In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, Select one: a. the proteins exist in a bilayer formation. b. the phospholipids are tightly bound in place. c. the carbohydrates are found exclusively on the intracellular surface of the membrane. d. the phospholipids act as a barrier to the passage of polar substances between the ICF and ECF e. the phospholipids arrange themselves into the shape of a channel, in order to allow ions to transport across the membrane.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

D) The phospholipids act as a barrier to the passage of polar substances between the ICF and ECF

Explanation:

The plasma membrane is made up of four major kinds of molecules which include; proteins, carbohydrates, cholesterol and phospholipids.

Phospholipids are the main structure of plasma membranes. The structure of phospholipids help it serve as a barrier by playing a role in the regulation of the movement of polar molecules intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments and therefore, protect the cell.

The phospholipid structure can be described as having two ends of a head and a tail. The head end is hydrophilic or water-loving, and contains a phosphate group. The tail is hydrophobic and is made up of fatty acid chains.

Phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer with the hydrophilic head facing outwards into the ECF and ICF and the hydrophobic tail facing inwards.

Examples of phospholipids found in the plasma membrane are phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylserine.


Related Questions

Which of these components of the human body can control heartbeat?
I.Epinephrine (Adrenaline),
II. ADH Hormone,
III. Nerves from the brain

Answers

it’s I. Adrenaline, because it makes the body react more quickly and to do that your blood flow needs to go faster. It also stimulates the body to use sugar for fuel.
Final answer:

Nerves from the brain control heartbeat.

Explanation:

The component of the human body that can control heartbeat is Nerves from the brain. The nerves from the brain carry electrical signals that regulate the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles, resulting in a coordinated heartbeat. Epinephrine (Adrenaline) and ADH Hormone do not directly control the heartbeat, although they can have an indirect effect on it by affecting the activity of the nerves or the heart muscles.

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Instinct theories of aggression would have the most difficulty accounting for 1.biochemical influences on aggression. 2.silent and social aggression in animals.3.unprovoked outbursts of aggression. 4.wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture.

Answers

Answer:

4.wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture.

Explanation:

According to instinct theory of aggression, aggression is an innate trait and people are born with varying levels of it. It is a result of biological drive for protecting ourselves from danger and is instinctual.

Instinct theory focuses more on the innate property of aggression thus it has most difficulty in explaining the effect of culture and environment on it. People in different cultures show different levels of aggression which can not be explained just on biochemical or genetic terms. Even two identical twins born and brought up in different culture might exhibit different levels of aggression.

Final answer:

Instinct theories of aggression struggle most with explaining the wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture, as these theories often overlook the profound impact of cultural and environmental factors on aggressive behavior.

Explanation:

The instinct theories of aggression would have the most difficulty accounting for wide variations of aggressiveness from culture to culture. Instinct theories often suggest aggression is a natural and inherent response, potentially overlooking the significant impact of cultural, social, and environmental factors. For example, while some cultures may value aggression and view it as a sign of strength or leadership, others may encourage peaceful resolution and cooperation, leading to lower levels of aggression. This cultural variability challenges the universality proposed by instinct theories. Additionally, the role of cultural norms, education, and societal expectations in shaping aggressive behavior indicates that aggression is not solely the product of innate tendencies but is significantly influenced by learned behaviors and cultural context.

Which of these is a factual statement about carbon? 1 point Burning rainforests helps restore equilibrium to the carbon cycle There is no relationship between carbon emissions and global climate change Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe Humans use far too much carbon-based fuel

Answers

Final answer:

The factual statement is 'Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe'. Carbon is integral to living organisms and is heavily used as fossil fuel, contributing to increased atmospheric carbon dioxide levels and thus, driving global climate change. Burning rainforests disrupts, rather than restores, the carbon cycle equilibrium.

Explanation:

The factual statement among the options provided is 'Carbon is the fourth-most abundant element in the universe'.

Carbon plays a vital role in the structure of macromolecules and is of primary importance to living organisms. Also, it's worth noting that humans have used carbon-based fuels extensively since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, leading to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere. This increase has subsequently been associated with climate change, forming a direct relationship between carbon emissions and global climate alteration.

Moreover, the destruction of rainforests does not assist in restoring the equilibrium of the carbon cycle, but rather contributes to carbon dioxide release and further exacerbates climate change.

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some one please help!! I am looking for a good short definition if possible:) What is a front?

Answers

Answer:

The boundary between two air masses that have different temperatures or humidity. In the mid-latitude areas of the Earth, where warm tropical air meets cooler polar air, the systems of fronts define the weather and often cause precipitation to form.

Explanation:

Scientific definition for front

Answer:

A weather front is a boundary separating two masses of air of different densities

Explanation:

The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close.The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close.A) TrueB) False

Answers

Answer:

false.

Explanation:

These are the valves between the aorta and the left ventricles and between the pulmonary artery and the right ventricle.

Ventricular systole  begins when the atrioventricular valves closes up  due to rise in  the pressure in the ventricles and the opening of  seminular valves  for blood to leave the ventricles into pulmonary and systemic circulation.

This signifies the beginning of ventricular contraction, as the  closure of the atrioventricular Valves between the atria and the  ventricles prevent the mixing up of oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood in the ventricles . It ensures complete emptying of the  ventricles before returning blood from  the atria  enters again for another cycle.

.

Collectively they (semilunar valves)prevent back flow of blood from the arteries(aorta and pulmonary arteries) back into the ventricles.

Final answer:

The beginning of ventricular systole is indeed when the semilunar valves close to prevent the backflow of blood as the ventricles begin to relax after systolic contraction. The statement is true.

Explanation:

The statement, 'The beginning of ventricular systole is when blood flowing back toward the relaxed ventricles causes the semilunar valves to close', is True. Ventricular systole refers to the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract to eject blood into the arteries. The start of this process is indeed marked by the closure of the semilunar valves. These valves close to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the arteries, as the pressure in the ventricles drops below the pressure in the arteries, which happens when the ventricles start to relax after the systolic contraction. Therefore, the closing of the semilunar valves marks the end of ventricular systole and the start of the diastolic phase, when the ventricles are relaxed and begin to refill with blood.

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Question 1 (1 point)
The diagram shows a bean plant growing in soil.



Which labels best complete the diagram?

Answers

Answer:

X: Positive gravitropism

Y: Negative gravitropism

Explanation:

i just did the quiz and got it correct

Answer: my boy syeddit is

Morbidity rate is an important parameter used by epidemiologists to measure disease. If there are 10 new cases of measles per 10,000 individuals in a population in a two-month period, the morbidity rate is _______.

Answers

Answer:

0.1%

Explanation:

Morbidity rate (Mr) = n sample / number of cases

Mr = 10 / 10,000 = 0.1%

Answer:

0.1%

Explanation:

If there are 10 new cases of measles per 10,000 individuals in a population in a two-month period, the morbidity rate is 0.1% for the two-month period.

The morbidity rate of a disease can be defined as the rate at which such disease appears in a population. On the other hand, it is the proportion or the percentage of a population with such disease in a particular period of time.

Hence, for  a disease that infects 10 people out of 10,000 individuals in a population within a two-month period, the morbidity rate can be calculated as:

10/10,00 x 100 = 0.1% per two-month

Why would you expect Greenland to have higher albedo than Africa ??

Answers

Greenland does have higher albedo as compared to Africa because of  ice everywhere in greenland, and albedo is the melting of snow and ice.

Reason of having albedo in Greenland?

Since 2000, the Greenland albedo should be reduced at the accelerated rate and it should be increased in the surface temperature.

Also, in the case when the temperature is increased more snow so it should be melted and associated albedo reduced at the higher elevations in near future.

In this way, it should have a higher albedo.

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Scientists expect Greenland to have higher albedo than that of Africa because the snow in Greenland is fresh and thicker than that of Africa.

What are the weather conditions in Greenland?

The climate in the Greenland has continental characteristics with very cold winter conditions which are down to minus 50°C in the northern Greenland. The temperature is very rarely above zero degree Celsius from the months of September to May.

Scientists notice that the albedo of the ice sheet is much higher in the winters when much of the Greenland area is covered by the fresh snow. During the spring season, the albedo declines rapidly as the snow begins to melt with the increase in temperature, reaching a minimum in the summer season and rising again as the fall transitions back to winter.

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Please help *10* points

Answers

Answer:

You're answer is Codon.

1. CODON
codons code for certain amino acids in mRNA


Match each leaf modification to its corresponding purpose.

Answers

Answer:

here is the answer

Explanation:

What is the atp yield for one mole of glucose oxidized by the pathway that uses the non-phosphorylating gapdh?

Answers

Answer:

Only 4 molecules of ATP are produced during non phosphorylation process.

Explanation:

Oxidative phosphorylation is a process which produces most of ATP that is produced during cellular respiration. Glycolysis produces 2 ATP molecules. Citric acid cycle produces 2 ATP molecules while during non-phosphorylation, only four ATP are produced which occurs in the absence of oxygen during anaerobic respiration.

The trait of medium-sized leaves in iris is determined by the genetic condition PP′. Plants with large leaves are PP, whereas plants with small leaves are P′P′. A cross is made between two plants each with medium-sized leaves. If they produce 80 seedlings, what would be the expected phenotypes, and in what numbers would they be expected?

Answers

Answer:

20 large size leaves plants

40 medium sized leaves plants

20 small sized leaves.

Explanation:

PP = large leaves

P'P' = small leaves

PP' = medium leaves

PP' was crossed with another PP' plant:

PP'   x   PP'

progeny = PP, 2PP', and P'P'

PP = 1/4  x 80 = 20 large size leaves plants

PP' = 1/2 x 80 = 40 medium sized leaves plants

P'P' = 1/4 x 80 = 20 small sized leaves.

Hence the phenotypes would be:

20 large size leaves plants

40 medium sized leaves plants

20 small sized leaves.

Final answer:

In a cross between two iris plants both with medium-sized leaves, the expected phenotypes of the 80 seedlings would be approximately: 20 with large leaves, 40 with medium leaves, and 20 with small leaves.

Explanation:

This question revolves around the principles of Mendelian genetics and Punnett square analysis. When two plants with medium-sized leaves (genotype PP') are crossed, a Punnett square reveals that the possible genotypes of the offspring can be PP, PP', or P'P'. The genotypic ratio will be 1:2:1, respectively, meaning for every four offspring, one is expected to be PP (large leaves), two are expected to be PP' (medium leaves), and one is expected to be P'P' (small leaves). If 80 seedlings are produced, applying the genotypic ratio we can expect about 20 seedlings to have large leaves (PP), 40 to have medium leaves (PP'), and 20 to have small leaves (P'P').

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Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification?

Answers

Answer:

The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction.

Explanation:

Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction would be cause for this reclassification of the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler

In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to A. interbreed and produce fertile offspring. B. live in a common area. C. eat similar foods and possess a similar diet. D. express the exact same genes and phenotypic traits.

Answers

Answer:

In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to A. interbreed and produce fertile offspring

Explanation:

A group of organisms living in a common area is not enough to be classified in the same species. Eating similiar foods and possessing a similar diet either.  Biologocial concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange  between their gene pools. In order to be classified in the same species, a group of organisms must be able to interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Two very closely related species that have diverged from each other quite recently shared a common ancestor recently in evolutionary time. They will persist only as distinct  biological species if they have reproductive isolation from one another.

Answer: interbreed and produce fertile offspring

Explanation: Because it make's sens is common knowledge :-)

Describe the location of the four chambers of the heart.

Answers

Answer:

The heart has four chambers: The right atrium receives blood from the veins and pumps it to the right ventricle. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs, where it is loaded with oxygen. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the left ventricle.

Explanation:

The four chambers of the heart are Right Atrium, Left Atrium, Right Ventricle, Left Ventricle.

The right atri.um is located in the upper right corner of the heart superior to the right ventric.le (superior to the right ventricle and anteromedial to the left atrium)

The left atriu.m is located in the posterior aspect of the right at.rium, next to the superior vena cava (superior to the left ventric.le, posterolateral to the right at.rium, posterior to the aortic root, and anterior to the esophagus)

The right ven.tricle is located in the lower right portion of the heart below the right at.rium and opposite the left ventri.cle (extends from the right atri.um to the ape.x of the heart)

The left ven.tricle is located in the bottom left portion of the heart below the left atr.ium, separated by the mit.ral valve (in a posterior and lateral location relative to the right ven.tricle)

Sorry for the periods in between the words, it kept saying it contained innappropriate words even though it didn't

Which statement is incorrect regarding the genetic diversity of livestock?
a. The use of only the most productive breeds improves genetic diversity.
b. Livestock come from very few species.
c. The genetic diversity of livestock has declined during the past century.
d. Different breeds are adapted to different climatic conditions.
e. Different breeds are adapted to different diseases.

Answers

Answer:

A. The use of only the most productive breeds improves genetic diversity.

Jacob and Monod were intellectually primed to draw the conclusions they did concerning regulation of the lac operon. In part, this was due to their fascination with mechanisms of enzyme regulation. They knew that the activity of some enzymes is regulated when their reaction product binds to the enzyme, changing its shape and therefore its activity. This knowledge allowed them to easily make the intellectual leap to propose _____.A) the existence of the CAP binding siteB) allosteric regulation of the repressorC) positive regulation of the lac operonD) the existence of the operatorE) co-transcribed and co-regulated genes of bacterial operons

Answers

Answer:

Jacob and Monod were intellectually primed to draw the conclusions they did concerning regulation of the lac operon. In part, this was due to their fascination with mechanisms of enzyme regulation. They knew that the activity of some enzymes is regulated when their reaction product binds to the enzyme, changing its shape and therefore its activity. This knowledge allowed them to easily make the intellectual leap to propose B) allosteric regulation of the repressor

Explanation:

When we talk about the mechanisms of enzyme regulation, we refer to allosteric regulation of the repressor. The Allosteric control of transcriptional regulatory proteins allows organisms to react to changes in environmental and metabolic conditions. Also, it is s a thermodynamic phenomenon. When it binds one molecule, the affinity with which a protein binds to a second molecule is altered.

A protein that is normally localized in the cytoplasm has been engineered so that it will be secreted from the cell instead.
Which of the following represents the most likely pathway for the protein after it has been completely synthesized?

A. sER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment
B. rER \to secretory vesicle \to Golgi \to environment
C. rER \to Golgi \to sER \to cytoplasm \to environment
D. cytoplasm \to rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment
E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment

Answers

Answer:

E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment

Explanation:

A protein that is normally localized in the cytoplasm has been engineered so that it will be secreted from the cell instead will follow the following sequence:

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) (where the protien is being snthesized)-------------> Golgi apparatus (where the sorting and packaging of the protien occurs)-----------------------> Secretory vesicles-------------------------> Environment.

Hence E. rER \to Golgi \to secretory vesicle \to environment is the right answer.

The products of restriction digestion can be visualized by gel electrophoresis, which separates fragments based on their size. View Available Hint(s) The products of restriction digestion can be visualized by gel electrophoresis, which separates fragments based on their size. True False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Gel electrophoresis is a technique that is commonly used in the laboratory to separate charged molecules, like DNA, according to their size. The results of restriction digestion can be observed using this process. Restriction Digestion involves the process of cutting DNA molecules into smaller fragments using special enzymes called Restriction Endonucleases. And this way any inhibition of the restriction enzymes which prevents digestion can be observed and controlled.

Two scientists are debating how to classify a new animal species that they have discovered. They observe that the animal is capable of producing sperm.

What statement would they most likely make about the new species?

A.This animal produces offspring that are genetically different from itself.
B.This animal produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself.
C.This animal’s sperm will join with spores to produce offspring.
D.This animal’s sperm will undergo binary fission to produce offspring.

Answers

B. This animal produces offspring that are genetically identical to itself

Answer:

the answer is A

Explanation:

In humans, babies that are born too small often lack the reserves to thrive, and babies that are too large are prone to difficult births.

Since babies at the extremes are less likely to survive, evolutionary pressures favor moderately-sized babies.

What type of selection is this an example of?

A. Artificial Selection
B. Directional Selection
C. Stabilizing Selection
D. Disruptive Selection

Answers

C) option is correct

Explanation:

Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection which favors intermediate genotype but eliminate extreme genotypes (inferior and superior)

Stabilizing selection is not a common phenomenon in the history of evolution of earth, so it is not a main reason of species diversity on earth

In the given example of humans, babies that are born too small lack the reserve to thrive (inferior genotype) and babies that are too large are prone to difficult births (superior genotype) whereas moderately-sized babies are favored (intermediate genotype) so this clearly reflects stabilizing selection

A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of:_____

Answers

Answer:

A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of genetic drift.

Explanation:

Genetic drift is the change in allelle frequencies in a population due to chance events, more likely to occur in  small populations.Frequency of traits changes in a population due to chance events (random change). Unlike natural selection, which favors beneficial traits, genetic drift is random and can cause an increase in traits that are beneficial, detrimental, or neutral.

Hence,A fraction of the original green frog population survives to reproduce and generate a new population. If the survivors of the original population survived by chance, then this event is an example of genetic drift.

Which of the following statements is true? 1.Innate defenses are enough to keep a person healthly. 2.Adaptive defenses include humoral immunity only. 3.Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.

Answers

Answer:

Which of the following statements is true? 3. Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.

Explanation:

Definitely Innate defenses are not enough to keep a person healthly, there are a lot of other factors to take into account when we are considering people's health. Adaptive defenses not only include humoral immunity (mediated by macromolecules) , but also cellular immunity (does not involve antibodies).

The true statement among those provided is that adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity. Humoral immunity involves antibodies from B cells, while cellular immunity involves T cells that target infected cells or pathogens.

The subject of this question is the immune system, specifically the differences between innate and adaptive immune defenses. Addressing the true statement from the options provided:

Innate defenses alone are not always enough to keep a person healthy, as there are numerous pathogens that can overcome these basic defenses.Adaptive defenses include more than just humoral immunity; they also encompass cellular immunity.Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity. Humoral immunity involves antibodies produced by B cells, that bind to foreign substances in the blood and mucosal surfaces, whereas cellular immunity involves T cells that target and destroy infected host cells or pathogens.

Therefore, the true statement is that adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.

L
What is the main cause of an earthquake?
o force of gravity
o the shaking of the ground
o stress caused by plate movement
waves that ripple from the epicenter

Answers

The answer is c stress caused by plate movement

Answer:

c or stress caused by plate movement

Explanation:

did the assignment

The term used to describe the number of individuals moving into a population is ___ . *
5 points
growth pattering
immigration
logistic growth
emigration

Answers

Answer:

the correct answer D. Emigration

What activities would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?

Answers

Answer:

 

receptor tyrosine kinase activity.

Explanation:

Theses are the receptors  present on the cell surfaces of cells  with affinity fpr specific polypeptides- gwoth factors, hormones and cytokines. They are regulators of normal cellular processes. E.g e development  and progression of cancer in most cells

Mutation in their protein  sequence   leads to  faulty protein expression.

Answer:

RTK activity

Explanation:

RTKs are considered to be transmembrane protein receptors that help cells interact with their neighbors in a tissue. They are also regarded as the high-affinity cell surface receptors for many polypeptide growth factors, cytokines, and hormones.

It should be understood that, the activation of Tyrosine-kinase receptor is that  , the Inactive proteins within the cell bind to the phosphorylated tyrosine residues, the phosphate is transferred to the proteins, and the proteins become active.

Therefore, when the drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to protein is used, it will definitely inhibit the activities of the Tyrosine-kinase receptor.

Darwin proposed a new theory of how evolution works. What theory is this and how does it work?

Answers

Answer:

Darwin defined evolution as "descent with modification," the idea that specs change over time to give rise to new species and share a common ancestor. The mechanism that Darwin proposed for evolution is natural selection.

Explanation:

I majored in Biology

If the two traits that Mendel looked at in his dihybrid cross of smooth yellow peas with wrinkled green peas had been controlled by genes that were located near each other on the same chromosome, then the F2 generation __________.a.Would have contained four phenotypes in a 9:3:3:1 ratiob.Would have contained only individuals that were heterozygous at bothlocic.Would have deviated from the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratiod.Would have contained no individuals that were heterozygous at both loci

Answers

Answer:

c. Would have deviated from the 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio

Explanation:

If two genes are linked together on the same chromosome, the phenotype of the F2 generation would have deviated from 9:3:3:1.

Two genes whose loci are close on the same chromosome are said to be linked. Linked genes have higher frequency of recombination than genes that are not linked.

Hence, while genes that are not linked assort independently to produce 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio at F2, linked genes do not assort independently and the higher frequency of recombination ensures that they standard phenotypic ratio is deviated from.

The correct option is c.

What is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air?

Answers

Answer:

Normal quiet expirarion of air is known as Tidal volume which is equal to 500 mL .

Explanation:

Normal quiet expiration or Tidal volume is a expiration of air with each normal breath . This is about 500 mL . It is composed of about 350 mL of alveolar volume and about 150 mL of dead space volume . The alveolar volume consist of the air that reaches the respiratory surface of alveoli and involve in gaseous exchange . The dead space volume consist of air that does not reach the respiratory surfaces . The lowest value is of Tidal volume . There is an extra amount of air that can be expired forcibly after a normal expiration i.e., known as expiratory reserve volume which is equal 1000 mL of air .

In peas, if the allele for yellow is Y, the allele for the contrasting trait green is _____________ (the answer is case sensitive)

Answers

Answer:

y

Explanation:

I looked it up in quizzlet

Final answer:

The allele for the green trait in peas, contrasting the dominant yellow represented by 'Y', is represented by 'y'.

Explanation:

In peas, given that the allele for yellow is Y, the allele for the contrasting trait green is y. This is because in Mendelian genetics, dominant traits are represented by uppercase letters, while recessive traits are denoted by lowercase letters. In this case, the yellow color in peas is the dominant trait, which is why it is represented as Y. Hence, the corresponding allele for green peas, which is the recessive trait, would be a lowercase 'y'.

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