Knee extension occurring from femoral condyles rotating forward on tibia as a person stands from a squatting position is an example of the accessory motion called _____.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Arthrokinematics

Explanation:

According to my research on various studies conducted by medical professionals, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this is an example of the accessory motion called Arthrokinematics. This is when a a specific point on one articulating surface comes in contact with a series of points on another surface. Like seen in the picture below.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

Knee Extension Occurring From Femoral Condyles Rotating Forward On Tibia As A Person Stands From A Squatting

Related Questions

Dr. Korir is a 68-year-old college professor. His health is deteriorating, but he wants to continue working at a high level. Based on Baltes's selective optimization with compensation model, which of the following should the professor do?-Ignore his health problems and do the best he can.-Retire, as he won't be able to fully master his job.-Stay on the job, but care less about performing well.

Answers

Answer:

All options are incorrect.

Explanation:

The teacher wants to continue working, but his state of health is weakened, so he should not ignore their health problems, but seek to treat them with medical care so that their quality of life is good. The teacher does not want to retire, so he should keep working, but he should keep doing his work with the same level of quality. You may be wondering "how will the teacher do quality work without ignoring your health?" This is simple to answer, the teacher should choose a single branch of his profession and work only on it, ie the teacher should choose only to teach or research. This way your workload will be reduced, he will have time to take care of his health and will be able to keep his work with good quality.

Celebrities Jenny McCarthy and Jim Carrey are big proponents of anti-vaccination claiming that it causes autism in children. Their testimonial in news media is a classic example of ___________.

Answers

Answer: anecdotal evidence

Explanation:

Anecdotal evidence is based on the generalization limited examples which are not based on reliable statistical evidences. These are not reliable. This can be used to frame a story or a unreasonable claim. Hence, the given situation is an example of a anecdotal evidence. This is because it does not  have an experimental and statistical proof.

What is a precursor?​
a.A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines
b.​A sign or symptom of a clinical vitamin deficiency disorder
c.​A substance that is used to synthesize another compound
d.​A conditionally essential vitamin
e.A sign or symptom of a subclinical vitamin deficiency disorder​

Answers

Answer:

A precursor is c) a substance that is used to synthesize another compound.

Explanation:

A precursor in chemistry is a compound that participates in a chemical reaction to obtain another compound. Also, they could be predecessors of other compounds in a metabolic pathway such as tryptophan and serotonin; tryptophan is the metabolic precursor for serotonin.

How does After 26 Depot serve its community? What are some other ways a restaurant could give back to its community?

Answers

Answer:

After 26 Depot is a community that provides job opportunities to the mentally disabled or cognitively impaired adults of age 26 in different restaurants in Missaukee, Wexford and Osceola.

Explanation:

An initiative by a handful of people to provide employment to the adult of age 26 with developmental and cognitive disabilities to overcome their weakness and depression. This community was opened in 2013, June. At present they employ 19 workers who work at different restaurants.

Their tasks include- serving water, washing dishes, greeting customers, cleaning and many more. This service gave the adults great confidence and public recognition too. They also educate them and groom them to work.  

Monica is extremely concerned about her weight, she is influenced by TV shows and magazines that portray women with supposedly good figures, and she has a flawed perception of most women's actual and ideal weight. These symptoms are a likely cause of which of the following disorders?
a) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) Anxiety disorder
c) Anorexia nervosa
d) Binge eating

Answers

Answer:

c) Anorexia nervosa

Explanation:

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that results from over-concern about body weight and can cause serious physical problems. The person looks in the mirror and, although extremely thin, sees himself as obese. Afraid of further fattening, he overdoes physical activity, fasting, vomiting, taking laxatives and diuretics. Monica feels extremely worried about her weight and has a wrong view of the ideal weight in herself and in other women, this shows that she may be suffering from anorexia nervosa.

During a one-on-one interaction with a client with paranoid-type schizophrenia, the client says to the nurse, "I’ve figured out how foreign agents have infiltrated the news media. They want to shut me up before I spill the beans." How should the nurse describe this statement when documenting this client’s response?

Answers

Answer:

Delusions of persecution

Explanation:

Delusions of persecution is a set of delusional conditions in which the affected person believes he is always being persecuted.

It is very common in cases of paranoid schizophrenia. There are two central elements that are considered fundamental to characterize the persecution craze. The first of these is when the individual thinks the damage is occurring or will occur. The second is when the individual thinks that the perceived and identified persecutor intends to harm him of any kind, whether physical, mental or moral.

This psychological disorder can be observed in the patient exposed in the question, who believes that undercover agents want to shut him up because he has discovered something about them.

What can be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol?

death

thirst

laughter

hunger

Answers

The correct answer would be option B. Thirst.

Thirst will be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol.

Explanation:

Alcohol is a colorless drink which is flammable, volatile and is highly intoxicated. It is made up of natural fermentation of sugar along with the Wine, beer, and other drink's intoxicating constituents.

Because the alcohol contains large amounts of sugar, it leaves the person thirsty and with the regular intake of large amounts of alcohol, the person is likely to suffer from thirst.

Regular consumption of alcohol is very dangerous. It may cause the following diseases:

Liver failureKidney failureDiabetesBladder and Prostate inflammationHepatitisJaundice, etc.

That is why, consuming alcohol is prohibited in some religions.

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The correct answer is option (A) because drinking large amounts of alcohol can lead to death.

A) Death - Correct. Drinking large amounts of alcohol can lead to alcohol poisoning, which can be fatal if not treated promptly. Excessive alcohol consumption can also increase the risk of accidents, injuries, and long-term health problems that may contribute to premature death.

B) Thirst - Incorrect. While alcohol consumption can lead to dehydration and increased thirst, it is not typically considered a direct result of drinking large amounts of alcohol.

C) Laughter - Incorrect. Alcohol consumption may affect mood and behavior, but excessive drinking is more likely to lead to negative outcomes such as impaired judgment, coordination, and cognitive function rather than uncontrollable laughter.

D) Hunger - Incorrect. Drinking large amounts of alcohol can suppress appetite in some individuals, but it is not a common or direct result of excessive alcohol consumption.

Hence, A. is the correct option.

The complete question is:

"What can be the result of drinking large amounts of alcohol?

A) Death

B) Thirst

C) Laughter

D) Hunger

Marlow is an extremely angry young woman. Although she is only 14 years old, she has already been arrested three times for vandalism. She sneaks out at night and slashes the car tires of people with whom she is angry. Sometimes she uses her keys to scratch their cars and occasionally throws bricks through their windows. From what kind of disorder does Marlow suffer?

Answers

Final answer:

Marlow may be suffering from Conduct Disorder, a mental health condition characterized by aggressive and destructive behaviors, such as vandalism.

Explanation:

Based on the provided information, Marlow's behavior of vandalizing property and demonstrating anger issues may suggest a possible personality disorder called Conduct Disorder. Conduct Disorder is a mental health condition commonly diagnosed in adolescence and is characterized by aggressive and destructive behaviors against people, animals, or property.

Individuals with Conduct Disorder often engage in behaviors that violate the rights of others and disregard social norms, such as vandalism, theft, assault, and cruelty to animals. They may also exhibit a lack of empathy and remorse for their actions.

It is important for Marlow to receive professional help from a mental health provider to assess and diagnose the problem accurately and recommend appropriate interventions.

To assist in nutrition screening in the community, the local senior center has developed a screen to help them identify individuals at high risk for malnutrition. Which of the following risk factors might be included?A) Eats alone most of the timeB) BMIC) Acute weight lossD) Appetite

Answers

Answer:

A) Eats alone most of the time

Explanation:

It has been confirmed that eating alone often is harmful to health. Eating alone can increase the risk of obesity in adult citizens, but it can also lead to malnutrition, as many people feel no stimulation to eat alone. For this reason, to help with nutritional screening in the community, the local senior center that has developed a screen to help them identify individuals at high risk for malnutrition should use the "eat alone most of the time" factor as a risk factor for malnutrition.

Patrick is a Vietnam War veteran who has been having a recurring nightmare of being on the frontline. Any sound that remotely resembles gunfire makes him anxious. Although he has been suffering for years with this problem, only recently did he decide to seek treatment. His psychologist asks Patrick to identify the thoughts and situations that evoke anxiety and rank them. His psychologist then begins to help him work through each situation by using relaxation techniques. This technique is called:

Answers

Answer: Systematic desensitization

Explanation:

A modified systemic desensitization procedure was employed in the treatment of the Vietnam war veteran with the reoccurring nightmare of the gruesome mine explosion.

After six session of the desensitization with the  additional self control procedure the anxiety was reoccurring.

This is a type of behavioral therapy that was based on the principle of classical conditioning.

The Nutrition Facts panel currently lists the % Daily Value for vitamin A, vitamin C, calcium, and iron, because these have been nutrients of particular concern for Americans. Foods that are fortified with several nutrients, like the energy bar in this example, may also list the % Daily Value for other nutrients. Since calcium is listed on both of the food labels, let’s compare the nutrient density for calcium for these bars. Which bar has the highest nutrient density for calcium?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - the energy bars.

Explanation:

Fortified foods are the foods that have additional nutrients like nutrients and vitamins and other essential substances so they can be easily available to the American people.

These foods such as the energy bars have the highest density of the calcium in it as they are fortified and are protected to external attack.

Thus, the correct answer is - the energy bars.

The nurse assesses the apical pulse while conducting a cardiovascular exam. The nurse notes the client has an irregular pulse. Which of the following chambers of the heart should be further assessed?
a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option A. right atrium.

Explanation:

The sinus node is located in the right atrium of the heart which is a bunch of specialized cells that present near the vena cava junction. The sinus node has the role of a cardiac pacemaker that generates an impulse on its own in between 60 to 100 impulses per minute.

If a patient has irregular pulse the right atrium should be assessed as left ventricle or the right ventricle or left atrium has no role of generating impulse.

Thus, the correct answer is option A. right atrium.

Question 1(Multiple Choice Worth 3 points) (01.01 LC) Krista used to enjoy ocean kayaking, but her family moved away from the beach. She is not sure that she wants to join any teams and she does not know if any other activities in her area interest her. What should Krista do? Join a team at school so she is not alone Review a map to learn about lakes and parks in her new neighborhood Research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try Exercise only when she visits her old neighborhood where she can go kayaking

Answers

Answer:

Research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try

Explanation:

Answer:

research parks in her area to learn about new activities to try!

Explanation:

ur welcome

Brain blood flow autoregulation ________.
A. is more sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level.
B. causes constriction of cerebral blood vessels in response to a drop in systemic blood pressure.
C. is controlled by cardiac centers in the pons.
D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist.

Answers

Brain blood flow autoregulation is triggered when abnormally high CO2 levels persist, causing a change in blood pH and activating vasomotor responses to adjust blood flow.

The student's question pertains to brain blood flow autoregulation, which is a mechanism that helps maintain consistent cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic blood pressure or other factors. The correct statement regarding this process is D. is triggered when abnormally high CO2 (carbon dioxide) levels persist. The autoregulatory mechanisms involve the local control of vasodilation and constriction in blood vessels, modulated by chemical signals such as carbon dioxide, oxygen, and hydrogen ions. The concentration of CO2 in blood is tightly regulated, as an increase in CO2 leads to increased hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH, which in turn triggers the vasomotor centers to adjust blood flow. Option A is incorrect because the sensitivity to pH and decreased oxygen levels are part of the chemoreceptor response, rather than the primary trigger for autoregulation. Option B is incorrect because autoregulation typically dilates cerebral vessels in response to a drop in systemic pressure to maintain blood flow. Option C is incorrect as the cardiac centers involved in blood flow regulation are located in the medulla oblongata, not the pons.

Victoria is a 21-year-old world class gymnast who trains, on average, for about 6 hours/day. She frequently experiences stress fractures of the bones in her feet. Although she is not pregnant, she has not had a menstrual period for the past 6 months. Based on this information, Victoria probably hasa. osteomalacia.b. menopausal syndrome.c. female athlete triad.d. type 1 diabetes.

Answers

Answer:

c.female athlete syndrome

Explanation:

This causes extra weight put on to the female body which can cause bone fractures. Ps. I'm in 9th grade. How did I do this for you.

Final answer:

Victoria likely has the female athlete triad, a condition including amenorrhea, disrupted eating patterns, and osteoporosis, which can lead to stress fractures in athletes.

Explanation:

Based on the information provided, Victoria, a 21-year-old world-class gymnast who trains extensively and has experienced an absence of menstrual periods for 6 months, is likely suffering from the female athlete triad. This condition is characterized by amenorrhea (absence of menstrual cycle), disrupted eating patterns, and osteoporosis. The female athlete triad can lead to decreased bone mass and an increased risk of stress fractures, which aligns with Victoria’s symptoms of stress fractures in her feet. Victoria’s rigorous training schedule can contribute to these health issues, as excessive exercise and inadequate nutrition can disrupt the hormonal balance necessary for menstrual cyclicity and bone health.

A drug is designed to block fat absorption from the diet in order to promote weight loss. This drug also makes people nauseous if taken in the morning. If people lose weight while taking this drug, can you be sure it is due to reduced fat absorption?

Answers

Answer:

It is not possible to be sure that the weight loss was due to fat absorption.

Explanation:

Drugs that promote weight reduction are very dangerous to health as they can promote serious problems that will harm the health of the patient. These drugs also do not deliver what they promise, because they promise that weight loss will happen due to their ability to promote absorption of fat ingested while eating, however, these drugs make the patient nauseous, so the patient will consume little food due to to malaise and thus lose weight.

A person who wants to lose weight should do so with the help of exercise and medical advice and not with deceptive medications.

Final answer:

Weight loss from a drug designed to block fat absorption could be due to factors other than reduced fat absorption. These factors may include side effects like nausea leading to reduced food intake, or procedures that influence other metabolic processes, as seen with Dinitrophenol (DNP).

Explanation:

The weight loss resulting from the intake of a drug that blocks fat absorption could be due to multiple factors. While the primary purpose of the drug is to prevent fat absorption, the weight loss could also be influenced by the drug's side effect of causing nausea, which might discourage eating. In addition, the reference provided about Dinitrophenol (DNP) suggests that some weight loss drugs operate by impacting the body's metabolic rate, not fat absorption directly.

 

In the case of DNP, it dissipates the proton gradient in the mitochondria, disrupting ATP production and forcing the body to increase its metabolic rate resulting in weight loss. This particular drug does not block fat absorption, but it illustrates that weight loss drugs can work in different ways. Hence, it's crucial to not overlook other potential factors contributing to weight loss while on a fat-blocking drug.

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The main function of vitamin D is to promote​a.​
a. calcium and phosphorus absorption, and calcium mobilization from bone.
b.​synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
c.​conversion of calcium and phosphorus to more readily absorbable compounds.
d.​secretion of calcitonin. e.​synthesis of dehydrocholesterol.

Answers

Answer:

a. calcium and phosphorus absorption, and calcium mobilization from bone.

Explanation:

Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin. It is present in very few foods and also synthesized when skin is exposed to sun's ultra violet rays. In humans, the most important forms of Vitamin D are D3 and D2.

It plays an important role in maintaining the required level of calcium and phosphorus in blood by many ways:

It acts on intestinal epithelial cells to increase the absorption of calcium and phosphorous from digested food. It also enhances calcium mobilization from bone which means calcium is released from the bones to maintain blood calcium level. It also enhances tubular re absorption of calcium in kidneys.

A nurse cares for a client with megaloblastic anemia who had a total gastrectomy three years ago. What statement will the nurse include in the client’s teaching regarding the condition?

Answers

Answer:

"The condition is likely caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency."

Explanation:

Megaloblastic anemia is a condition caused by the reduction in the number of normal red blood cells that become large, immature and dysfunctional in the bone marrow. It occurs due to vitamin B12 and / or folic acid deficiency and the ingestion of drugs that impair DNA formation, such as some antibiotics and chemotherapy drugs.

This type of anemia is common in patients who have had the total gastrectomy procedure, since the stomach is the organ responsible for the absorption of vitamin B12. In case of withdrawal it is common that a deficiency develops in the body. The lack of vitamin B12 is related to hematological changes, especially anemia and neurological changes that can become severe. For this reason, replacement should be constant in these cases and only by injection, since digestive absorption of vitamin B12 is no longer possible.

A researcher uses an anonymous survey to investigate the study habits of American college students. The entire group of American college students is an example of a ____.​

Answers

Answer:

population

Explanation:

According to my research on studies conducted by various biologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the entire group of American college students is an example of a population. This term refers to all of the individuals of the same group, that live in a particular geographical area.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

An infant is born with a cleft palate. Which actions will promote oral intake until the defect can be repaired? Select all that apply.
1. Angle bottle up and toward cleft
2. Burping the infant often
3. Feeding in an upright position
4. Feeding slowly over 45 minutes or more
5. Using a specialty bottle or nipple

Answers

Answer:

2. Burping the infant often

3. Feeding in an upright position

5. Using a specialty bottle or nipple

Explanation:

Roof of the mouth is called palate. It forms between sixth and ninth weeks of pregnancy. In cleft palate the tissue forming the roof of the mouth does not completely join leading to a split or opening in the roof between the mouth and the nose. It is difficult to feed infants with cleft palate because they need to put more energy to create the suction to take in milk and the milk can also go into the nose area. Some methods to promote oral intake in an infant with cleft palate are:

Use a specialized cleft palate bottleFeed the baby in upright position so that the milk does not flow back into the noseBurp the baby often because he or she will take in more air while feeding.

What is a sign that a person may need help for a mental disorder? A) experiencing sudden changes in sleep patterns. B) experiencing sudden changes in the type of food he or she likes to eat. C) becoming interested in different activities at school. D) getting better grades than normal

Answers

Your answer would be ‘A’ because your body is experiencing different energy/calorie intake.
A) experiencing sudden changes in sleep patterns

The two most common genetic causes of intellectual disabilities are _____. Down syndrome and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder and Tay-Sachs disease Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome Prader-Willi syndrome and PKU

Answers

Answer:

Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome

Explanation:

The two most common genetic causes of intellectual disability are Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome.

Fragile X syndrome is an inherited condition that determines changes in intellectual development and behavior. Although considered to be the second most common cause of genetic disability - the first being Down syndrome - the disease is poorly known, as its findings are only around 30 years old. Unlike Down syndrome which is better known and widespread.

Answer:

Fragile X syndrome is an inherited condition that determines changes in intellectual development and behavior. Although considered to be the second most common cause of genetic disability - the first being Down syndrome -

down syndrome-

Explanation:

The nurse is explaining to a nursing student that allograft transplant clients need some form of immunosuppressant therapy. Which statement describes the pathophysiological reasoning behind this?
1. The treatment is indicated only if signs of transplant rejection are present.2. The treatment is a precaution; rejection in allografts seldom occurs.3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection, which does not occur for several weeks.4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.

Answers

Answer:

3. The treatment is designed to target chronic rejection

Answer:

4. Despite accurate tissue matching, allografts contain antigens that trigger the client's immune response.

Explanation: Same species transplant.

A CERT is searching for survivors in a building after an electrical storm. The door to one of the rooms that the team needs to search is closed. Some of the CERT members think they smell smoke. Before entering the closed room, what should the CERT members do?

a) Cover their mouths and noses to keep from inhaling smoke
b) Touch the door handle to feel if it’s hot
c) Feel the closed door with the back of the hand, from the bottom up
d) Have a fire extinguisher ready before opening the door

Answers

Answer:

c) Feel the closed door with the back of the hand, from the bottom up

Explanation:

The Community Emergency Response Team is a team that is in charge of helping the community in case of emergencies and know how to act in case of all the casualties that can occur, when a member or a CERT is searching for survivors in a building after an electrical storm, he should check and feel the closed door with the back of his hand from the bottom up to see if it is hot, or if there is fire inside.

Yes , the answer is c. Just like the other person said.

Injured tissue releases chemicals which activate platelets in the blood. Activated platelet release chemicals to attract MORE platelets, eventually forming a blood clot. Which of the following is this an example?A. Negative feedbackB. Positive feedbackC. Neither

Answers

Answer:

B. Positive feedback

Explanation:

The positive feedback or positive feedback mechanism occurs in smaller quantities compared to the negative feedback mechanism. Positive feedback, unlike negative feedback, ensures increased stimulus that causes imbalance, reinforcing it. Thus, positive feedback is not always beneficial, triggering, in some cases, detrimental effects on the body.

Although less than negative, positive feedback also plays an important role in our bodies. An example of this occurs when platelet release chemicals are activated in an injured tissue to attract more platelets, eventually forming a blood clot.

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Where can you find a great bargain on bread?

1.supermarket
2. warehouse
3Co-op
4.Convenience stores
5.Specialty stores
6. thrift store
7. Farmer's markey

Answers

Answer:

number 1 the supermarket

Explanation:

Based on scientific research, what dietary supplement is effective in conjunction with vigorous training for increasing lean body mass in athletes performing repeated high-intensity, short-duration exercise bouts?

Answers

Answer:

Creatine.

Explanation:

The creatine is the perfect supplement for this type of exercise. It helps for faster muscle recovery, wich is so important for high intensity exercises. Also for lean bodies help to maintain your muscle size and strength.

Fraternal twins are no more genetically similar than nontwin siblings, yet the IQs of fraternal twins are more strongly correlated than those of nontwin brothers and sisters. What explanations can you think of for this difference?

Answers

Final answer:

The correlation between the IQs of fraternal twins and non-twin siblings can be explained by different upbringing, sample size, and the possibility of misidentification.

Explanation:

The difference in the correlation of IQs between fraternal twins and non-twin siblings can be explained by multiple factors:

Different upbringing: Fraternal twins are often raised in different ways, which can result in variations in their intellectual development.

Possibility of misidentification: In some cases, twins that were believed to be fraternal may actually be identical, which can explain the stronger correlation between their IQs.

Sample size: The sample sizes used in studies comparing the IQs of twins and non-twin siblings are often small, which can lead to variations in the results.

A small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn has just been admitted to the nursery. Nursing assessment reveals a high-pitched cry, jitteriness, and irregular respirations. With which condition are these signs associated?a. Hypervolemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypothyroidism

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is: b. Hypoglycemia

Explanation:

Hypoglycemia is a medical condition that is characterized by low blood sugar levels in the body.

The SGA infants may exhibit hypoglycemia, characterized by blood sugar level lower than 2.2 or 3.3 mmol/L. Some of the symptoms shown by an infant with hypoglycemia are jitters, respiratory distress, sweating, seizures, irritability, cyanosis, refusal to feed, high-pitched cry and somnolence.

Therefore, the given symptoms are associated with Hypoglycemia.

After several weeks of feeling gloomy and being socially withdrawn, Marco has suddenly become extremely sociable and talkative. He doesn't seem to need any sleep, and he becomes irritated when his friends tell him to slow down. Marco's behavior is consistent with: ____________

a) histrionic personality disorder.
b) bipolar disorder.
c) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d) schizophrenia.

Answers

The answer is b bipolar disorder
b. bipolar disorder is the answer
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