Answer:
In transcription, RNA polymerase links nucleotides to form mRNA.
Explanation:
The process of transcription implies the formation of a mRNA. Is the first step to genetic expression, and it involves the making of a "copy" of the DNA in RNA. This process is performed by the enzyme RNA polymerase, that links the nucleotides to form the mRNA strand.
The incise b is false, the promoter region acts as a binding site to the RNA polimerase, not the mRNA.
The incise c is false, althoug there are genes in both DNA strands, they do not act simultaneously as templates.
The incise d is false, since the polypeptide formation is the TRANSLATION step, after transcription, according to the Central dogma of molecular biology.
Final answer:
In transcription, RNA polymerase links nucleotides to form mRNA using the DNA template. The promoter serves as the binding site for RNA polymerase, not mRNA. Only one DNA strand (the antisense or template strand) is used, and no polypeptide is formed during transcription; this occurs during translation.
Explanation:
During transcription, the process by which information encoded in DNA is used to make RNA, specifically messenger RNA (mRNA), there are several key steps and components involved. The enzyme RNA polymerase is central to this process.
It synthesizes RNA by using one of the strands of DNA, known as the antisense or template strand, to add complementary RNA nucleotides to the growing RNA strand. So, in transcription, a) RNA polymerase links nucleotides to form mRNA. This is done at the 3' end of the growing RNA molecule.
The promoter region on the DNA acts as the initial binding site, not for mRNA, but for RNA polymerase, and hence option b) is incorrect. Furthermore, unlike DNA replication where both DNA strands may be used as templates at different points, in transcription, only one of the DNA strands is used as a template for RNA synthesis, which eliminates option c) as correct.
Lastly, translation, not transcription, is the process where polypeptides are formed, meaning option d) is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is a) RNA polymerase links nucleotides to form mRNA.
How should you mark a blood trail when you are tracking a wounded animal? carve notches into trees break limbs on brush as you pass by use fluorescent orange flagging drop food crumbs on the ground
Answer:
The answer is mark the blood trail with blaze orange flagging tape.
Explanation.
You should mark the blood trail with blaze orange flagging tape. Because that is the fundamentals of firearm safetly.
The ________ is the space between the dura mater and the bone of the vertebra.
Answer:
the space between the dura mater and the bone of the vertebra is the Epidural
The epidural space is the space between the dura mater and the bone of the vertebra.
What is dura matter?It is one of the tissue that forms meninges in brain.Meninges consists of: outer thick and dense membrane; dura matter, middle fluid filled structure that cushions the brain; arachnoid and inner thin and delicate; pia matter.What is epidural space?It is a space between the dura matter and vertebral wall.It contains fat and blood vessels.It is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
Hence, the correct answer is: epidural space.
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This climate is considered tropical wet with temperatures between 68°F to 93°F and an annual precipitation of 50-260 inches. There is often a short season of less rain, or sometimes in areas with monsoon seasons, a short period of no rain. The soil contains very little nutrients because the trees quickly absorb all the nutrition out of the ground. A great amount of sunlight reaches the upper canopies, but very little sunlight filters down to the understory and forest floor. These are all characteristics of the _______ biome.
a
deciduous forest
b
alpine forest
c.
rainforest
d
savanna
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- C (rainforest)
Explanation:
Biomes are the communities of plants and animals that are formed in a similar physical climate.
In the given question, the characteristics of the Rainforest biome are given as the rainforest biome is marked by the heavy rainfall through the year with a few or less time with no rain. Also, the rainforest receives maximum sunrays on earth so the plants adapt by forming strata or layers.
The upper start receives maximum sunlight while the lower plants receive minimum sunlight so they become creepers to receive the maximum sunlight.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Answer:
C) Rainforest
Explanation:
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Mendel's law of segregation allows one to predict what can happen in a genetic cross. A Punnett square can be used to make this prediction. Look at the Punnett square below.
The use of Punnett square in Mendel’s law helps in predicting the phenotype and genotypes from genetic crosses of offspring.
Explanation:
The study of trait inheritance in pea plants is performed by Gregor Mendel. He developed a model of pair of genes that specify the traits. There are different alleles of genes in a population of living organisms. His law of segregation states that one of the two copies of gene that is present in a specific organism gets distributed to gametes produced by it.
The F2 generation of gene is represented by Punnett model and by counting the squares of this model the genotype and the phenotype ratio can be predicted.
Identify the mechanism through which lithium decreases nerve conduction.
Lithium blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin back into the neuronal nerve endings.
Lithium interferes with nerve conduction, resulting in a decrease in the excitability of nerve tissue.
Lithium stimulates norepinephrine and dopamine receptors, which stimulate the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from nerve endings.
None of the above are true.
Answer:
Lithium interferes with nerve conduction, resulting in a decrease in the excitability of nerve tissue.
Besides producing sugar for itself, a plant also needs to absorb nitrogen to build proteins, salts to make concentration gradients, and: a) potassium to make enzymes. b) starch to power the cells. c) chlorophyll to carry out photosynthesis. d) phosphorus to make ATP. e) pyruvate for fermentation.
A plant absorbs phosphorus to make ATP, an energy-carrying molecule, which is crucial for various metabolic processes within the plant. Phosphorus is not only necessary for ATP synthesis but also for nucleic acids and other cellular constituents. While other elements are also absorbed, phosphorus is specifically related to ATP production.
The correct option is 'D'.
Besides producing sugar for itself, a plant also needs to absorb nitrogen to build proteins, salts to make concentration gradients, and the correct option is d) phosphorus to make ATP.
While potassium is indeed necessary for enzyme function, and chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis, it is phosphorus that is a critical component for the creation of ATP, which provides energy for a plant's metabolic processes.
Starch, on the other hand, is a stored form of glucose that provides energy for the plant especially during germination but is not absorbed from the environment. Pyruvate is a product of glycolysis and is used in fermentation; however, it is also not absorbed from the soil.
Photosynthesis is an essential process where plants manufacture their own food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight. The glucose produced during this process is used for immediate energy needs or stored as starch for later use. Elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are absorbed from the soil and are vital for various plant functions, including the synthesis of proteins, nucleic acids, and ATP.
Chromatids are separated from each other during which processes?
Answer: Chromatids separate from each other during mitosis and meiosis processes and the process is called chromatids segregation.
Explanation:
Chromatids segregation occur majorly in eukaryotes and it is the process whereby two sister chromatids produced as a result of DNA replication separate from each other and move to the opposite poles of the nucleus. This process occur both in mitosis and meiosis. Segregation occurs continually as replication occurs compare to in prokaryotes.
During cell division, chromatids are separated from each other in the stage called anaphase.
Explanation:During the process of cell division, chromatids are separated from each other in a stage called anaphase. Anaphase is a crucial step in both mitosis and meiosis, where the sister chromatids, which form a duplicated chromosome, are pulled towards opposite ends of the cell by spindle fibers. This separation creates two identical daughter chromosomes that will eventually be divided into separate cells.
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Diphtheria is caused by bacteria that have been infected by a bacteriophage. This bacteriophage is a lysogenic phage and contains the genes to produce the diphtheria toxin, which inhibits protein synthesis. Which of the following is the correct term for the phage while its genetic material is integrated into the bacterial chromosome?
a. The genetic material is called a viroid
b. The genetic material is called a prophage and the change in the host cell's properties is called lysogenic conversion
c. The genetic material is called a transposon and the change in the host cell's properties is called competence
d. The genetic material is called a prion
Answer:
The correct answer is b) The genetic material is called a prophage and the change in the host cell's properties is called lysogenic conversion
Explanation:
The term prophage is used to describe the genetic material of a bacteriophage which has been incorporated in the genome of infected bacteria. The resulting changes within the host´s properties are called lysogenic conversion. At this state the bacterial cell is still intact.
When first used in medicine in the 1940s, penicillin was uniformly effective in killing the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. Today, ____________________ has led to an increase in antibiotic-resistant alleles, and humans are increasingly at risk from untreatable Staphylococcus aureus infections
Answer:
The correct answer is "natural selection in Staphylococcus aureus populations".
Explanation:
Natural selection is a process at which populations of organisms develop advantageous traits under the premise of survival of the fittest. In this case, the continuous exposure to penicillin and other antibiotics since 1940s have a natural selection effect in Staphylococcus aureus populations, allowing an increase in antibiotic-resistant alleles in the bacteria, which acts as an advantageous trait for them. Antibiotic resistance is a serious medical concern that has been addressed by a culture of responsible use of antibiotics and development of novel treatments for infections.
Diploid means a cell contains ?. Haploid means a cell contains ?. The gametophyte generation is known as the ? generation and produces sperm and egg cells for the purpose of reproduction. The sporophyte generation is known as the generation and produces spores for the purpose of reproduction.
Answer:
Two sets of chromosomes
One set of chromosomes
Haploid
Diploid
Explanation:
Diploid cell is a cell that contains two complete sets of chromosomes, each coming from both parents. e.g. a human cell, excluding sex cells, contains 46 chromosomes, each parent contributing 23 each
Haploid cells are cells containing one complete set of chromosomes i.e a single set of unpaired chromosomes. e.g gametes or sex cells that contain 23 chromosomes
Plants alternate between a life cycle in which they have one set of chromosome in their cell and two sets of chromosomes in their cell.
The gametophyte is the haploid plant form of an organism which produces the haploid reproductive gametes e.g. sperms and eggs. The gametophyte is developed by the spores, which is produced by the sporophyte. The haploid sperm fertilizes the haploid egg to form a diploid zygote, which gradually develops into the diploid sporophyte.
The sporophyte is a diploid multicellular generation found in plants and algae that produce haploid spores. These haploid spores are produced when the sporophyte organism undergoes meiotic (reduction) division. The spores then undergo mitosis or growth, without changing the number of chromosomes, to become a haploid multicellular gametophyte.
The gametophyte produces gametes and the cycle starts again. This process is referred to as ALTERNATION OF GENERATIONS.
Answer:
1.Two sets of chromosomes
2.One set of chromosomes
3.Haploid
4.Diploid
Explanation:
Oxaloacetate uniformly labeled with 14C (i.e., with equal amounts of 14C in each of its carbon atoms) is condensed with unlabeled acetyl-CoA. After a single pass through the citric acid cycle back to oxaloacetate, what fraction of the original radioactivity will be found in the oxaloacetate?
Answer:
1/2
Explanation:
The bases from DNA isolated from a newly discovered single-stranded virus are found to be 16 percent A, 34 percent C, 34 percent G, and 16 percent T. During replication, this DNA forms a complementary strand. The bases of the complementary DNA would be ___ percent A, ___ percent C, ___ percent G, and ___ percent T.
Answer:16% A, 34% C, 34% G and 16% T
Explanation:
During complimentary strand formation the base Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T) and base Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) , as the percentage of the base pairs in a strand is same so the percentage of the complimentary strands of the DNA would be same.
Please sort each of the following statements as being either an external or internal factor that affects the growth of microorganisms in food. Please recall from your reading the causes of food spoilage and how it can be prevented. ResetHelp
Answer:
External factors can be described as factors which give rise to a situation from outside. Internal factors bring a change or give rise to a situation from internal conditions.
External Factors:
Temperature of food storage during processing.
Humidity of the storage environment
Presence of gases, such as CO2, during packaging
Preservatives, such as salt and sugar
Handling of food by manufacturers
Internal Factors:
pH of the food
Presence of antimicrobial compounds
Nutrient content (Such as vitamins and minerals)
Moisture content or water activity
Protective structure of food, such as feathers, hide and skin
Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine, and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. What is the significance of the structural arrangement?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- this base pairing allows the complementation like lock and key
Explanation:
In DNA, the nitrogenous bases on one strand pairs with the nitrogenous bases on another strand.
Experiments of Erwin Chargaff showed that purine bind pyrimidines where the adenine binds thymine and guanine bind cytosine via double and triple hydrogen bonds respectively.
This hydrogen bonding between the purines and pyrimidines provides structural stability as it is based on the complementation. This complementary base pairing allows the two strands to fit like a key and a lock.
Thus, this base pairing allows the complementation like lock and key is the correct answer.
In what dura mater fold is the superior sagittal sinus located?
Answer: The superior saggital sinus is located in the falx cerebri.
Explanation:
The superior sagittal sinus also called superior longitudinal Linus is found in the human head, it is an unpaired area located in the falx cerebri. It drain blood from the lateral region of anterior cerebral hemispheres to the confluence of the sinuses.
Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- the combination of three types of cone cells in the eye produces different shades of color.
Explanation:
The perception of color in the eye is a complex process which is mediated by the photoreceptors called rods and cones. The cones allow us to see different shades of color whereas rods allow us to see in dark conditions.
The shades of color produced by the eye depend on the cone cells in which the cone cells absorbs three wavelengths of light mainly blue, green and light by three types of cone cells. It is the combination of these three cone cells which allows us to sense every shade of the color.
Thus, the combination of three types of cone cells in the eye produces different shades of color.
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?
A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traitsC) Clone the plant.D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.
Answer: C -Clone the plant
Explanation:
Having a single plant, a hortuculturist will choose an efficient route to replicate the traits he requires.Therefore, If a horticulturist breeding gardenia were to chose an option he would most probably use Cloning.Cloning is the method that permits propagation of large numbers of plants with a particularly desirable set of traits.When plants are propagated, it means that they're produced in large numbers in order to establishing a line of such plants.
The correct option is C)Clone the plant as the most efficient method to replicate a gardenia plant with desirable traits is through cloning, as it ensures that every new plant is genetically identical to the original.
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, the most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants would be to clone the plant. Cloning ensures that each offspring is genetically identical to the parent, preserving the desirable traits without variation. This method bypasses the uncertainty of genetic recombination that occurs during sexual reproduction, which can result in offspring with unpredictable traits. Cloning is a common practice in horticulture for propagating plants with specific, desirable characteristics.
Channel proteins are selective. Each channel protein has a structure that permits only a particular type of ion or small molecule to pass through it. To what does the term gated channel refer?
Answer & explanation:
Channel proteins are specific types of proteins that have aqueous channels along their molecules and are associated with substance transport.
These proteins act passively because they are part of the passive transport of cells, since there is no energy expenditure to internalize the substances, they enter the protein channels requiring a favorable concentration gradient for this process to occur.
Channel proteins may have gated or non-gated channels.
Non-gated channels spend most of their time open allowing ions to move with no restrictions; Gated channels allow regulation of the movement of molecules between the fluid intracellular and extracellular. These channels remain closed until they receive a specific chemical or electrical signal.Which component is a protein fiber of the extracellular matrix?
Answer:
Protein collagen
Explanation:
Protein collagen is made up of a matrix of carbohydrate and proteins which comprises protein collagen as a major component of extracellular matrix. Protein collagen assembles itself into long fibrils known as collagen fibril which is very essential for providing strength and structural integrity to the tissue. Collagen fibers are woven with proteoglycans which is further connected to the long polysaccharide backbone. The matrix also comprises of some protein connectors such as integrins, fibronectin molecules etc. which establish connection among themselves or the other elements of the matrix
James is 6 feet tall. Leroy is 5 feet 2 inches tall. There are surely many individual differences between James and Leroy, but sociological research predicts that based on height alone, James is likely to have:
Answer:
better health
Explanation:
According to sociological research, it has been suggested that physical factor, such as height, can influence the movement of an individual between social strata or classes of a society. The upward social movement of an individual as influenced by a tall height is said to present an opportunity for the individual to be exposed to a better life and status in the society, which would have a beneficial impact on the overall health of the individual.
Based on height alone, James is likely to have a better health as a result of improved better social status as he is favored to move up the social ladder of the society according to sociological research.
A series of enzymes catalyze the reactions in the metabolic pathway X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as ________.
a. an intermediate
b. a competitive inhibitor
c. an allosteric inhibitor
d. the substrate
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
In the given question, product A can bind to the enzyme which can convert X to Y.
This product A can act as a non-competitive inhibitor which can attach to the site away from the active site. These compounds are known as allosteric inhibitors.
The allosteric inhibitors bind to the enzyme away from the active site and change the conformation of the protein which changes the conformation of the active site which prevent enzyme bind the substrate.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as an ALLOSTERIC INHIBITOR (Option c).
An allosteric inhibitor is a molecule that binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site (i.e., the allosteric site), thereby decreasing the velocity of a chemical reaction.
Allosteric inhibition is a type of noncompetitive inhibition because the substrate can still bind to the enzyme.
For example, ATP acts as an allosteric inhibitor during cellular respiration. When ATP levels are high, this molecule binds to the phosphofructokinase enzyme in order to slow down the conversion of ADP to ATP.
In conclusion, in this case, substance A functions as an ALLOSTERIC INHIBITOR (Option c).
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The specialized functions of different membranes are largely determined by the blank they contain. Membrane lipids are blank molecules, composed of a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion. All cell membranes have the same blank structure, with the blank of the phospholipids facing into the interior of the membrane and the blank on the outside. The most common lipids in most cell membranes are the blank . The head group of a glycolipid is composed of blank .
Answer:
Generally cell membrane is composed of lipid layer(phospholipid bilayer)which has hydrophobic head(phosphate group) which is water loving found outward of cell membrane And hydrophilic tail(hydrocarbon tail) which is water hating and it's found inward
The functionality of membranes is determined by their proteins and their amphiphilic structure, characterized by a bilayer of phospholipids, with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails, where phospholipids are the most common lipids and glycolipid head groups comprise carbohydrates.
Explanation:The specialized functions of different membranes are largely determined by the proteins they contain. Membrane lipids are amphiphilic molecules, composed of a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion. All cell membranes have the same bilayer structure, with the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipids facing into the interior of the membrane and the hydrophobic tails on the outside. The most common lipids in most cell membranes are the phospholipids. The head group of a glycolipid is composed of carbohydrates.
Adherens junctions ______________________. (a) can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes. (b) are most often found at the basal surface of cells. (c) are found only in adult tissues. (d) involve fibronectin and integrin interactions.
Answer:
(a) can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes.
Explanation:
The adherens junctions are cell-cell adhesions localized in places exposed to abrasion or mechanical stress, close to the apical membrane in epithelial cells is one of these locations. Some of their functions are the initiation and stabilization of cell-cell adhesion, they join the actin cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane to form adhesive contacts between cells that contribute to the folding and bending of epithelial sheets, therefore they can mediate adhesion and signaling.
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It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?
Answer: Mycorrhizae
Explanation:
Mycorrhizae is a mutualistic symbiotic relationships that form between fungi and and the root of vascular plants.
The Mycorrhizae relationship that exist between fungi and root of plants, show how fungi colonize the root system of a their host plant, they make use of their extensive network of hyphae and large surface area which is in contact with the soil to channel water and minerals from the soil into the plant, thereby increasing nutrients absorption in plants.
The plant in return provide food in form of carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis to the fungi
If antibodies to fibronectin are exposed to an embryo through which neural crest cells are migrating
Answer:
Neural crest cell movements are inhibited.
Explanation:
Neural crest cells may be defined as the temporary group of cells that are unique for the chordata group. These cells arise from the embryonic ectoderm and give rise to future melanocytes.
Antibodies to fibronectin association is helpful to study the signalling factors. If these anitodies to fibronectin is shown in the embryonical stage. The neural crest migration is inhibited by its exposure to fibronectin and this might hinder the embryonic development.
Thus, the answer is neural crest cell movements are inhibited.
In pea plants, the gene for round seed (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What CANNOT be said of a cross between two parents that are heterozygous for both traits?
Answer:
None is wrinkled and waxy
Explanation:
Spliting the alleles and pairing them usng the two characters listed, The male pea plant will have four possible alleles: RS, Rs, rS, and rs. The female also we have the same. Using punnet's square, we are to cross the two parents, Using gentotypes obtained from this cross; RRSS, RRSs, RrSS, RrSs, RRSs, RRss, RrSs, Rrss, RrSS, RrSc, rrSS, rrSs, RrSs, Rrss, rrSs, rrss. The phenotupic ration will be 9 Round starchy: 3 Round waxy: 3 Wrinkled starchy: 1 wrinkled waxy. It cannot be said that none of the progeny will be wrinkled waxy.
Four different phylogenetic trees of a group of salamanders have been proposed. Trees A and B each require 12 homoplasies, but tree A requires 14 synapomorphies and tree B requires 13 synapomorphies. Tree C requires 15 homoplasies and 13 synapomorphies. Finally, tree D requires 10 homoplasies and 15 synapomorphies. According to the principle of parsimony, which tree(s) is/are the most accurate? A) Tree A only B) Tree B only C) Tree C only D) Tree D only E) Both tree A and tree B
Answer:
The answer is letter D.
Explanation:
Tree D only . It is the only tree that is the most accurate.
Which way does the coriolis effect deflect wind in the northern hemisphere
Answer:
Towards the right
Explanation:
The Coriolis force is usually defined as the force that acts on the global wind and ocean currents and allows them to move in a clockwise and anticlockwise manner, in the northern and southern hemispheres respectively. This force occurs due to the rotation of the earth.
The strength of this Coriolis force gradually increases with the increasing latitudes and also increases with the gradually decreasing speed of the earth's rotation. So, the value of this force is observed to be highest at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Thus, in the northern hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right side.
When working with radioactive materials you must use radiation detection instruments. Which of the following instruments requires you test three times the background of the work area?
a. Geiger-Muller tube
b. Liquid Scintillation Center
c. Both A & B
d. Neither A & B
Geiger-Muller tube is instruments requires you test three times the background of the work area.
Explanation:
These detectors are gas filled detectors and hence requires time for responding to the value. This time is taken because during this period it collects the electric charges and features of the electric circuit. It also gets stabilized during this period. This device has thumb rule i.e one must wait or hold for at the least 3 times the time constant before getting the precise and accurate reading. The time constant order is 10 seconds for the ionization chamber but for the Geiger counter it can vary from seconds to greater than 20 seconds
A nurse teaches a client about the side effects and precautions associated with the antipsychotic haloperidol. The nurse concludes that the teaching has been understood when the client makes which statement?
A. "I'll call my primary healthcare provider right away if I have any diarrhea or vomiting."
B. "I won't eat anything containing tyramine while I'm taking this drug."
C. "I'll avoid direct sunlight and make sure to use sunscreen when I go outside."
D. "I'll be sure to drink enough fluids, because the drug may make me urinate more than usual."
Answer: I think A. "I'll call my primary healthcare provider right away if I have any diarrhea or vomiting." is the correct answer.
Explanation: