Insulin and growth hormones are both steroid hormones.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

False

Explanation:

On the basis of their chemical composition, hormones are classified into two broad categories: lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones. The water-soluble hormones include amine hormones, proteins, and peptide hormones and eicosanoid hormones.

Steroids hormones are lipid-soluble hormones. Examples of steroid hormones include aldosterone, cortisol, etc.  

The hormones that are made of more than 50 amino acids are categorized as protein hormones. These hormones generally have 50-200 amino acids in their chemical structure. Both growth hormone and insulin are the protein hormones.  

For example, insulin hormone consists of peptide chains A and B with 21 and 30 amino acids respectively. The peptide chains are joined together by disulfide bonds. Likewise, the growth hormone is made of as many as 191 amino acids.  


Related Questions

Explain why disease alleles for cystic fibrosis (CF) are recessive to the normal alleles (CF+), yet the disease alleles responsible for Huntington disease (HD) are dominant to the normal alleles (HD+).

Answers

Answer:

Cystic fibrosis mutation is recessive to normal allele because only one functional or normal allele is enough to produce a functional protein. So, if mutation is present in one allele then also, a normal protein can be made from normal allele. The presence of normal protein prevents the expression of disease.

In addition, mutated allele only results in the loss of function of protein which can be compensated by the expression of normal allele. It does not add any toxic effect to the protein. Consequently, the disease is inherited in autosomal recessive fashion.

In contrast, Huntington mutation not only alters the structure of the functional protein but also adds toxicity to it. The altered protein is enable to interact with 100s of other proteins and inhibit or decrease their function. So, if only one allele is present then also, the mutated protein will be produced and it will result in the phenotype. Consequently, it is inherited as autosomal dominant fashion.

Sunlight is required for all cellular organisms on Earth, because all organisms are either photosynthetic or dependent on a photosynthetic organism.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

The sunlight is required for the living organism because all the living organism on the earth are either autotrophs or depends on the autotropic organism for their survival.

The green plants perform the process of photosynthesis by trapping sunlight. The other organism depends on the plants for their survival.

Hence, the given statement is true that all the living organism depends directly or indirectly on the sunlight.

All hormones are made wither from cholesterol or amino acids
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

There are two type of hormones:

- Steroids, which are synthesized by chemichally modifying cholesterol

- Peptidic hormones, which are proteins, and as such, are made with aminoacids.

As a Drosophila research geneticist, you keep stocks of flies of specific genotypes. You have a fly that has normal wings (dominant phenotype). Flies with short wings are homozygous for a recessive allele of the wing-length gene. You need to know if this fly with normal wings is pure-breeding or heterozygous for the wing-length trait. What cross would you do to determine the genotype, and what results would you expect for each possible genotype?

Answers

To determine the genotype of a Drosophila fly with normal wings, a test cross with a homozygous short-winged fly is conducted. If all offspring have normal wings, the parent is homozygous; if offspring show a 1:1 ratio of normal to short wings, the parent is heterozygous.

To determine if a fly with normal wings is pure-breeding or heterozygous for the wing-length trait, you would perform a test cross by crossing it with a fly that is homozygous for the short wings (the recessive allele). This means crossing the fly with the unknown genotype (normal wings) with a fly that is homozygous recessive (short wings).

If the fly with normal wings is homozygous dominant (pure-breeding), all offspring will have normal wings because they would all receive at least one dominant allele. However, if the normal-winged fly is heterozygous, approximately half of the offspring will have normal wings and half will have short wings, indicating the presence of the recessive allele in the parent with normal wings.

A Punnett Square can illustrate the expected outcomes:

If the normal-winged fly is homozygous (WW), all offspring will be Ww (normal wings).

If the normal-winged fly is heterozygous (Ww), the offspring will be 1:1, half Ww (normal wings) and half ww (short wings).

The alternate forms of a gene are known as:
a. collinear transcripts
b. alleles
c. pseudogenes
d. polypeptides
e. unit factors

Answers

Answer:

Alleles

Explanation:

The genetic traits exhibit variations. The forms of a particular gene that govern the variations of a specific genetic trait are called alleles.

Alleles occupy corresponding loci on the homologous chromosomes. A gene may have two or more than two alleles. For a diploid organism, two alleles for a gene may be present in the genome irrespective of the multiple alleles for the trait present in the gene pool of the population.  

For example, "T" and "t" are the alleles for the plant height gene wherein the allele "T" imparts the "tall" phenotype and the allele "t" imparts the "dwarf" phenotype to the plants.

During meiosis some of the genes inherited from your mother get swapped onto the strand of
DNA you inherited from your father, and vice versa. This event is called crossing over.
Which outcome is the ultimate result of crossing over?
disintegration of the nuclear membrane
o decreased likelihood of twins
increase in the variability of phenotypes
o a smaller number of chromosomes

Answers

Answer:

The outcome resulting from crossing over is increase in the variability of phenotypes.

Explanation:

The non-sister chromatids tend to exchange some of the segments of chromosomes during  the process of meiosis. This phenomenon is termed as crossing over or recombination.

Due to crossing over, a variety of different combinations are achieved in the genes. Hence, crossing over results in increased number of variability of phenotypes. The wide variety of genetic diversity produced is due to this phenomenon i.e crossing over or recombination.

Answer: increase in the variability of phenotypes

Indicate the role of each of the following in DNA replication: (a) topoisomerase, (b) helicase, (c) primase, and (d)ligase.

Answers

Answer:

(a) topoisomerase: is a type of enzyme that helps DNA to wind or unwind to help other enzymes while replicating because DNA becomes overwound ahead of a replication fork.

(b) helicase: helps the DNA to open up. It separates each strand and creates a replication bubble.

(c) primase: this enzyme will synthesize a short DNA fragment known as primer for the polymerase to start copying, the primer is like a signal for the polymerase to know which part it should start to copy.

(d)ligase: after replication happens this enzyme closes back the replication bubble and puts back together DNA like it was.

Final answer:

Topoisomerase relieves supercoiling tension in DNA during replication. Helicase separates DNA strands to allow replication. Primase synthesizes RNA primers needed for DNA polymerase, and DNA Ligase joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

Explanation:

Roles of Enzymes in DNA Replication

Topoisomerase plays a pivotal role by alleviating the tension in the DNA molecule that results from unwinding during replication. This is accomplished by causing transient breaks in the DNA strands and allowing the DNA helix to untwist, thereby preventing the over-winding or supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.

Helicase is crucial for separating the two DNA strands at the origin of replication, creating the replication fork that allows the replication machinery to access the single-stranded DNA.

Primase synthesizes a short RNA primer which is necessary for DNA polymerase to initiate the synthesis of the new DNA strand. Since DNA polymerases require a 3'-OH group to attach new nucleotides, a primer is essential for starting the replication process.

DNA Ligase is the enzyme responsible for joining Okazaki fragments by sealing the nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone of the lagging strand, thus creating a continuous DNA strand.

What is carrying capacity?
a. Exponential growth
b. Growth rate
c. The minimum number of individuals an environment can support
d. Logistic growth that starts off fast but slows down as the population gets larger
e. The maximum number of individuals an environment can support

Answers

Answer:

e. The maximum number of individuals an environment can support

Explanation:

Carrying capacity refers to the largest population size that can be supported by a specific habitat for an indefinite period of time. The concept of carrying capacity assumes that the environment of the habitat should remain constant.

Carrying capacity is represented by letter "K" and changes in response to the changes in the environmental conditions of the system.

For example, good rainfall in grassland would increase its carrying capacity for grazing animals while a drought would reduce it due to reduced availability of food.

Compare/Contrast the growth process and life cycleof plants and
animals.

Answers

Answer:

Comparison between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:

A single cell is enough to initiate life in plants and animals. The cells of both the plants and animals multiply to increase their number. The gametes in animals and the plants that produce flower, shows sexual reproduction and are haploid in nature. The egg and sperm of animal is similar in function with the megaspore and microspore of plants.

Differences between the growth process and life cycle of plants and animals:

The fertilization of plants depends on other animals ( like bees and bird) but the animal fertilization does not depends on other organisms. Well developed parental care is present in animals but absent in plants. The growth of most plants includes the alternation of generation whereas limited animals shows alternation of generation.

Symptoms associated with which of the following diseases are due to production of an EXOtoxin that affects the nervous system (brain, spinal cord, nerves, etc.)?
a. polio
b. botulism
c. rabies
d. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
e. the symptoms of all of these diseases are due to neurotoxin production

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Botulism is a classical example of a exotoxin-mediated disease.

When C. Botulism grows in food, for example, and you eat it, it is the toxins that were produced that gives you the disease, not the bacteria per se.

A very characteristic presentation of this is infants that contract botulism from the soil (were the toxins are, but not the bacteria). Infants are much more susceptible to botulism because adults GI tract is mature enough to protect from the toxins, but infants usually cannot.

Freediving is an activity in which a person dives, sometimes to great depth, without the use of scuba gear. The diver must hod his or her breath for the duration of the dive. (the record depth with no equipment such as diving fins, is 101m; the offical record time is over 11 minutes). historically freediving has been used by pearl divers and sponge divers.



some freedivers hyperventilate (breathe rapidly and deeply) before diving. hyperventilation can change the concentration of CO2 in the blood and may increase the length of time that a person feels like he/she can hold his/her breath.



how does hyperventilation affect blood pH?



a.) it increases CO2 and decreases H+ in the blood, increasing pH

b.) it decreases CO2 and increases H+ in the blood, increasing pH

c.) it increases CO2 and H+ in the blood, decreasig pH

d.) it decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH

Answers

Answer:

d.) It decreases CO2 and H+ in the blood, increasing pH

Explanation:

Carbon dioxide is eliminated from the body as a gas in exhaled air, during hyperventilation the volume of air breathed in and our increased above the normal, causing more [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] to exit the body affecting the equilibrium between bicarbonate ion and carbon dioxide:

[tex]CO_{2}+H_{2}O <- H_{2}CO_{3} <- H^{+}+HCO_{3}[/tex]

This change in the equilibrium (to the left) results in a pH rising because of the loss of H+.

I hope you find this information useful! Good luck!

Which (if any) of the following statement regarding smallpox is not correct? if all of the statements are correct, choose the final answer.
a. the vaccine is made from live vaccinia virus
b. the disease is spread through respiratory droplets
c. smallpox has been eradicated worldwide.
d. the vaccine may revert to pathogenicity causing smallpox
e. all of the above statement regarding smallpox are correct

Answers

Answer:

The correct answers are e. "all of the above statement regarding smallpox are correct".

Explanation:

Smallpox vaccination is one of the most clear examples of the benefits of performing a global vaccination program, because smallpox has been officially eradicated worldwide in 1980. However, some precautions regarding this disease should be taken, as is a very pathogenic diseases that is spread through respiratory droplets. The smallpox vaccine contains live vaccinia virus and it may revert to pathogenicity, therefore its application should be performed by an expert to assure that the virus does not affect the patient.

Arteriosclerosis is an example of a degenerative disease.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Arteriosclerosis is a degenerative disease affecting the heart by hardening of the arteries with deposits of fats in the arterial walls. It is categorized as a degenerative disease because it is a continuous process which causes cell and tissue changes from reducing blood circulation to tissues of the heart from low blood irrigation and extenuation from over pumping due to the reduction of the arterial diameter.

Three of the following are evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants. Select the exception.
a. similar sperm structure
b. the presence of chloroplasts
c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division
d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts

Answers

Answer:

b. the presence of chloroplasts

Explanation:

The presence of chloroplast is a character being common to all the groups of green algae (to which charophytes belong) but also to plants, if one associates "plants" to the group formed by non vascular plants (mosses and relatives), non seeded vascular plants (ferns and lycophytes) and seeded plants (conifers or gymnosperms and flowering plants or angiosperms).

Thus, as the presence of chloroplasts is common throughout all these groups, it does not provide any taxonomic relevant information to particular link the charophytes to the land plants (or embryophytes, all the taxa above mentioned) as their closest relatives.  

Final answer:

Option B- The presence of chloroplasts is not unique evidence of the close relationship between charophytes and plants. Similarities in sperm structure, cell wall formation during cell division, and genetic similarities in chloroplasts are more specific indicators of their close evolutionary relationship.

Explanation:

Among the options you have provided, the correct one that doesn't serve as evidence that charophytes are the closest algal relatives of plants is b. the presence of chloroplasts. While it is true that both charophytes and plants have chloroplasts, the presence of chloroplasts is not a unique characteristic to these groups alone. Chloroplasts are found in a variety of photosynthetic organisms, including other types of algae. Therefore, the presence of chloroplasts does not specifically indicate a close relationship between charophytes and plants.

On the other hand, a. similar sperm structure, c. similarities in cell wall formation during cell division, and d. genetic similarities in chloroplasts all provide strong evidence for the close evolutionary relationship between charophytes and plants.

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Explain the difference between epistasis end dominance How many loci are involved in each case?

Answers

Answer:

Dominance:

Dominance may be defined as the phenomena in which intra allelic genes are involved in the process. The dominant trait hides the expression of the recessive trait. The same alleles of the gene are involved in this expression. Two loci of the same gene are involved in the dominance.

Epistasis:

Epistasis may be defined as the phenomena in which inter allelic genes are involved in the process. The one gene modifies the expression of the other gene. Different gene are involved in this process. Four loci of two different genes are involved in the process of epistasis.

Final answer:

Epistasis involves genetic interaction between two or more loci, leading to one gene masking the effects of another gene, while dominance refers to one allele masking another within the same gene. Epistasis often results in non-Mendelian phenotypic ratios, in contrast to the typical Mendelian ratios seen with dominance.

Explanation:

Difference Between Epistasis and Dominance

Epistasis is a form of genetic interaction between two or more loci, where the expression of one gene or locus masks or modifies the expression of another gene at a different locus. In epistatic interactions, we often see a deviation from the typical Mendelian ratios, such as 9:3:3:1, due to the suppression of one gene by another. For instance, in Labrador Retrievers, the E locus can mask the coloration effect of the B locus, leading to different coat colors.

Dominance, on the other hand, refers to the relationship between alleles at the same genetic locus, where the dominant allele masks the expression of a recessive allele at that locus. Unlike epistasis, dominance involves just one gene with two alleles, not multiple genes.

Epistasis can result in various phenotypic ratios depending on the type of epistasis (e.g., 9:3:4 in recessive epistasis or 15:1 in dominant epistasis), whereas dominance within a single gene locus follows the standard Mendelian 3:1 phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross.

Which of the following is a e?
a. Aa
b. aa
d. AA
e. all of the above are examples of homozygotes
e. only b. and c. are examples of homozygotes

Answers

Answer: f. only b. and c. are examples of homozygotes

Explanation:

Diploid cells (all non-reproductive cells) have two copies of each gene, called alleles, one obtained from the father and one from the mother. In genetics, an organism is a homozygote for a gene if both alleles are the same. In contrast, heterozygotes have different alleles for the same gen.

Genes are represented with a letter, and you can differentiate between alleles if the letter is uppercase or lowercase.  

For example, if you wanted to represent the gene that encodes a flower color, you could call A the 'red' version of it and a the 'blue' version of it. A plant would be homozygote for that gen if it had the same version for both alleles, AA or aa.

If the rice already had the genes that could make vitamin A, why did scientists use genes from other organisms?
A. The rice genes didn't make the right type of vitamin A.
B. It's easier to introduce genes from one species into another than from just one species.
C. Scientists could have just "turned on" the rice genes, but they wouldn't have learned anything from that process.
D. It's easy to extract genes from bacteria.
E. The scientists didn't know how to "turn on" the genes in the rice.

Answers

Answer:

A. The rice genes didn't make the right type of vitamin A.

Explanation:

Regular white rice does not have the gene to produce beta carotene. The human body converts the beta carotene into vitamin A.

To increase the nutritional value of rice, the gene for beta carotene from daffodil flowers was inserted into the cells of endosperm of rice.

This allowed these cells of the genetically engineered rice varieties to produce beta carotene. Production of beta carotene imparted golden color to the rice grain and hence, the name.

Which of the following is a trait that links modern primates into a single taxonomic group?
a. Retention of five functional digits on the tore and hindimbs
b. Claws modified into flattened and compressed nails
c. Sensitive tactile pads on the distal ends of the digits
d. A complex visual apparatus with high acuity
e. All of the above

Answers

Answer:a. Retention of five functional digits on the tore and hindimbs

Explanation:

The presence of five digits or pentadactyly on the fingers as well as on the toes makes the primates distinct from other mammals. Also the keratin nails are present on each digit makes these organisms distinct from other mammals.

The five digits on the hindlimbs helps in grip of objects and on toes helps in climbing.

In general, the Earth's climate became cooler throughout the course of the Cenozoic which greatly influenced the evolution of mammal's during this time period. Which of these is not a correct statement about this cooling event?
a. the Antarctic and Arctic ice sheet both formed during the end of the Miocene
b. falling carbon dioxide levels lead to a reverse greenhosue effect
c. water locked in ice contributes to decreased sea levels
d. ocean circulation patterns are affected by global cooing
e. the closing of the isthmus of Panama is a result of the drop in global temperature

Answers

Answer:

d. ocean circulation patterns are affected by global cooling

Explanation:

According to current studies, during glacial periods the change of ocean circulation and the increase of its productivity contributed to the reduction of atmospheric CO2 levels. As a result, this reduction influenced the cooling of the poles and the expansion of the Antarctic ice sheets in the Cenozoic period.  Therefore the change in ocean circulation influences the cooling of the earth.

Why is it necessary to have a primer on each side of the DNA segment to be amplified?

Answers

to know where to start and to have a model to follow

Final answer:

Primers are essential in PCR as they provide a starting point for DNA polymerase to begin synthesis. A primer on each side of the desired segment ensures that only the specific DNA region is exponentially amplified through subsequent PCR cycles.

Explanation:

Importance of Primers in PCR Amplification

To understand why a primer is necessary on each side of the DNA segment to be amplified, it is important to grasp the fundamentals of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process. Primers are short synthetic single-stranded DNA molecules that are reverse complementary to each of the two strands of the target DNA at their 3' ends. This means that the top primer anneals against the bottom DNA strand and the bottom primer anneals against the top DNA strand, essentially flanking the area to be replicated.

In the first cycle of PCR, the primers serve as an anchor for DNA polymerase, which can only add nucleotides to a pre-existing 3'-OH group provided by primers. Without primers, there would be no DNA synthesis as DNA polymerase requires a primer from which to extend the DNA strand. As a result, during the initial PCR cycle, two DNA fragments are produced: one that starts at the beginning of the desired sequence, and another that ends with the desired sequence, both extending beyond the DNA of interest.

The necessity of having a primer on each side is to ensure that in subsequent cycles of PCR, the area between the primers is selectively amplified. Each additional cycle further replicates the desired segment, ultimately leading to exponential amplification of the specific DNA region of interest.

What are the economic impacts of any of the parasitic crustaceans on any of the commercial or sport fisheries?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The Crustaceans used for commercial sale are crabs, shrimps and lobsters. All these animals are subjected to the invasion of the marine parasites such as copepods, branchiura, anchor worms, fish lice, and gnathia. These parasites affects the body of the crustaceans and cause diseases and ultimate death. This will lead to decrease in number of commercial quantity of crustaceans and fisheries. Hence, will be responsible for high economic loss.

Which of the following is not a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils?
a. lower melting temperature
b. reduction of some cis double bonds to single bonds
c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease upon consumption by humans
d. conversions of some cis double bonds to trans double bonds.
e. longer shelf life

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option a. "lower melting temperature".

Explanation:

Food makers add hydrogen to vegetable oil in order to make them more solid. The melting point of vegetable oils that go trough a partial hydrogenation process do not lower, actually, the melting point increases. Vegetable oils that are partially hydrogenated are partially saturated, which in consequence increases its melting point to the point that they could be solid at room temperature.

Final answer:

Lowering of melting temperature isn't a consequence of partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils. Instead, it creates more saturated fats, increasing the melting temperature. Other consequences include conversion of cis double bonds into single or trans bonds, risk increase of cardiovascular diseases, and extended shelf life.

Explanation:

The partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils leads to several outcomes, but a 'lower melting temperature' is not one of them. On the contrary, hydrogenation causes an increase in melting temperature because it converts unsaturated fats (present in vegetable oils) into saturated fats, which are solid at room temperature. During partial hydrogenation, cis double bonds are converted into single bonds or trans double bonds, which is associated with a greater risk of cardiovascular disease when consumed by humans. Furthermore, these alterations enhance the oil's shelf life due to the increased resistance to rancidity.

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Treatment levels that produce circulating levels in excess of natural or optimal levels are termed _____________

Answers

Answer:

Pharmacological doses

Explanation:

In our bodies the hormones and other regulators that are present usually operate in small quantities that range from pico to microgram/ml of blood and this level of hormone and other regulators is referred to as the physiological level.when treatments are given then it may lead to the production of these hormones or regulators that may exceed the physiological levels, and the levels may increase up to milligram range. Such treatments levels that lead to the excess production fo circulating levels that surpass the natural or optimal levels are termed as pharmacological doses.

How many chromosomes will be in a normal human nucleus at the end of meiosis? a. 23 b. 46 c. 69 d. 92 e. none of the above is correct

Answers

Answer:

In human haploid cells there are 23 chromosomes.

It will be 23 chromosomes found

Draw the structure of an amino acid and a dipeptide.

Answers

Answer:

Amino acids are molecules with an amino group (-NH2), a carboxylic acid group (-COOH) and a variable group (X) that gives origin to around 20 different kinds of amino acids, you can see how the structure of an amino acid looks in the image I added.

A dipeptide is a molecule derived from two amino acids, as you can see in the image they form a bond between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid group of the other one, forming a bond we call peptide bond, this reaction also produces a molecule of water.

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be
a. 0.25x.
b. 0.5x.
c. x.
d. 2x.

Answers

Answer:

d. 2x.

Explanation:

At metaphase the DNA chromatides are duplicated. This explains that if in G1 phase of the cell cycle the DNA content is x, then the content in metaphase of meiosis I is 2x.

Which of the following statements best distingueshes hypothesis from theories in science?
a. Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
b. Hypothesees are guesses; theories are correct answers.
c. Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
d. Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often contradicted by experimental results.

Answers

Answer: c. Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.

Explanation:

In scientific decipline, the hypothesis is a tentative statement which is produced by the method of prediction and assumption based on direct observation of the natural phenomena or event. It can be tested by using the experimental methodology.

Theory is a explaination for the cause of natural event or phenomena. This is based on the evidences obtained after experimental trials. A hypothesis can be used for generation of theory. A theory is more explanatory approach because of the details and evidences than hypothesis. Hence, c is the correct option.

The structure(s) that may carry either urine or sperm in the male pig is(are):
a. ureter
b. bladder
c. urethra
d. penis
e. a and b
f. c and f
g. b, c and d
h. all of the above

Answers

Answer: d. penis

Explanation:

In pigs some of the parts of the excretory system are related to the reproductive system. The urethra is the tube where the urine get collected from the urinary bladder so as to release through the external orifice. The urethra remains connected to the penis. The vas deferens are the tubes which drains the sperms from the testes into the urethra. The urine as well as the sperms are both drained into the urethra which are finally carries away and excreted out from the body by another tube like structure that is penis.

Cooking food adequately to kill microbes will prevent all food-borne illness.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Cooking, not just heating up, but adequately cooking will help to kill a lot of microorganisms present in food. The majority of the microbes present in our food are mesophilic organisms, this means they grow best in temperatures between 68 and 113 °F, not too hot and not too cold. The only way to ensure these microorganisms are killed and prevent food-borne illness is to apply the correct amount of heat, more than 120 °F.

why is it important to stain young cultures of bacteria with the grain stain?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Grain stain is a stain that is used for wood polishing. It is used for culture of new and young bacteria so as to support the innoculation of these young bacteria, supports their growth and survival.

Answer:

Grain stain is a stain that is used for wood polishing. It is used for culture of new and young bacteria so as to support the innoculation of these young bacteria, supports their growth and survival.

Explanation:

Other Questions
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