Answer:
Evadsaafd
Explanation:
sdaffffffffff
. A 12-year-old boy at a swim meet grabs his chest and begins to make wheezing noises. After you obtain consent to provide care, his mother informs you that he has a history of asthma, but does not have his inhaler nearby. What care should you provide
Answer:
call 911 get ready to do cpr. have him sit down and take slow breaths
Explanation:
A 36-year-old male was accidentally shot with a nail gun into the chest. You see the nail, which protrudes about 2 to 3 centimeters from the thorax, when you visualize the injury site. Under which of the following circumstances should you remove the nail from the injury site?
A. Bleeding from the patient's wound is minimal.B. The patient develops a tension pneumothorax.C. The patient begins to complain of shortness of breath.D. None of the above
Answer:
D. None of the above
Explanation:
The nail shouldn’t be removed under any circumstance. The patient be rushed to the hospital or have the ambulance called so the right medical personnel can take care of the injury and symptoms experienced by him.
The nail will be removed by medical personnel through a surgical procedure called thoracotomy.
Sandra has a family history of osteoporosis. Her doctor advises her to eat foods rich in calcium. Which foods should she add to her diet?
A
fruits, especially grapes and berries
B.
unsaturated fats like olive and soybean oil
C. beet greens, broccoli, and cheese
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Answer:
C. beet greens, broccoli, and cheese
Explanation:
Below
Her gait has also been affected. She reports a recent trip to the woods to go camping as a family. As Nancy is giving you the history, Leah collapses on the floor and has a seizure. Nancy wants to know with which antibiotics you will be treating her mother. What is the best antibiotic for this illness?
Answer:
I DO NOT KNOW THIS ANSWET
A young man has said to you that he is eating much more protein in his diet than the recommendation but he feels he needs the extra amount just in case he wants to build more muscle mass in the near future. How would you respond to him? 1. it should be fine because the cells will store the extra amino acids for future use if he has excess calories in his diet,2. he may gain fat weight from converted protein 3. the extra protein will be used for fuel instead of the carbohydrate 4. the body won't digest the extra protein and it will be eliminated in feces 5. if he has excess calories in his diet, he may gain fat weight from converted protein
Answer:
in my opinion i would go with the first answer
Explanation:
because as it says that he is young which means he is still growing and he needs a little bit more nutrients
however,
i would also go with second one too (only if he eats like double the recommended amount)
On April 16, 2007, BBC News reported the results of a study done by Dr. David Lewis of Mindlab International in the United Kingdom. Dr. Lewis found that eating dark chocolate had longer-lasting excitatory effects on the body than did kissing a romantic partner. From his statement, it is evident that Dr. Lewis:
Answer: Found Chocolate better and long lasting effect than kissing
Explanation: Dr. Lewis found chocolate better than kissing. From Dr. Lewis results reported by the British Broadcasting Corporation BBC it was observed that although kissing increased the excitatory ( excitation) like a burst in energy level of the heart it didn't have a long lasting effect, unlike the Chocolate which increased the heartbeat of the individuals from 60beats/ minutes to about 140 beats/ minutes. This observation was recorded from the Tests carried out on individuals.
Answer:
The question is incomplete, but according to what was posed, dark chocolate generates, upon ingestion, the release of endorphins that are neurotransmitters that promote the stimulation of pleasure or happiness.
Explanation:
It is proven that dark chocolate also has a lower fat content, therefore it favors the circulatory system more and does not generate a fat reserve like milk chocolates.
On the other hand, the endorphins generated by eating the chocolate and mainly bitter not only interferes at the nervous level, but it was also proposed and found that the presence of endorphins improves the immune system, and blood pressure by promoting the release of nitrous oxide.
They are endogenous opioid peptides, that means that they are manufactured by our body.
A student exposed to streptococcus comes down with a high fever. What is the likely cause?
Answer:
Bacteria toxin
Our immune system increases the temperature of our body in response to antigen or toxin associated with infectious agents such as bacteria or virus.
Is this statement true or false?
Voluntary muscles move when you want them to, while involuntary muscles move automatically.
true
false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Involuntary muscles are not under our conscious control which means we cant make them contract whem we think about it.Voluntary muscles on the other hand,are under our conscious control so we can move these muscles when we want to.
What does blood alcohol concentration NOT depend on?
Answer:
Your BAC does not depend on what kind of alcoholic beverage you drink, how physically fit you are, or how well you can "hold your liquor." It takes only a few drinks to raise your BAC to illegal levels.
Explanation:
The amount of food in the stomach does not directly impact Blood alcohol concentration. The correct answer is A. amount of food in the stomach.
Blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is the measurement of alcohol in a person's bloodstream.
It is affected by various factors, including the gender and size of the drinker, the rate of consumption, and the time of drinking.
The amount of food in the stomach does not directly impact BAC.
While consuming food before drinking can slow down the absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream, it does not ultimately affect the actual blood alcohol concentration.
Food can help to delay the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, giving the body more time to metabolize the alcohol and reducing the peak BAC levels.
However, once alcohol is absorbed, the BAC will be determined primarily by the amount of alcohol consumed, the rate of consumption, and the body's ability to metabolize alcohol.
Thus, the correct option is A
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Complete question:
What does blood alcohol concentration NOT depend on?
A. amount of food in the stomach
B. gender and size of the drinker
C rate of consumption
D. time of drinking
What is the active chemical compound in alcohol
Answer:
ethyl alcohol
Explanation:
ethyl alcohol is the main drug used in alcohol
The active chemical compound in alcohol is called ethanol, which is what causes the intoxicating effects when alcohol is consumed.
Explanation:The active chemical compound in alcohol is called ethanol. It is a simple two-carbon alcohol with the molecular formula C2H5OH. This compound is responsible for the intoxicating effect of alcoholic drinks. When consumed, ethanol interacts with various neurotransmitter systems in the brain, leading to the characteristic effects and potential health risks of alcohol consumption. Please remember the dangers of excessive alcohol consumption and always drink responsibly.
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T or F: The Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program (MRHFP) was created as part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997 which allows some rural hospitals to be classified as critical access hospitals if they have no more than 25 acute care beds and provide emergency care.
The statement is True. The Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program (MRHFP) was created by the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, allowing some rural hospitals to be classified as critical access hospitals if they meet specific criteria.
The Medicare Rural Hospital Flexibility Program (MRHFP) was indeed created as part of the Balanced Budget Act of 1997. The program allows some rural hospitals to be classified as critical access hospitals (CAHs) if they meet specific criteria, including having no more than 25 acute care beds and providing emergency care services.
This designation helps ensure access to healthcare in rural areas by providing cost-based reimbursement from Medicare.
Recognition of others is categorized as which of the following types of development?
Social
Cognitive
Emotional
Physical
Final answer:
Recognition of others falls under social cognitive development, which involves acquiring and utilizing social skills.
Explanation:
Social and emotional development is a crucial aspect of a child's overall development. Recognition of others, or the ability to understand and acknowledge the presence, thoughts, and feelings of others, falls under social cognitive development. Social cognitive development involves acquiring and utilizing social skills, such as empathy, perspective-taking, and emotional intelligence. It enables individuals to form and maintain healthy relationships, navigate social situations, and understand the impact of their actions on others.
One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is
Answer:
A rise in plasma osmolarity
Explanation:
Despite the wishes of the family and the recommendations of the care team, a 70-year-old client with a diagnosis of heart failure, but who is otherwise healthy, wants to have a do not resuscitate (DNR) order in place. What statement by the care team most clearly prioritizes the client's autonomy?
Answer:
"if that’s what she wants, then ultimately we’re obliged to respect her wishes"
Explanation:
Lice are small wingless insects that make their home in human hair and feed on very small amounts of blood from the scalp. They can be transferred from person to person and through the use of contaminated items such as brushes or pillows. Which type of disease is lice infestation?
Answer:
Lice infestation is a communicable disease.
Explanation:
The type of disease is lice infestation is Pediculosis and it is Communicable Diseases.
What type of lice infestation is ?Communicable Diseases - Lice. Abstract: Head lice are small parasitic bugs that stay at the scalp in which they lay their eggs and feed on blood. Head lice are unfold maximum normally with the aid of using direct touch from head to head, or with the aid of using sharing belongings.
The Pediculosis is an infestation of the bushy elements of the frame or apparel with the eggs, larvae or adults of lice. The crawling ranges of this insect feed on human blood, that may bring about excessive itching.
Thus well explained.
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A mother brings her 15-month-old toddler to the clinic for his preventative health care visit. The clinician takes the history and observes the child's interactions and behaviors and is the ready to begin the rest of the examination. Which of the following best describes the general approach to the pediatric examination of the young child?
a) Begin with least invasive parts of the examination first.b) Children age <2 years do not need to be examined.c) Always give immunizations prior to beginning the examination.d) Examine the child in the same order as for an adult patient.e) Never examine a young child in the mother's lap.
Answer:
a) Begin with least invasive parts of the examination first.
Explanation:
The sequence for examining a child should vary with the child's age,
development, and overall comfort level. In general, perform less‐
invasive maneuvers first and delay potentially distressing maneuvers
until later in the examination.
Answer:
Always examine prior to immunization
Explanation:
How do eGFR and proteinuria differ before and after the administration of spironolactone?
Answer:
Answered below.
Explanation:
Spironolactone is a diuretic of the potassium-sparing class. It acts to prevent the absorption of too much sodium and thereby preserving the potassium levels in the blood.
It is used in the treatment of disease conditions such as hypokalemia, fluid retention, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease.
In certain kidney conditions where there is protein in urine or proteinuria, spironolactone has been used for therapy.
The long-term use of spironolactone in the treatment of proteinuria shows a decrease in the levels of proteinuria.
The estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR decreased after one month of treatment using spironolactone.
Spironolactone has been shown therefore, to be beneficial in the control and management of these conditions.
Why is the brain stem sometimes called the “reptilian brain”?
Answer:
The reason they call the brain stem reptilian brain, is because it represents the oldest and most primitive part of our brain. The one we share with simpler organisms, like reptilians.
Explanation:
: )
Answer:
io
Explanation:
Your patient is a child weighing 45 pounds. The doctor has ordered Achromycin syrup 0.02 gm per pound q.i.d. The bottle you have on hand is labeled 125 mg per tsp. How many ml will the child receive PER DAY?
Answer:
141.98 ml/day
Explanation:
The data given by the exercise is as follows:
Weight of child = 45 lbs
Dose of medication = 0.02 g / lbs four times a day
Bottle concentration = 125 mg / tbs
The question asks for the total amount of medication the child has to receive in ml per day.
One should know the conversion of tbs to ml (1 tbs = 4.93 ml approx.)
Total medication in grams this child should receive per day:
0.02 g/lbs x 45 lbs x 4 times a day = 3.6g a day = 3600 mg a day (always check which units are the most convenient)
Since 1 tsp of the medication contains 125mg:
3600 mg / 125 mg/tsp = 28.8 tsp a day
Finally, since each tsp contains approx. 4.93 ml:
28.8 tsp x 4.93 ml/tsp = 141.98 ml a day = 141.98 ml/day
How many hours of sleep do teenagers need?
4-6
6-8
8-10
10-14
Answer:i think it is 8-10
Explanation:
I looked it up
in a first aid kit. (1 point)
3. It is important to have
flash light
socks
assorted sized bandages
paper to write down the problem
According to the textbook, when arranging cots or cribs for naptime, it's important to space children at least
feet away from each other.
A. two
B. three
C. one and a half
D. one
A 68-year-old woman with heart failure presents with tachycardia, S3 heart sound and basilar crackles bilaterally. BP is 90/68 mmHg; BUN is 58 mg/dL (20.7 mmol/L); creatinine level is 2.4 mg/dL. This clinical presentation is most consistent with:
A. Prerenal azotemiaB. Acute glomerulonephritisC. Tubular necrosisD. Postrenal azotemia
Answer:
A. Prerenal azotemia
Explanation:
Prerenal azotemia is the most common type of acute renal failure. Prerenal azotemia is a condition where the kidneys are hypoperfused, this leads to acute tubular necrosis. This hypoperfusion is as a result of decreased circulating volume especially for patient with dehydration and blood loss, decreased cardiac output (seen in patients with heart failure) and excessive sequestering of fluids for patient with burns. For prerenal azotemia BUN:creatinine(cr) ratio > 20:1. In this case BUN is 58 mg/dL (20.7 mmol/L); creatinine level is 2.4 mg/dL, therefore BUN/cr = 58:2.4 = 24.17:1
Laboratoty findings for some disease are:
Acute glomerulonephritis: BUN:creatinine(cr) ratio > 20:1Acute Tubular necrosis: BUN:creatinine(cr) ratio < 20:1Answer:
A. Prerenal azotemia
Explanation:
Prerenal azotemia can be seen as the way in which the blood that flows or circulates to the kidneys is not sufficient enough leading to decrease in blood flow to the kidneys.
Although this can occur due to some reasons such as hemorrhage, shock, congestive heart failure, adrenal insufficiency among others.
A damaged or injured kidney can also lead to PRERENAL AZOTEMIA because the kidneys can no longer get rid of enough nitrogen waste which may lead to
abnormally high level of nitrogen waste products in the blood causing the fluid not to flow enough to the kidneys which is why PRERENAL AZOTEMIA is the most common known cause of acute renal failure.
Based on the information given concerning the 68 years old woman the clinical presentation is most consistent with: PRENETAL AZOTEMIA.
A client admitted on the inpatient mental health unit has been suspicious of other clients on the unit. This client is often angry at others' comments, and carries a grudge against a roommate for accidentally using the client's bath towel. Which personality disorder is most likely the client's diagnosis?
A client admitted on the inpatient mental health unit has been suspicious of other clients on the unit. This client is often angry at others' comments, and carries a grudge against a roommate for accidentally using the client's bath towel. Which personality disorder is most likely the client's diagnosis?
The sport with the teams that have the highest global recognition and value is
Which describes how diseases are most commonly spread?
by transferring pathogens during sneezing
by eating contaminated food
by transferring pathogens during hand contact
by drinking contaminated water
Final answer:
Diseases are most commonly spread through airborne transmission, direct contact, and the ingestion of contaminated food or water, with airborne transmission being particularly common for respiratory illnesses like flu and the common cold.
Explanation:
Diseases can be spread through various methods, such as ingestion of contaminated food or water, direct contact with an infected individual, or through airborne transmission. Pathogens that are transferred during sneezing are a form of airborne transmission. This occurs when droplets expelled from a person's respiratory system contain pathogens like viruses, which are inhaled by another person. Examples of diseases spread this way include flu and the common cold. Moreover, diseases like hepatitis A, polio, and cholera can be spread through the fecal-oral route, often by ingesting food prepared without adequate hand-washing or drinking water contaminated by feces. Direct contact with another person or objects can also spread diseases like athlete's foot, warts, mononucleosis, and oral herpes. The manner in which a pathogen enters a susceptible host is known as its portal of entry, which is often through mucous membranes after contact with an infected surface.
Even though she admits that she fears becoming fat and alternates between binge eating and vomiting, Rebecca doesn't believe that she has an eating disorder. However, she would possibly receive a clinical diagnosis of which of the following? bulimia nervosa gonorrhea tend-and-befriend response
Answer: bulemia nervosa
Explanation:
A woman who _______ is likely to experience the latest menopause. has never been pregnant has always had very short menstrual cycles has used oral contraceptives for 20 years has been pregnant and given birth once becomes sexually active at age 15
Final answer:
A woman who has used oral contraceptives for 20 years is likely to experience menopause later compared to other factors mentioned. Menopause generally occurs at an average age of 50 to 52, but various factors can alter this timing.
Explanation:
The female reproductive system undergoes many changes as women age, with one of the most significant being menopause, the cessation of the menstrual cycle. Research suggests that various factors can influence the age at which a woman experiences menopause. A woman who has used oral contraceptives for a lengthy period, such as 20 years, is likely to experience a later menopause compared to those who have never been pregnant, have had short menstrual cycles, have been pregnant and given birth once, or became sexually active at a young age. While the average age of menopause is between 50 and 52 years, it can vary widely due to factors like health, lifestyle, and genetic predisposition.
The correct option is 2. A woman who has always had very short menstrual cycles is likely to experience the latest menopause.
The timing of menopause can be influenced by various factors, including genetics, lifestyle, and reproductive history. Among the options provided, having very short menstrual cycles is most closely associated with a later age of menopause. Short menstrual cycles are typically defined as cycles lasting less than 25 days, and they are indicative of a shorter follicular phase, which is the phase before ovulation. Research has suggested that a shorter follicular phase may be associated with a later onset of menopause.
Here's the reasoning behind the other options:
1. has never been pregnant: Pregnancy and breastfeeding can delay the onset of menopause, as these conditions suppress ovulation and reduce the number of follicles available for future ovulation cycles. However, never being pregnant does not necessarily mean a woman will experience the latest menopause.3. has used oral contraceptives for 20 years: The use of oral contraceptives can affect menstrual cycles but does not directly determine the age at which menopause occurs. Oral contraceptives contain hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle and can mask the natural cycle, making it difficult to predict menopause based on this factor alone.4. has been pregnant and given birth once: While pregnancy can influence the timing of menopause, having been pregnant and given birth once does not necessarily indicate that a woman will experience the latest menopause. It is the cumulative effect of multiple pregnancies and the duration of breastfeeding that may have a more significant impact on delaying menopause.5. becomes sexually active at age 15: The age at which a woman becomes sexually active does not have a direct impact on the timing of menopause. Menopause is primarily determined by a woman's genetic background and the depletion of her ovarian reserve, not by her sexual activity.The correct question is:
A woman who _______ is likely to experience the latest menopause.
1. has never been pregnant
2. has always had very short menstrual cycles
3. has used oral contraceptives for 20 years
4. has been pregnant and given birth once
5. becomes sexually active at age 15
Glaucoma can be detected at a(n)
Cavities, plaque, and tartar can be detected at a(n)
Plaque is formed from
in the mouth and can cause cavities
During a dental cleaning, a technician will the patient's teeth to clean in between them.
Answer: eye exam, dental exam, bacteria, floss
Explanation:
Eyes can detect glaucoma, and teeth can detect cavities, plaque, and tartar because plaque forms in the mouth and can lead to tooth decay.
What is the Glaucoma ?A series of eye disorders known as glaucoma harm the optic nerve. For clear vision, the optic nerve, which transmits visual data from the eye to the brain, is essential. High pressure in your eye is frequently associated with damage to the optic nerve.
Impairment of the optic nerve, which ensues in loss of visual field, is the origin of the chronic, progressive eye sickness known as glaucoma. Eye pressure is among the key risk factors. Fluid can accumulate in the eye due to an issue with the drainage system, which can result in severe pressure that harms the optic nerve.
Glaucoma is a dangerous, chronic eye condition that, if left untreated, can cause vision loss. Because plaque accumulates in the mouth and can cause tooth decay, teeth can detect cavities, plaque, and tartar just as eyes can detect glaucoma.
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what condition is caused by pathogens
The condition caused by pathogens is known as an infection.
An infection occurs when pathogenic microorganisms, known as pathogens, invade the body's tissues and multiply, leading to a host response. Pathogens can include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Depending on the type of pathogen and the body's immune response, infections can range from mild to severe and can affect any part of the body. Common examples of infections caused by pathogens include the common cold (often caused by rhinoviruses), urinary tract infections (commonly caused by Escherichia coli bacteria), and malaria (caused by Plasmodium parasites). The treatment for an infection depends on its cause and may involve the use of antimicrobial medications such as antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, or antiparasitics.