Answer:
The correct answer is option A) "Sequence of bases".
Explanation:
Even though DNA most of the time is comprised entirely of only four different nucleotide bases (adenine, thymine, guanosine and citosine), it is the sequence of these bases that allows DNA to carry a vast amount of hereditary information. The genes that carry the hereditary information are translated according to the sequence of the DNA bases. The information is translated by triplets of bases (codons) that correspond to different amino acids that are added to new synthesized proteins during translation.
Final answer:
The A) Sequence of bases in DNA is responsible for its ability to carry a vast amount of hereditary information because it encodes the genetic instructions in a stable and replicable format, with the specific pairing of bases allowing for accurate replication and repair.
Explanation:
It became clear to Watson and Crick that the sequence of bases in DNA is responsible for its capacity to carry a vast amount of hereditary information. The nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA, consist of a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose (5-carbon sugar), and a phosphate group. The bases—adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T)—form specific pairs through hydrogen bonds: A with T and C with G. This allows DNA to store the genetic instructions needed for the development and functioning of living organisms.
The sequence of these nitrogenous bases encodes information in a similar way to letters forming words in a language. This genetic code is read in groups of three bases, known as codons, each of which specifies an amino acid in a protein chain. The virtually limitless combinations of these bases allow for an enormous variety of genetic information to be encoded. In this way, DNA is analogous to a storage device, capable of holding diverse types of information through sequences of nucleotides, without altering its own stable double-helix structure.
Furthermore, the complementary pairing of the bases is key to the process of DNA replication, ensuring that genetic information can be accurately copied and transmitted to new cells. This pairing provides a reliable mechanism for the repair and duplication of genetic information, vital for the continuation of life.
Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to
a. skip breakfast regularly
b. folow low-carbohydrate/high-protein diets
c. exercise 2 to 3 times per week
d. eat meals regularly, including breakfast
Answer:
Exersize for at least 60 minutes multiple times a week
Explanation:
Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to eat meals regularly, including breakfast. Thus, option (d) is correct.
Members, according to the National Weight Control Registry, are more likely to eat breakfast and exercise frequently. It's vital to remember that different registry members may have different tastes and weight-control methods.
Seventy-eight percent of registry participants claimed to eat breakfast each day. Regular mealtimes, including breakfast, are one behaviour that register participants frequently exhibit.
Breakfast is frequently referred to as the most crucial meal of the day since it gives you the energy you need to start the day and jump-starts your metabolism.
As a result, the significance of the National Weight Control Registry are the aforementioned. Therefore, option (d) is correct.
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What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
Select one:
a. hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
b. peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
c. hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid Incorrect
d. disulfide bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid
Answer:
The correct answer is a. hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond.
Explanation:
The secondary structure of proteins are formed by α-helices and β-structures, that can be supported by hydrogen bonds between amine hydrogens and another peptide bond.
The secondary structure of a protein is maintained by hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another.
Explanation:The secondary structure of a protein is maintained by hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond. This arrangement is specifically between the amino group (NH) of one amino acid and the carboxyl group (CO) of another amino acid in the protein chain. The hydrogen bonds help to stabilize the secondary structure which typically takes the form of alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets.
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Organisms that use energy from sunlight or inorganic substances to make organic compounds
Answer:
Autotrouph
Explanation:
Restriction enzymes cleave double-stranded DNA at the sites that show a particular type of symmetry: These sequences read the same on both strands and are called palindromes. Which of the following sequences is NOT a palindrome?
A) 5′-AGATCT-3′
B) 5′-CCTGCAGG-3′
C) 5′-CCTCAGG-3′
D) 5′-CGGCCG-3′
E) 5′-GGTACC-3′
Answer:
The correct answer is C) 5"-CCTCAGG-3"
Explanation:
Palindromic sequence is a that remain same when read from front side as well as from the back side.
Such as MADAM,ROTOR
In the given question option C is not a palindromic sequence beacuse when we read from frontside it is
5"-CCTCAGG-3"
But when we this this same sequence from the backside it becomes
5"CCTGAGG-3"
Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
Select one:
a. a change in electrical charge.
b. stretching of the cell membrane.
c. the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d. All of the above
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
The ions present in our body can move through voltage gated ions channels present in the cell. The ions are unequally distributed in the interior and exterior of the cell.
The ion gated channel may get open or close depending upon the presence of the different ions. These ions movement changes the electric potential of the cell. The ions movement results in the propagation of the nerve impulse and may cause the cell membrane stretching. The binding of the molecules to the ion channels may open or close the movement of particular ions.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Final answer:
Ion channel gates can close in response to changes in electrical charge, mechanical stretching of the cell membrane, or the binding of specific molecules, meaning 'All of the above' is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Ion channel gates are integral components of cellular membranes and respond to various stimuli to maintain the cell's homeostasis. The closing of the pores of ion channels can occur due to a change in electrical charge, resulting from a change in membrane potential; mechanical stretching of the cell membrane, which can be detected by mechanically gated channels; or the binding of specific molecules to the channel, such as ligand-gated ion channels responding to neurotransmitters, or the interaction with G-proteins that may indirectly lead to channel opening.
Therefore, when we consider the stimuli that can lead to the closing of ion channel gates, the correct answer to the question is d. All of the above. Ion channels allow rapid and selective ion transport across cellular membranes, contributing to crucial processes such as the transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction.
Which structure is indicated by letter D?
O Posterior dorsal root
O Anterior ventral root
O Peripheral nerve
O Dorsal horn
The structure indicated by letter D is the Dorsal horn.
Explanation:The structure indicated by letter D is the Dorsal horn. The dorsal horn is a region of gray matter within the spinal cord that receives sensory information from the body via the posterior dorsal root. It is involved in processing and transmitting sensory signals to the brain.
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Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?
a. directional selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. disruptive selection
d. sexual selection
e. artificial selection
The eggs and larvae of marine animals tend to require water with more dissolved oxygen in it than the adults do. If water flows from a freshwater source into a salt water bay, what effect would this have on the population of marine animals?
Answer:The population will drop.
Explanation:
This is because the fresh water of high water potential will lower the solute potential of the salt water when they mixed up; to create a HYPOTONIC ENVIRONMENT for the larvae and the eggs.
Therefore, the higher water potential drives in water into the larva and egg membrane, down the water gradient by OSMOSIS. This made the cells and its organells to swell up until the elastic limit of the cell membrane is exceeded.
The products busted (eggs and larvae) once the elastic limit / stretching limit is exceeded leading to death of larvae and destrction of the egg, with eventual drop in population of the marine animals; since reproduction has been truncated( old animals are not replaced with young ones from the eggs and larvae.)
A student travels to Brazil by boat on the Amazon River, without visiting the doctor prior to traveling for recommended vaccinations for travel to South America. The student becomes ill during the trip and is quarantined. Which of the diseases listed below does the student most likely have?
A) hantavirus
B) yellow fever
C) Ebola
D) Q fever
Answer:
The correct answer is B) Yellow fever
Explanation:
Yellow fever is a viral disease and this disease is spread by the bite of female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes that are found in Brazil and many other South American countries and the chances of getting yellow fever gets increase when anyone travels through amazon river.
The symptoms of yellow fever disease are fever, headache, back pain, nausea, and in some people it causes liver damage which results in yellowing of the skin.
So if anyone is traveling to Brazil in South America then he must be vaccinated for yellow fever which is also recommended by the WHO and CDC. Therefore yellow fever would be the disease that the student would most likely to have.
Final answer:
The student most likely has yellow fever, which is caused by the yellow fever virus transmitted by mosquito vectors.
Explanation:
The student most likely has yellow fever.
Yellow fever is caused by the yellow fever virus and is transmitted to humans by mosquito vectors. It occurs primarily in tropical and subtropical areas in South America and Africa. The virus can be transmitted from infected monkeys to humans in tropical jungle regions, or between humans in urban areas.
Prevention of yellow fever includes the use of mosquito netting, window screens, insect repellents, insecticides, and vaccination for those traveling to endemic areas.
Marfan's syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan's syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan's syndrome is an example of?
Answer:
Pleiotropy
Explanation:
Marfan syndrome is an example of pleiotropy, which can be defined as the phenomenon in which a pair of allele genes conditions the appearance of several traits in the same organism.
All of these traits occur through the action of only one pair of genes, so pleiotropy shows that the idea that each gene affects only one trait is not always valid.
In other words, a pleiotropic gene can have an effect on several phenotypes at the same time, due to the fact that the mutated gene is used by a group of cells (or targets) that have the same signaling function.
________, which is released from the pituitary gland, can potentially increase the height and weight of an individual to gigantic proportions, especially if administered during childhood and adolescence.
Answer:
Growth hormone
Explanation:
The growth hormone is released by somatotropic cells of the anterior pituitary gland. The growth hormone is an anabolic hormone and metabolic, tissue building and growth-promoting effects on the body. It stimulates the mobilization of fats, increases the blood levels of fatty acids to be used as flues for ATP production. It reduces glucose uptake and triggers glycogen breakdown.
In response to growth hormone, insulin-like growth factors are produced by the liver, skeletal muscle, bone, and other tissues which in turn facilitate growth by cell division, stimulated formation of collagen and deposition of bone matrix.
The growth hormone triggers cell division and cell enlargement, stimulates the growth of long bones by affecting the epiphyseal plate. It also stimulates the skeletal muscles to increase muscle mass. The overall effect is somatic growth. Its hypersecretion during childhood and adolescence can cause gigantism since the active epiphyseal plates promote excess bone growth.
Cold case detectives are investigating a homicide that took place 30 years ago. In reexamining the evidence, they find a tiny spot of blood on the victim’s clothing that was likely left by the murderer. The DNA in the blood has partially degraded over time. What technique(s) would the blood lab technicians use in their examination of this tiny, degraded blood sample? Select all that apply.
A) They would use a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase to make recombinant DNA from this sample.
B) They would use PCR to amplify the DNA.
C) They would use reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) to determine the genes expressed in this DNA.
Answer:
They would use PCR to amplify the DNA.
Explanation:
PCR or Polymerase Chain Reaction, using a thermostable enzyme, Taq Polymerase. It is a molecular biology technique, whose objective is to obtain a large number of copies of a DNA fragment of interest, starting from a minimum. It is done in a thermal cycler.
This technique serves to amplify a DNA fragment; after amplification it is much easier to identify with a very high probability, virus or bacteria causing a disease, identify people or do scientific research on amplified DNA.
To examine degraded DNA from a 30-year-old homicide case, technicians would use PCR to amplify DNA with possible follow-up through RFLP analysis for DNA fingerprinting, which is crucial for identifying the source of the forensic sample. So the correct option is B.
Explanation:Cold case detectives investigating a 30-year-old homicide case would likely use Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to amplify the degraded DNA found in a tiny blood sample on the victim's clothing. PCR is a powerful technique that can increase the quantity of specific DNA sequences for further analysis, making it possible to work with the small and degraded samples typical of old cases. PCR is used in conjunction with restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis to generate DNA fingerprints. While Option A (using restriction enzyme and DNA ligase to make recombinant DNA) could be part of this process, it is more typical to use PCR and RFLP, and Option C (using RT-PCR) is not relevant for this case as it is used to study gene expression, not to amplify DNA from a forensic sample.
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Blood is best classified as connective tissue because _____.
Answer:
It is composed of extracellular matrix (ground substance) and cells
Explanation:
Connective tissue is defined as a type of tissue which binds other tissues and it is composed of a ground substance comprising of fibres into which tissue specific cells are scattered.
Blood has plasma as the ground substance in which blood cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets are scattered)
Further, it also connects various parts of the body, i.e. acts as a medium for transport and signaling.
Blood is classified as a connective tissue because it consists of cells and an extracellular matrix (plasma), similar to other connective tissues. It participates in connecting different parts of the body by transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products.
Explanation:Blood is best classified as connective tissue because it has a similar structure to other types of connective tissue and serves the vital function of connecting different parts of the body. Like other connective tissues, it has cells, an extracellular matrix, and a liquid called plasma. The cells in blood, which include red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, are suspended in the plasma. The unique feature of this tissue type is the presence of an extensive extracellular matrix, which in the case of blood is composed mostly of water with dissolved proteins, salts, and nutrients. The major role of blood as a connective tissue rests on its effort to transport oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products between different parts of the body.
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The Taq enzyme is a type of DNA polymerase that allows researchers to separate the DNA strands during the annealing step of the PCR cycle without destroying the polymerase.
a) true
b) false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Polymerase chain reaction is used to amplify a DNA segment. This reaction completes in 3 steps that are Denaturation, annealing, and extension.
Denaturation: The DNA segment is separated into the single strand by applying high temperature up to 95°c for 30 seconds.
Annealing: During annealing temperature gets lower and the primer gets anneal on the DNA templates.
Extention: During extension temperature is again increased up to 72°c and Taq polymerase is used to add nucleotide in the growing chain.
Therefore Taq polymerase does not separate DNA strands during annealing step rather it extends the new strand of DNA in extension step.
The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called
Answer: Attachment
Explanation: Infants tend to be attached to their parents. For good reason because the parents usually treat kids very well during infancy, and its the only thing the infants understand or know.
The primary motor cortex for control of voluntary muscles is found in the
Answer: The primary motor cortex for control of voluntary muscles is found in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobes.
Explanations:
The primary motor cortex is one of the important brain areas involved in motor function. It is found in the precentral gyrus of frontal lobes. It control voluntary muscles and generate impulses needed for movement execution.
Voluntary muscles are muscles that we can control consciously or we can control them at will and we can choose when we want to use them. They are also refers to as skeletal muscles and are attached to bones. The are majorly use for locomotion.
Answer:
I'm terrible at explaining so here's a screenshot
- Ripper
Explanation:
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. pyramidal and corticospinal extrapyramidal and rubrospinal supplementary and cerebellar-pontine segmental and nigrostriatal
Answer:
pyramidal and corticospinal
Explanation:
Motor pathways control body posture, reflexes and muscle tone, as well as conscious conscious movements. The best known motor route is the pira pyramid system ', which begins in the large pyramidal neurons of the motor cortex, continues along the pyramids of the brain stem and ends at or near the alpha motor neurons. This motor system is extraordinarily important in the clinic, because it is frequently affected by vascular accidents of the brain.
Why are single-stranded binding proteins necessary for DNA replication?
a. They provide the energy necessary to separate the two strands of DNA.
b. They direct the primase where to lay down the primer.
c. None of the answer options is correct.
d. They direct where replication will start.
e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Answer:
The correct answer is e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Explanation:
The replication of DNA requires not only DNA polymerase but also some other enzymes and proteins. To start DNA replication the double-strand DNA should be open up first which becomes possible by the action of DNA helicase.
This separated strand tends to anneal again so to prevent the reannealing of separated DNA strand single-strand-binding protein binds to these open strands. Therefore SSB protein stabilize the single stranded DNA so that the replication takes place fluently.
Therefore the correct answer is e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Single-stranded binding proteins necessary for DNA replication because (E), they prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
What are single-stranded binding proteins?Single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs) are proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). They do this by recognizing specific sequences of nucleotides on the ssDNA. Once SSBs have bound to ssDNA, they prevent the two strands from coming together again. This is important for DNA replication, because it allows the DNA polymerase to access the ssDNA and start copying it.
The other answer options are incorrect. Option a is incorrect because the energy necessary to separate the two strands of DNA is provided by helicase. Option b is incorrect because the primase is a protein that lays down the primer, which is a short segment of RNA that DNA polymerase uses to start copying DNA. Option c is incorrect because SSBs do not direct where replication will start.
So the answer is E.
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What is the traditional name of the group of fungi that lack sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Deuteromycota fungi.
Explanation:
Deuteromycota which is known as imperfect fungi. It is a polyphyletic group of fungi, and they are not reproducing through the process of sexual reproduction. Most member of this phylum are leaves on land and few aquatic member are exceptions.
Reproduction in Deuteromycota are asexual means these fungi produce their spores with the help of asexual reproduction and this process is known as sporogenesis. Some example of this phylum are:
1) Penicillium camemberti.
2) Aspergillus oryzae.
3) Lecanicillium sp.
During recess, children are trying to balance a seesaw. If one side is too low, a heavier child will get off and be replaced by a lighter child; if one side is too high, a lighter child will be replaced by a heavier one. The children’s behavior is similar to our biological states as they try to create:______
Answer:
Homeostasis
Explanation:
Homeostasis is a process in the body where it tries to find a state of dysmic equilibrium
Answer:
Equilibrium.
Explanation:
Our body seeks to keep its internal functions in balance, even with variations in the environment in which it finds itself. This balance is called homeostasis and can be observed when our body tries to adapt to cold, hot days, reduced food and water, physical effort, among others.
An example of this can be seen in the question above, where an individual seeks to keep the two sides of a seesaw in balance.
During a routine physical examination on an older female client, a nurse notes that the client is 5 feet, 3/8 inches (1.6 m) tall. The client states, "How is that possible? I was always 5 feet and 1/2? (1.7 m) tall." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
a) "The posture begins to stoop after middle age."b) "After menopause, the body's bone density declines, resulting in a gradual loss of height."c) "After age 40, height may show a gradual decrease as a result of spinal compression"d) "There may be some slight discrepancy between the measuring tools used."
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The nurse should tell the client that after menopause, the loss of estrogen leads to a loss in bone density, resulting in a loss of height.
In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is the point where the leg bones attach to the rest of the skeleton. Whales also have a small pelvic girdle. What type of evidence for common descent would include the whale's pelvic girdle?
Answer: comparative anatomy
Explanation:Darwin proposed that the forelimbs of human, bats and other creatures (whale) are similar. Although these Fore limbs are used for different purposes; he reasoned that similar forelimbs must have the same origin(Anatomy). He therefore concluded that these organisms should share same ancestors for evolution of modern Organism forms. He reasoned further that these modifications in body structures are required adaptations for survival in the competitive environment –survival of the fittest.
Charles Darwin was an evolutionist, a biologist of immense knowledge. He formulated the law of survival of the fittest
The whale's pelvic girdle serves as evidence for common descent, showing that whales evolved from land mammals that had four legs. The presence of vestigial structures, such as undeveloped hind legs, along with fossil records showing land animal characteristics in aquatic mammals like Rodhocetus, supports the shared ancestry of whales and land mammals.
Explanation:The Pelvic Girdle as Evidence for Common Descent
The presence of a pelvic girdle in whales provides evidence for common descent, indicating that whales and land mammals share common ancestors. In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is a crucial structure that attaches the legs to the axial skeleton and is adapted for supporting body weight and facilitating locomotion. Whales, despite being aquatic and not needing legs for locomotion, have vestigial pelvic bones. These structures are remnants from their four-legged land mammal ancestors, implying that whales evolved from such land-dwelling creatures and secondarily lost their hind legs. In particular, vestigial structures like the undeveloped hind legs in baleen whales, labeled as 'c' in skeletal diagrams, further support this evolutionary link. Additionally, the fossil record shows evidence, such as the aquatic mammal Rodhocetus possessing a type of ankle bone unique to land animals, corroborating the evolutionary transition from land to sea.
You have an F2 generation derived from two true-breeding parents (AA and aa) with different characteristics for the same trait (determined by a single gene). What percentage of the recessive phenotype would you expect to be true breeding if they were self-fertilized?a. 0%.b. 33%.c. 67%.d. 25%.e. 100%
Answer:
The answer is letter B.
Explanation:
The percentage of the recessive phenotype would be 33%.
In garden peas, the allele for tall plants is dominant over the allele for short plants. A true-breeding tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and one of their offspring is test crossed. Out of 20 offspring resulting from the test cross, about _______ should be tall[A] 0[B] 5[C] 10[D] 15[E] 20
Answer:
The correct option is C)10
The punnet square for the parent cross is shown below:
t t
T Tt Tt
T Tt Tt
The punnet square for the test cross is shown below
t t
T Tt Tt
t tt tt
As 50% of the offsprings will be dominant. Hence, out of 20, 10 will be tall.
Lamont and his lab partner were filling out a worksheet on microorganisms. The table they filled in was about microorganisms that were a type of fungus. The boys had to add a third column and list each type of fungus as either helpful or harmful. Lamont wrote helpful for all five examples, but his partner said that was incorrect. Do you support Lamont or his partner? Explain.
A) Lamont is incorrect; athlete's foot is used to make food.
B) Lamont is correct. Fungi are helpful, not harmful. We eat fungi.
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
D) Lamont is correct. All five types of fungi in the table are helpful because they do beneficial things.
Answer:
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
Explanation:
The two examples "of what it does" gives you a hint in the table; Salmonella causes stomach illness and athlete's foot in a skin disease. These two hints shows that Lamont is wrong becuase the 2 fungi are harmful and not helpful. Lamont should have said 3 were helpful.
Answer:
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
Explanation:
Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot. There are two examples of harmful fungi in the table, not just one. Salmonella causes stomach illness and athlete's foot in a skin disease.
A match between the DNA in a sample and the genomic DNA of a particular individual for a single tandem repeat site is not sufficient to establish identity. However, a mismatch is definitive. The primary reason is that:
Answer:
The mismatch is definitive, the primary reason is that, the DNA in the sample must match the original genomic DNA.
Explanation:
Tandem repeat takes place only when 'one or more nucleotide pattern is repeated' and it is 'adjacent' to each other. Mismatch indicates that the sample DNA is not the source for that Original DNA. If the sample is the actual source of the original genomic DNA, then it must be matched exactly.The DNA is matched with the sample DNA in the process of DNA fingerprinting. The mismatch of DNA is representative that the DNA sample does not belong to the original DNA.
What is DNA fingerprinting?DNA fingerprinting is the process of matching the DNA sample with the original DNA based on the tandem repeats.
The tandem repeat is the repeated unit of the nucleotides in the genetic material. When the sample DNA did not match the original DNA strands, it is the representation of mismatch.
The mismatch in the DNA sequence describes the absence of relation between the original and sample DNA.
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Iodine is a yellowish solution. A starch solution is white. A starch solution turns purplish-black in the presence of iodine. If you wait a few hours, then add iodine to the beaker, what color would the beaker solution be?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- the color change will be observed and the solution will turn purplish-black.
Explanation:
Iodine test is performed to test the presence of the carbohydrates mainly starch.
The iodine solution is chemically called potassium iodide which forms a yellow solution. The potassium iodide solution forms a complex with a starch solution which appears a purplish-black color which shows the presence of the carbohydrates.
In the given question, if we add the iodine solution to the beaker after a certain point of time then it will still form a complex with the starch and thus beaker solution will appear darker in color.
Indicate if the conditions described would result in the development of a male or a female individual. SRY is a gene on the Y chromosome that is involved in initiating the development of the male phenotype in humans.
Final answer:
The presence and functionality of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome dictates the development of a male phenotype, leading to testis formation and testosterone secretion. Without a functional SRY gene, the embryo will develop female sex characteristics by default.
Explanation:
The conditions described would result in the development of a male individual if the SRY gene is present and functional. The SRY gene of the Y chromosome in embryonic germ cells produces the testis-determining SRY protein. This sets off a cascade of genetic activations that lead to the differentiation of the bipotential gonadal tissue into testes, which then secrete testosterone to further the development of male sex characteristics. Conversely, if the SRY gene is not present (as is the case for females with XX chromosomes) or it is mutated (as in conditions like Swyer syndrome), the individual will develop female characteristics.
A typical XY genotype with a functional SRY gene will inevitably cause an embryo to develop into a male. However, without the SRY gene or if a mutation occurs within it, the default development of the embryo will be a female. Cellular differentiation within the bipotential gonads will occur towards the formation of oogonia and primordial follicles in the ovary, rather than forming spermatogonia as it would in the presence of SRY.
In humans, a recessive allele of a gene on the X chromosome causes humans to be "colorblind." A colorblind XY man and an XX woman whose genotype is homozygous for normal color vision have children together. What percentage of their offspring are expected be colorblind?
Answer:
The answer is 0%.
Explanation:
If X⁻ represent the recessive allele that causes colorblind, and X⁺ represents the dominant allele, thus:
X⁻Y is the genotype of the colorblind man (he is carrier and he has the disease)
X⁺X⁺ is the genotype of the woman (she has normal vision and is not carrier)
When they have children together, the offspring will have the following genotypes:
X⁻Y x X⁺X⁺ = X⁻X⁺ ; X⁻X⁺ ; X⁺Y ; X⁺Y
Summarizing, they will be 50% X⁻X⁺ (women with normal vision, carrier) and 50% X⁺Y (men with normal vision, non carrier).
No child will have the disease because its expresses when the genotype is homozygous for colorblind allele (X⁻X⁻).
When mosquitoes are very abundant, purple martins flock to the area and specialize on them. When mosquito populations are not large, purple martins are similarly scarce and feed on other insects. This is an example of
A) community carrying capacity.
B) ecosystem carrying capacity.
C) exotic regulation.
D) density-independent regulation.
E) density-dependent regulation
Answer:
The correct answer is E) density-dependent regulation.
Explanation:
When the population growth rate is dependent on the density of a population then it comes under density-dependent regulation. Usually, when a population becomes denser the mortality rate becomes high in that population.
This regulation can occur due to factors like predation, disease, inter or intraspecies competition. So here when the density of the mosquitoes becomes high then purple martin flock to the area and specialize in them to gain nutrition which stabilizes the population of mosquitoes again.
Density-dependent regulation is more significant when the population density of a species increase. So the right answer is E.