in males.
In women, the hormone stimulates the ovaries to produce oestradiol. Two weeks into a woman's cycle, a surge in luteinizing hormone causes the ovaries to release an egg during ovulation. If fertilization occurs, luteinizing hormone will stimulate the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone to sustain the pregnancy.
Imagine you are a following the path of an oxygen molecule into the body. List the following structures in the correct order that the oxygen molecule would travel through them. Start with where oxygen would enter the body and end the location at which oxygen would enter the blood. TRACHEA, LARYNX, ALVEOLUS, BRONCHIOLE, PULMONARY CAPILLARY, NASAL CAVITY, PHARYNX, and BRONCHUS.
The correct order that an oxygen molecule would travel through the structures of the lower respiratory system is: Nasal Cavity, Pharynx, Larynx, Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveolus (Alveolar Sacs), Pulmonary Capillary.
Explanation:The correct order that an oxygen molecule would travel through the structures of the lower respiratory system is as follows:
Nasal CavityPharynxLarynxTracheaBronchiBronchiolesAlveolus (Alveolar Sacs)Pulmonary CapillaryWhen we breathe in, air enters the nasal cavity and then travels through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. The oxygen eventually reaches the alveoli, which are surrounded by capillary networks. It is at this point that gas exchange occurs and oxygen diffuses into the blood through the pulmonary capillaries.
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"The correct order in which an oxygen molecule would travel through the structures from entry into the body to entering the blood is as follows:
1. NASAL CAVITY
2. PHARYNX
3. LARYNX
4. TRACHEA
5. BRONCHUS
6. BRONCHIOLE
7. ALVEOLUS
8. PULMONARY CAPILLARY
Here is the explanation and logic for the
1. NASAL CAVITY: The journey of an oxygen molecule begins here, where air is inhaled through the nose. The nasal cavity warms, humidifies, and filters the air.
2. PHARYNX: After passing through the nasal cavity, the air enters the pharynx, which is a passageway leading to both the esophagus and the larynx.
3. LARYNX: The air then moves into the larynx, also known as the voice box, which serves as a passageway for air and also contains the vocal cords for sound production.
4. TRACHEA: From the larynx, the air proceeds into the trachea, or windpipe, which is a tube reinforced by cartilage rings that keeps it open for airflow.
5. BRONCHUS: The trachea divides into two main bronchi, one leading to each lung. These are the primary conduits for air into the lungs.
6. BRONCHIOLE: The bronchi further divide into smaller tubes called bronchioles, which deliver air to the alveoli.
7. ALVEOLUS: The bronchioles end in tiny air sacs called alveoli, where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. This is the site of gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries.
8. PULMONARY CAPILLARY: Finally, the oxygen molecule diffuses across the thin walls of the alveoli into the pulmonary capillaries, where it binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells to be transported throughout the body.
This sequence represents the pathway of oxygen from the external environment to the bloodstream, where it can be distributed to tissues and cells for cellular respiration."
What are the most abundant animals found in the pelagic zone
Answer:
Zooplankton
Explanation:
They are considered to be the most abundant in this particular zone.
What is the normal respiration rate for horses, in breaths per minute?
A. 45 to 54
B. 180 to 190
C. 70 to 84
D. 10 to 14
Answer:
The answer is D. 10 to 14 if you are on plato. I just took the test.
Explanation:
10.
Choose the best answer.
The city limits represents which part of the cell?
cell membrane
lysosomes
cytoplasm
nucleus
11.
Choose the best answer.
Which level of organization is blood?
cell
organ
organ system
tissue
12.
Choose the best answer.
What happens during prophase?
the nucleus disappears
chromosomes move to the edges
cell life cycle
cells reproduce
13.
Choose the best answer.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
packaging proteins
energy
control mechanisms
reproduction
14.
Choose the best answer.
Contractions during labor are _____ feedback mechanism.
positive
mitotic
negative
meiotic
15.
Choose the best answer.
Simple epithelial tissue has _____ layer(s).
two
one
three
four
16.
Choose the best answer.
Which is NOT a classification of muscle tissue?
dense
cardiac
skeletal
smooth
17.
Choose the best answer.
How does a positive feedback loop respond to a variable?
changes the stimulus
makes no change
increases the stimulus
stops the stimulus
18.
Choose the best answer.
Lysosomes are responsible for _____.
waste removal
control mechanisms
reproduction
packaging proteins
19.
Choose the best answer.
An overgrowth of cells is called _____.
cytokinesis
meiosis
cancer
disease
20.
Choose the best answer.
What is the receptor’s role in the homeostatic control mechanisms?
determines the best response
sets the control point
sends the message to the variable
recognizes the variable
Answer:
10A
11A
12A
13B
14A
15B
16A
17c
18A
19C
20c