Answer:
The correct answer is option B- pressure within the alveoli.
Explanation:
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the lungs especially in the alveoli of the lungs so is also known as "intra-alveolar pressure".
This pressure helps in the breathing process as :
1. During inspiration - The thoracic cavity volume increases due to which the intra-pulmonary pressure becomes less than the atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to inhale about 500 ml of air.
2. During expiration- the thoracic volume decreases which cause the intra-pulmonary pressure larger than atmospheric pressure which causes the lungs to exhale the air.
Thus, option B- pressure within the alveoli is the correct answer.
Intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli and fluctuates with breathing cycles, balancing against atmospheric pressure to enable gas exchange. It is subject to Boyle's law and influenced by transpulmonary pressure.
Explanation:The intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. It fluctuates during the phases of the breathing process, increasing as the alveoli fill with air during inspiration and decreasing during expiration. Intrapulmonary pressure is essential for gas exchange and is precisely regulated to ensure efficient ventilation in response to the body's oxygen demands. It is influenced by the volume of the gas in the lungs, as per Boyle's law, and the transpulmonary pressure, which is the pressure difference between the intrapulmonary pressure and the pressure within the pleural cavity, known as intrapleural pressure.
Atmospheric pressure is another crucial factor in breathing, as the intrapulmonary pressure tends to equalize with atmospheric pressure. Negative pressure, as described in pulmonary physiology, is pressure lower than atmospheric pressure, and it occurs within the pleural cavity, contributing to the lungs remaining inflated under normal conditions.
During pulmonary ventilation, air moves from areas of higher to lower pressure, moving through the airways until intrapulmonary pressure equilibrates with atmospheric pressure. This dynamic process is vital for the inhalation and exhalation of air, which allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide necessary for the function of the body's cells.
The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is the:
a. bundle of HIS
b. AV bundle
c. SA node
d. AV node
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is:____, would be, C: The SA node.
Explanation:
The heart has an autonomic, and automatic, electrical system that is responsible for the heart being able to perform its functions. This structure, known as the conducting system of the heart, is formed by a series of specialized neural cells capable of generating and conducting electrical charges that stimulate the myochardial cells, and activate them, so that they will contract and relax during a heart cycle. The starting point of this conducting system, is the SA node, at the atria of the heart. It will be the neural cells in the SA node which will autonomically, and automatically generate an electrical current that will move downwards in the same way as it happens in the nervous system, towards the AV node at the top of the ventricles, then down towards the bundle of His and finally to the Purkinje fibers. Therefore, the SA node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.
Where is the thymus located?
a. posterior to the stomach
b. superior to the heart
c. near lymphatic capillaries
d. posterior to the sternum
Answer:
d. Posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:
The thymus is a very large gland active during childhood, that is located right behind the sternum, in the middle of the two lungs. This area is part of the Mediastinum. The Mediastinum is a region inside the thorax that contains the great vessels (aorta artery, pulmonary artery), the heart, the trachea, the esophagus, the thymus, and many lymph nodes.
The thymus is important because before birth and during childhood produces a substance called thymosin that stimulates the production of lymphocytes.
The thymus cannot be posterior to the stomach, because in this location is the peritoneum that is a thick layer of fatty tissue with the function of sticking the abdominal organs to its place.
The thymus cannot be superior to the heart, because right there we could find the aorta artery and pulmonary veins which are big enough to fill that place.
Near lymphatic capillaries is not a place for a big gland as the thymus. Because these tiny structures are located in the intercellular space, so it is too small to have the thymus in it.
The thymus is located posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:The thymus is located posterior to the sternum, which is the bone in the middle of the chest. It is positioned behind the breastbone and extends upward towards the neck. The thymus is part of the immune system and plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T cells. The thymus is an important part of the immune system. In humans, it is located in the chest, specifically, posterior to the sternum. This position means that it is situated behind the sternum, a bony structure in the middle of your chest that connects to the rib bones. The thymus is also superior to the heart, meaning it is located above the heart. However, it is not related to the location of lymphatic capillaries or posterior to the stomach.
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After 2 weeks JP complains of a painful rash on her back. JP is diagnosed with herpes zoster. What explanation can the nurse give for the occurrence of this new diagnosis?
Answer: the herpes zoster is a viral infection caused by the same varicela virus. If JP had varicela before, the virus could reactivate in a way that does not produce varicela, but zoster.
Explanation: Herpes zoster is an infection caused by varicela-zoster virus. When someone had varicela, this virus remains "latent" in the nervous tissue and could be reactivated in elderly people, or in those with diseases like HIV; when the immune system is not so strong.
The classic presentation is a painful eruption in the skin, mostly located in the back.
Describe the role of pancreatic enzymes and bile in chemical digestion in the small intestine.
Explanation:
The arrival of food in the small intestine stimulates the duodenal mucosa to produce the hormones secretin and pancreatin, which in turn stimulate the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice. Secretin is produced in response to the stimulation of the acidity of the bolus reaching the small intestine. Pancreatic juice, which arrives in the duodenum, is highly rich in bicarbonate and neutralizes the acidity of the bolus and thus guarantees the action of the pancreatic enzymes that only work at slightly alkaline and neutral pH.
Another attachment to the digestive tract is the gallbladder that stores a fluid called bile. Bile emulsifies fats, and is produced by the liver from old red blood cells and is stored in the gallbladder. It has no digestive enzymes. It has bile salts (glycolate and sodium taurocholate) that emulsify fats, facilitating the action of lipases (increase the surface action). Another function of bile salts is to solubilize the final products of lipid digestion, thus facilitating their absorption through the intestinal mucosa.
Which of the following structures are gonads?
A) seminal vesicles.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate gland .
D) testes.
E) A, B and C are correct
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
Gonad is also known as a sex gland or a reproductive gland. It is a gland that primarily produces both sex cells and sex hormones.
In females,
The reproductive cells are egg cells that are produced by the ovary.
In males,
The reproductive/sex cells are the sperms that are produced by the testes in the form of spermatozoa.
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate gland are parts of male reproductive system and are not gonads. They do not produce sperms.
Option D is correct.
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
A fundus is a portion of an organ opposite its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite which opening?
a. What organ in the digestive system has a fundus?
Answer:
The correct answer is the stomach.
Explanation:
The thick walled organ located between the esophagus and the duodenum of the small intestine is the stomach. It lies on the left side of the abdomen. The fundus is the upper part of the stomach which is inferior to the diaphragm. The fundus is the upper body and below it is the main part of the stomach.
The fundus has an important function as it stores both gases that are formed during chemical digestion and undigested food. Food may rest in the fundus for a while before being mixed with the chyme.
Thus, the correct answer is the stomach.
The fundus is a part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite of the cervix. In the digestive system, the organ with a fundus is the stomach, which is opposite to the pyloric canal.
Explanation:The term fundus is used in anatomy to refer to the part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. In the context of the uterus, the fundus of the uterus is located at the top, opposite to the cervix which is the opening.
Just like the uterus, a part of the digestive system also has a fundus. The organ in the digestive system with a fundus is the stomach.
The fundus of the stomach is labeled so because it is opposite to the pyloric canal, which is the opening of the stomach leading into the small intestine. Because the fundus is the highest point of the stomach, it often contains a gas bubble when the person is in the upright position.
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Layer of connective tissue that separates a muscle into small bundles called fascicles.
Answer:
Perimysium
Explanation:
Perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that strengthen and increases the muscle fitness. Perimysium shows direct connection with muscle fibers and epimysium.
The perimysium layer separates the muscle into the small bundles called fascicles with different dimensions. Perimysium regulates the role of epimysial fascia in motor coordination.
Thus, the answer is perimysium.
The recording of the electrical currents produced by contraction of skeletal muscle is called a(n): _______
Answer:
An Electromyography (EMG)
Explanation:
An electromyography is a technique of recording the electric activity produced by the contractions of the skeletal muscles. An electromyography is performed with the help of the instrument called Electromyogram.
It is a medical diagnosis in which the electrical activity of the body is recorded or the response of the body to external stimuli signals is measured, to find out information about the disease present in the body.
Therefore, the electrical currents produced by the contraction of the skeletal muscles are recorded by an Electromyography (EMG).
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the ___________.
Answer:
Hepatic portal vein , is responsible for the transport of blood from the intestine to the liver.
Explanation:
The Hepatic portal vein also called the portal vein ,
The blood vessel carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract , pancreas , gallbladder and spleen to the liver .
The blood in the blood vessel contains toxins and nutrients absorbed from the digested contents.
Around one third of the total blood of liver flows via Hepatic Portal Vein.
Hence,
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the Hepatic Portal Vein.
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction icd 10 code?
Answer:
Diastolic (congestive) heart failure
The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM I50.3 became effective on October 1, 2018. This is the American ICD-10-CM version of I50.3 - other international versions of ICD-10 I50.3 may differ.
Explanation:
heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, the ICD-10 code is I50.30. T
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is a type of heart failure where the heart's ability to pump blood remains adequate, but the heart muscle is stiff and does not fill properly with blood.
Definition: Heart failure is when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
Classification: Heart failure can be classified into two main categories:
HFrEF (Heart Failure with reduced Ejection Fraction): where the heart's pumping ability is weakened.HFpEF (Heart Failure with preserved Ejection Fraction): where the movement and pumping force of the heart are sufficient, but the heart does not fill properly.Symptoms: Common symptoms include:
Shortness of breathFatigueSwelling in the lower extremities, abdomen, or neck veinsDiagnosis & Management: Diagnosis typically involves a combination of physical examinations, imaging tests (like echocardiograms), and laboratory tests. Treatment strategies often include lifestyle changes, medications, and, in some cases, surgical interventions.
Which of the following is not included in the autonomic reflexes?
A) withdrawal
B) cardiovascular
C) pupillary
D) gastrointestinal
Answer: A) withdrawal is not included in the autonomic reflexes.
Explanation:
As autonomic reflex involves the response of glands, cardiac muscles, regulates organs and smooth muscles. So, that is why cardiovascular, pupillary and gastrointestinal are autonomic reflexes. Whereas, withdrawal is somatic type as it involves the skeletal muscles and spinal cord. The main difference between both the reflexes is that target tissues are effectors.
It is the fluid from the Prostate gland.
Answer:
Prostate fluid
Explanation:
Prostate fluid comes from the Prostate gland.
It propels seminal fluid into the urethra.
The inflammatory response is a set of responses that often occurs in the body following tissue damage, such as damage caused by bacteria, as the body attempts to restore homeostasis. Which of the following are characteristic signs and symptoms of inflammation, in this example?
a. heat and redness caused by increased blood flow to the damaged tissue area
b. tissue swelling caused by increased vascular permabililty, which helps phagocytic WBC's and other beneficial proteins to reach the damaged tissue area
c. defending the body against infection and disease
d. both a. and b.
Answer:
Both (a) and (b).
Explanation:
Inflammation is a type of defense mechanism in the body. This is a type of innate immunity present in the organism from birth. The acute or chronic reaction determines the symptoms of inflammation.
The redness and heat occurs in the inflamed area due to the increase blood flow in the affected area. Tissue swelling or edema may occur due to the accumulation of fluid that increases the phagocytic activity of WBCs and other useful chemicals that can reach to the damaged area.
Thus, the answer is option (d).
Answer:
the correct answer d
Explanation:
Adhering junctions are based on two different types of cytoskeleton filament systems. Name those systems.
Answer:
Actin filament and intermediate filament.
Explanation:
Adhering junction is a type of cell-cell junction that is present in endothelial and epithelial cells. Cadherin, catenin and plakoglobin are the different proteins present in the adhering junction.
Adhering junction cytoplasmic face is attached with the actin filament of the cell. This junction also show attachment with the intermediate filament of the cell. Desmosomes joins the intermediate filament of adheren junction.
Thus, the answer is Intermediate filament and actin filament.
Which of the following muscles is located at the shoulder?
A. platysma
B. sternocleidomastoid
C. deltoid
D. pectoralis minor
Answer:
Pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Pecoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle lies beneath the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle arises from the third ribs, fourth and fifth ribs.
The pectoralis muscles fans out from the shoulder upper ribs area. This muscle is involved in the coracoid process of scapula. The pectoralis muscle helps in the depression point of the shoulder.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the __________.
Answer:
Platysma.
Explanation:
Platysma is the sheet of muscle that arise from the chest and deltoid muscle. The muscle rises over the clavicle.
Platysma muscle comes upward from the slanting manner by the sides of the neck. This muscle draws the corners of the mouth and lower lip. Hence, platysma muscle is used to express horror and for the pouting.
Thus, the answer is platysma.
Final answer:
The orbicularis oris is the muscle used for pouting and expressing horror, as it is responsible for moving the lips and creating various facial expressions.
Explanation:
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the orbicularis oris. This facial muscle is a circular muscle that moves the lips. Along with various other facial muscles, such as the orbicularis oculi, which is responsible for closing the eyes, the orbicularis oris plays a critical role in conveying facial expressions. These muscles are capable of a wide range of movements, from expressing disgust and anger to forming the shapes necessary for speech and eating. Unlike muscles that move the skeleton, many of the muscles of facial expression, including the orbicularis oris, insert into the skin, allowing them to create subtle and complex expressions by moving the skin around the eyelids, nose, and mouth.
Which of the following is NOT part of the larynx?
a. thyroid cartlage
b. carina
c. cricoid cartilage
d. arytenoid cartilage
Answer:
Carina.
Explanation:
Larynx is also known as voice box. This organ is involved in food aspiration and produce sound. Larynx manipulates the pitch and voice of an individual.
The main parts of larynx are cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage. The carina is a part of trachea, not the larynx.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
In which of the following types of surgical procedure is a Lowman used?
A. cardiovascular
B. orthopedic
C. ophthalmic
D. gynecologic
Answer:
Orthopedic
Explanation:
Lowman joint is an instrument which is used during the surgery of bones. This instrument holds the bone in right position during the time of surgery.
This instrument is made of stainless steel with a satin finish and can be used again and again during the time of surgery.
This instrument is available in different sizes depending on the size of bone whose surgery is being done.
Thus, the correct answer is Option B
The correct answer is Orthopedic, option B. The Lowman clamp is mainly used in orthopedic procedures to hold bone fragments together securely.
The Lowman clamp is a specialized surgical instrument primarily used in orthopedic procedures.
It is widely known for its application in holding bone fragments together during surgeries, particularly when setting fractures or performing repairs on the skeletal system.Orthopedic surgeries are complex medical procedures that involve the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disorders and injuries related to the musculoskeletal system. This can include bones, joints, ligaments, tendons, and muscles. The Lowman clamp, also known as the "bone clamp," is specifically designed with a series of teeth that allow it to grip bone securely without causing significant damage or compromising the blood supply to the bone tissue.For example, during a surgical procedure to fix a fractured femur, a surgeon might use a Lowman clamp to hold the bone fragments in proper alignment while securing them with screws, plates, or other orthopedic hardware.This ensures that the bones heal correctly and restores functionality to the affected limb.
The Lowman clamp is primarily used in orthopedic surgeries to hold bone fragments together. It is an essential tool in the surgical repair and alignment of skeletal structures.
This makes the correct answer to the question Orthopedic, option B.
A muscle responsible for most of a movement is called a(n) ____________.
Answer:
The correct answer is skeletal muscle.
Explanation:
Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscle which helps in movement of the body. These muscles can be controlled and are attached to the bones.
Skeletal muscle are attached to the bone via tendons and nerves which covers our bones and form a distinct muscle tissue organ. On contractions these muscle pulls on the tendons which causes the shortening of the muscles and the body part move.
Thus, skeletal muscle is the correct answer.
What are the 3 hallmarks of diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
The three hallmarks of diabetes mellitus, are: polyuria, polyphagia and polydipsia. Polyuria, is the excessive production of urine and it is seen when people constantly need to pee. Polyphagia, is excessive hunger, in which, people constantly express their need to eat something. And finally, polydipsia, is excessive thirst, present in diabetics, who constantly feel the sensation of thirst and tend to drink a lot of fluids. When these hallmarks are present, even sometimes without a test, it can be ascertained that a person suffers from diabetes mellitus, or simply, diabetes.
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus was the term used to define diabetes in general. Diabetes is defined as a metabolic disorder in which, usually, sugar levels are very high in the blood, due to a problem either with production of insulin, or the insulin present being incapable of performing its function. There are three types of diabetes mellitus: diabetes type 1, with onset in youth, and also called insulin-dependent diabetes, type 2, with onset in the adult, also known as non-insulin dependent diabetes, and type 3, which is gestational diabetes. In all three cases, the three symptoms mentioned above appear, and they are the clearest signs of a possible diabetes.
What are three major regions of the large intestine?
Answer:
The three major regions of the large intestine are the cecum, the colon and the rectum.
Explanation:
Large intestine, the last organ of the gastrointestinal tract and digestive system.
The main function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and storing the remaining waste material as feces, before removed it by defecation.
The three major regions of the large intestine are-
1. cecum
2. colon
3. rectum
Luke, a 17-month-old, failed treatment with amoxicillin for otitis media. At the two-week recheck, his TM was still erythematous and you cannot see the landmarks. He has persistent nasal congestion, he is not sleeping at night, and he has a 101°F fever. What is the next best step for Luke?
Answer:
The next step is to start treatment with third generation cephalosporin combined or not with B-lactams according to the evolution of the symptoms.
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
What you have to keep in mind is:
It is an obstruction of the eustachian tubes.
We have to take the following measures:
Do not breastfeed or take a bottle lying down, do it in a sitting or semi-sitting position due to tubal obstruction. Nebulizations to decongest (with physiological solution)
betamethasone 1 drop / kg 3 times a day, orally for 3 days then twice a day for three days and lie once a day two days
children's paracetamol 5cm every 8 (according to temperature)
It is a congestive catarrhal otitis media compatible with tubal obstruction (eustachian tube
at the nasal level)
Where within the Gl tract does carbohydrate digestion begin? Where is carbohydrate digestion completed?
Answer:
The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth and ends in the small intestine.
Explanation:
The absorption of carbohydrates, depending on whether they are simple or complex, will begin their digestion in the mouth by the action of saliva in food, where starches are initially separated; Once this food bolus reaches the stomach, the hydrochloric acid acts, to end later in the small intestine. Amylase, a component of pancreatic juice, ends the digestive process of carbohydrates by transforming starches into maltose, which are then transformed into monisacarides (glucose, galactose, fructose), which is the way they are absorbed by the body. In the liver they are again transformed into glucose.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL, and PCL:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
Knee.
Explanation:
Knee joins the legs with the thighs. Knee consists of patellofemoral joint and tibiofemoral joint. Knee helps in the process of extension and flexion.
Cruciate ligamnets stabilize the knee structure. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are the intracapsular ligaments of knee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The ACL and PCL are intracapsular ligaments found in the knee joint, providing necessary stability by limiting certain movements.
Explanation:The intracapsular ligaments mentioned, the Anterior Cruciate Ligament ( ACL ) and the Posterior Cruciate Ligament ( PCL ), are found within the knee joint. So the answer to the question is: 'b. Knee'. These two ligaments are key structures contributing to stability in the knee joint. They prevent unwanted forward and backward movement as well as rotation within the knee.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament).
These ligaments are found in the knee joint, which is responsible for stabilizing the knee and preventing excessive movement.
They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the knee joint and are often injured during activities involving sudden changes in direction or impact.
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There are seven processes that project from the vertebral arch. Which one articulates with the vertebra above it?
a. inferior articular process
b. superior articular process
c. transverse process
d. spinous process
e. lamina
Answer:
The correct option is : a. inferior articular process
Explanation:
One of the seven processes that project out from the vertebral arch is the articular processes. The articular processes serve the purpose of fitting with the adjacent vertebra.
There are two types of articular processes: the inferior and the superior.
The inferior process articulates with the vertebra above it.
You have a patient who has a very strange disorder. In this disorder, ADP sticks permanently to the myosin head. From your knowledge of excitation contraction coupling, describe how this patient will present.
Answer:
one thing might be muscle contractions
Explanation:
White matter of the brain and spinal cord is formed from aggregations of?
a. the brain and spinal cord
b. myelinated axons from many neurons
c. The lipid part of myelin
Answer:
The correct option is b. myelinated axons from many neurons
Explanation:
White matter is an area which is present in the brain and the spinal cord, that are mainly consists of bundles of myelinated axons, also called tracts. The myelinated axons are the nerve fibres that are surrounded by a lipid-rich substance called myelin.
The presence of the myelin gives the tissue the white colored appearance in contrast to the cerebral cortex which is the grey matter.
Therefore, the myelinated axons from many neurons aggregate together to form the white matter present in the brain and the spinal cord.
The hormone released from the hypothalamaus in response to low blood pressure or loow blood volume is:
a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin II
c. renin
d. ADH
e. ACTH
Answer:
D. ADH
Explanation:
ADH also known as the antidiureitc hormone is secretated in response to low production. The angiotensin II (produced in the lungs) increase the volumen os ADH. As its name says this hormone avoids the water losses in the kidneys in order to do that ADH associates with the AVPR1A recpetors, those receptors open calcium compartiments inside the cells, once opened the vessel constrictions starts avoiding the water losses. Those receptos also stimulates platelet aggregation and coagulation factor VIII, by this way the ADH also avoid hemorrhages.
Which of the following does NOT apply to an enzyme:
a. Catalyst
b. Inorganic
c. Protein
d. All of the above apply to an enzyme
Answer:
Inorganic
Explanation:
Enzymes are bio catalyst that increase the rate of a biochemical reaction occurring in living organisms. Enzymes lowers the activation energy of the reaction and increases the rate of formation of product
Enzymes are organic molecules and works at optimum temperature and pH. Inorganic cannot apply to the enzymes because they are made upof protein.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Enzymes are organic molecules and do not contain inorganic elements. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
Explanation:A. Catalyst: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in cells by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.
B. Inorganic: Enzymes are organic molecules, composed mainly of proteins, and do not contain inorganic elements.
C. Protein: Enzymes are proteins, which are long chains of amino acids that fold into complex three-dimensional shapes.
D. All of the above apply to an enzyme: This statement is incorrect as enzymes are not inorganic, but rather organic molecules.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
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Write a brief description of the following:
a. synovial membrane
b. mesothelium
c. articular cartilage
d. cutaneous membrane
e. mucous membrane
f. goblet cell
g. bursa
h. lamina propria
i. keratohyalin
j. serous membrane
Answer:
i think its a.b.c.d.e.f.g.h.i.j
Explanation:
because they all have to be in one sentence.