Answer:
Kyle is extremely manipulative. He can look anyone in the eye and lie convincingly. His deceit often endangers the safety and well-being of those around him, but he is indifferent to their suffering as a result of his actions. His behavior BEST illustrates antisocial personality disorder disorder.
Explanation:
Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD or ASPD) is a personality disorder in which an individual undergo a long term conduct of disregard or violation of other people's rights.
Kyle's behavior, involving deceit, manipulation, and lack of remorse, is indicative of antisocial personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by violation of others' rights, impulsivity, irresponsibility, and absence of remorse. Diagnosis requires the individual to be at least 18, though signs can emerge earlier.
Explanation:The behavior of Kyle as explained, best illustrates antisocial personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by someone who continuously violates the rights of others, often lies and manipulates, is impulsive and irresponsible, and lacks feelings or remorse for their misdeeds. Indicators of this disorder are a history of antisocial tendencies prior to age 15, and problems with the law being quite common. It's noteworthy to say these individuals represent a serious problem for society, as their deceitfulness and indifference can endanger others' safety and well-being.
According to the DSM-5, an individual with antisocial personality disorder shows disregard for others' rights or feelings. They may perform illegal acts repeatedly, with no guilt or remorse. These behaviors can emerge early in life, but a person has to be at least 18 years old to be diagnosed with this disorder.
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suppose you hate reality shows, but you pretend to like them in order to fit in, feel good, and be accepted by your friends, who all love reality television. This is an example of ________ social influence.
The behavior of pretending to like reality shows despite disliking them to fit in with friends is an example of conformity, a form of social influence. This action also incites cognitive dissonance, a discomfort caused by conflicting attitudes or beliefs.
Explanation:Suppose you hate reality shows, but you pretend to like them in order to fit in, feel good, and be accepted by your friends who all love reality television. This is an example of conformity as a social influence. Conformity is defined as the act of changing your behavior to go along with the group even if you do not personally agree with the group's actions or beliefs.
This behavioral change can occur due to various reasons, one of them being the desire to fit in and be accepted by others around you. For instance, in your case, despite disliking reality shows, you pretend to enjoy them so you can fit in with your friend group that loves watching these shows.
This example specifically relates to cognitive dissonance, a psychological discomfort that arises from a conflict in a person's behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs that runs counter to one's positive self-perception. You experience cognitive dissonance because you act contrary to your preferences by pretending to like reality shows while in reality, you actually dislike them.
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Final answer:
The student's behavior of pretending to like reality shows to fit in with friends who love them exemplifies normative social influence, which is conforming to a group norm to be accepted.
Explanation:
The situation described by the student is an example of normative social influence. This occurs when a person conforms to a group norm to fit in, feel good about themselves, and be accepted by the group. The student, in this case, is pretending to enjoy reality shows because their friends love these shows, and they wish to be part of the group and avoid rejection. This is a case of public conformity, where the individual’s outward behavior differs from their private beliefs, motivated by a desire for social acceptance.
Normative social influence is different from informational social influence, where a person changes their behavior based on the actions of others as a guide to what is correct, often occurring in situations of uncertainty. An example of informational social influence might be following others during an emergency when unsure what the best course of action is.
During a mental health intake interview, a young adult client who lives with his family rent free says, “I’m tired of not being able to offer my friends a beer just because my folks don’t believe in taking a drink socially.” Which nursing response would be therapeutic? (A) “Well, I guess you could move out and live on your own if you wanted to.”(B) “It seems that your parents expect you to follow their rules when you live under their roof.”(C) “You tell me you live rent free, yet you expect the same privileges as an adult who supports the household?”(D) “Well, if you directly discussed your concerns with them, I guess it’s a case of ‘When in Rome, do as the Romans do."
Answer:
B
Explanation:
it seems the least insensitive
Answer:
B "It seems that your parents expect you to follow their rules when you live under their roof."
Explanation:
During a mental health intake interview, a young client who lives with his family and does not pay for anything because the client lives at his or her's parents expenses.
The client complains that he is tired of the fact that he is not being allowed to offer a drink to his friends only because the clients parents do not believed in drinking openly in the society.
And as a nurse, the respond to the client will be that the client's parents is expecting their child to behave in a way they want to and listen to their advice always as long as the client lives with his or her parents for free.
Thus the answer is
B "It seems that your parents expect you to follow their rules when you live under their roof."
John was taught by his teacher to say, “Hello” when greeting people. Now when he meets people he not only says “hello,” but also says: “hi,” “good to see you” and “hey there.” John’s behavior change is an example of:
Answer:
The correct answer would be, Response Generalization.
Explanation:
In simple words, Response Generalization is the spreading of the effects of a behavior which strengthen the contingency to other responses that are similar to the target response. Response Generalization is actually the possibility or occurrence of the similar response or behavior which occurs once.
So if John says some more words to greet people when he meets them, other than what he was taught by his teacher, his behavior change is the example of Response Generalization. For example, if he is taught to say Hello while greeting people, he can continue this behavior by saying Hi, good to see you, hey there, etc. This is response generalization.
Answer:
Response Generalization
Explanation:
Also called stimulus generalization. the act or process of responding to a stimulus similar to but distinct from the conditioned stimulus. Also called response generalization. the act or process of making a different but similar response to the same stimulus.
As leanne participates in her study group meeting, she makes eye contact with each speaker, which indicates the use of eye contact as a(n) _________.
Answer:
a wayy to reassure the person speaking of her undivided attention
Answer:
As leanne participates in her study group meeting, she makes eye contact with each speaker, which indicates the use of eye contact as a regulator.
The growth rate __________. by definition is always a positive number to indicate in what ways the population is growing can actually indicate the population is shrinking rather than growing can be positive or negative, but not zero ignores migration
Answer:
Can be positive or negative, but not zero.
Explanation:
The growth rate can be positive or negative, but not zero.
Final answer:
The population growth rate can be positive, negative, or zero and is determined by the birth rate, death rate, and the rates of immigration and emigration. It accurately reflects the rate of increase or decrease in a population's size.
Explanation:
The population growth rate (r) indicates how a population's size changes over time. It can be a positive or negative number, or even zero. A positive growth rate signifies an increasing population, while a negative growth rate indicates a decreasing population. The rate is influenced by the birth rate (b), death rate (d), immigration (i), and emigration (e). The formula used to calculate this rate is r = (b + i) - (d + e). This calculation reflects all aspects of population change, including natural increase and movements due to immigration and emigration.
How was Gandhi viewed by the people in his nation?
Answer:
he was viewed as a bringer of peace.
Explanation:
Answer:
He was viewed as a hero.
Explanation:
Because he was a man who lived humbly, loved humanity and was against violence.
Gandhi forged India's independence from British rule in 1947 by staging massive peaceful demonstrations against poverty and the fight for women's rights and religious tolerance.
* Therefor he was considered a hero because he was the main reason India got their independence from British.
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Calvin is interested in measuring his school’s willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their ___________attitudes on the topic.
Answer:
Explicit
Explanation:
Calvin is interested in measuring his school’s willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their explicit attitudes on the topic.
Calvin is interested in measuring his school's willingness to do volunteer work around the community. He sends out a self-report survey that asks students to directly fill out their self-reported attitudeson the topic.
Self-reported attitudes refer to the individuals' own perceptions, opinions, and beliefs regarding their willingness to engage in volunteer work. These responses may not always accurately reflect actual behavior, but they provide valuable insights into the students' intentions and attitudes towards community service. Calvin's survey is an efficient way to gauge the school's overall sentiment towards volunteer work, aiding in the development of programs and initiatives to encourage community involvement. It's important to acknowledge that self-report data can have limitations, such as social desirability bias, where respondents may provide answers they think are socially acceptable, rather than their true feelings, but it remains a valuable tool for initial assessment and planning.
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If you want to be perceived as trustworthy, caring, and credible with your girlfriend's parents, which interpersonal goal are you trying to achieve? personal goals self-presentation goals achievement goals instrumental goals relationship goals
Answer: Self-presentation goals.
Explanation:
Interpersonal Communication involves 2 or more people that exchange messages that influence each other's feelings, actions, and relationships. There are 4 types of interpersonal goals in communication: Self-Presentation, Instrumental, Relationship, and Arousal Goals.
Self-presentation refers to the urge to present ourselves in a certain way to be perceived as a certain kind of person.
From an early age, Kwaku got into trouble constantly. He continually violates the rights of others and he often lies, fights, and has problems with the law. Generally, he is impulsive and fails to think ahead. He is frequently deceitful and manipulative in order to get the things he wants, and he never regrets his misdeeds or considers the feelings of those he has harmed. Which of the following diagnoses accounts for Kwaku’s personality?
a. antisocial personality disorder
b. dependent personality disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
d. paranoid personality disorder
The answer is A. Antisocial personality disorder
Explanation:
The Antisocial personality occurs when individuals find difficulties to adapt to the rules, laws, and values of their context. Because of this, individuals such with this disorder tend to break the laws or rules of their context, besides violating the rights of others, using manipulation and not feeling regret, which shows they seem not to have a moral sense that fits with the ones of their context. All of this features occur in the case of Kwaku as he gets in trouble constantly, has issues with the law and violates the rights of others which shows he is unable to adapt to the rules, norms, and values of its context. Besides this, Kwaku shows a low moral level as despite all of these negative action he does not regret.
When an athlete is running across a field, _________ allow(s) for the person to be propelled forward. (The runner pushes down on the ground, and the ground pushes the person in the opposite direction.)
Answer:
Friction
Explanation:
Friction is one of the important phenomenon in the daily life. With the help of friction we can walk, stand ,run and many more work which we can do with the help of it.
so, when athlete is running it apply force on to the ground normal force act on the ground because of the friction presence.
then the opposite reaction applied from the ground allows the athlete to move forward.
Bob is head of his department at work. Lately, he's noticed that the older workers and the younger workers have separated into two groups (older versus younger), and the two groups are becoming increasingly hostile toward one another. Based on the famous study by Muzafer Sherif, what should Bob do to reduce conflict and hostility between the older and younger workers?
Answer:
Bob should give both groups a project that will help them reach a common goal.
Explanation:
In Muzafer Sherif's study in Robbers Cave showed that two groups can unfairly judge another group based on competition. If the groups need to work together to reach a common goal, this will eliminate competition and will reduce conflict and hostility between the groups. The hope would be that the older group of workers and the younger group of workers could work together to reach a common goal and that in the end this would promote collaboration and respect among members of each group.
Grace enjoys going out with doug but has no plans to make their relationship "permanent." she doesn't always tell him the truth about where she's been or the other people in her life, and becomes annoyed when he asks too many questions or expects too much from her. according to lee's love theory, grace is a(n) ________ lover.
Answer:
Primary type of love: Also know as Ludus
Explanation:
"Ludic lovers want to have as much fun as possible. When they are not seeking a stable relationship, they rarely or never become overly involved with one partner and often can have more than one partner at a time. They don't reveal their true thoughts and feelings to their partner, especially if they think they can gain some kind of advantage over their partner. The expectation may also be that the partner is also similarly minded. If a relationship materializes it would be about having fun and indulging in activities together. This love style carries the likelihood of infidelity. In its most extreme form, ludic love can become sexual addiction."
Gabriela is a 22-year-old recent college graduate. She is preparing to move to the largest city in her region to complete a prestigious internship. She has dated several young men but does not envision settling into a serious relationship for at least a few years yet. Gabriela is in a life stage many developmental psychologists call _____ adulthood.
Answer:
Gabriela is a 22-year-old recent college graduate. She is preparing to move to the largest city in her region to complete a prestigious internship. She has dated several young men but does not envision settling into a serious relationship for at least a few years yet. Gabriela is in a life stage many developmental psychologists call emerging adulthood.
Explanation:
Emerging adulthood is a phase of a life between the adolescence and full fledged adulthood.
Gabriela is in the life stage known as 'emerging adulthood.' This is a transition period from adolescence to adulthood, where individuals (typically aged 18 to mid-20s) focus on personal growth and exploration in areas such as work, love, and self-identity.
Explanation:Gabriela, a 22-year old recent college graduate preparing for a prestigious internship, falls under the life stage known as emerging adulthood. As detailed in developmental psychology, emerging adulthood spans from 18 years of age into the mid-20s, and is characterized by intimate exploration in areas of work, love, and self-application. It consists of a phase of transition and exploration before settling down into the next stage which is ‘early adulthood’ with allowed adults to share their life with others once they have developed a strong sense of self-esteem.
During emerging adulthood, an individual often experiences flexibility between adolescence and assuming adult roles, which may include major commitments like work, relationship or even family at large. Therefore, Gabriela's singleness and readiness to undertake an internship in a large city aligns with the typical characteristics of an individual in emerging adulthood.
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Which of the following best describes or defines a personality disorder? An enduring and rigidly pervasive pattern of behavior and experiences that is stable through time and leads to unhappiness, impairment and relationship difficulties. Experiences that deviate from cultural norms and cause changes in perception and coping mechanisms. Have an onset in late adulthood due to stress of financial concerns, marriage difficulty and child rearing. The inability to cope that leads to deviate behavior of the adolescent.
Answer:
An enduring and rigidly pervasive pattern of behavior and experiences that is stable through time and leads to unhappiness, impairment and relationship difficulties.
Explanation:
Personality disorders refers to the symptoms or features displayed by a person that cause him or her to feel anxious, depressed or guilty. Therefore, it involves a system of obstinate, dysfunctional behaviors and ideas that cause impairment or distress.
Many factors contribute to why someone may or not have a psychological disorder. The notion that pre-existing biological conditions may put someone at risk for developing a disorder with the additional burden of stressful experiences is the
(A) Post traumatic stress disorder
(B) Anxiety disorder
(C) dissociative disorder
(D) Specific phobia
The belief that pre-existing biological problems may put someone at risk of developing a disorder with the added load of stressful circumstances is an Anxiety disorder. Thus, option (B) is correct.
What is Anxiety disorder?Anxiety disorder produced by a medical disease involves feelings of severe anxiety or panic caused by a physical health issue. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by continuous and excessive anxiety and stress about everyday activities or situations.
Childhood shyness or anxiety or nervousness in unfamiliar circumstances. Stressful and unfavorable life experiences or environmental factors. Anxiety or other mental illnesses in biological relations. Therefore, it can be concluded that option (B) is correct.
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Where is the international criminal court located
Answer:
Explanation:
The simple answer is The Hague a city in Holland.
What unit is used to measure the frequency of memory?
Answer:
hertz
Explanation:
In 2003, the Supreme Court ruled on two different University of Michigan cases related to affirmative action. They ruled that it was – to use race as one of a number of considerations while also ruling that it was – to give minority applicants a specific number of bonus points in the application scoring system.
Answer: Constitutional, unconstitutional.
Explanation:
In Grutter v. Bollinger, the Supreme Court of the United States judged that the student admissions process can constitutionally favor underrepresented minority groups as long as race is not the only factor considered.
Gratz v. Bollinger ruled a points-based admissions policy that granted bonus points to minority applicants, unconstitutional since it was breaking the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment.
Final answer:
The U.S. Supreme Court in 2003 ruled that affirmative action policies in university admissions must consider race as one of many factors in a holistic and individualized manner, as seen in the Grutter v. Bollinger case. However, it also ruled against mechanical point systems favoring minorities, as was the case in Gratz v. Bollinger. These decisions align with the principles established by the 1978 Regents of the University of California v. Bakke ruling.
Explanation:
In 2003, two significant Supreme Court decisions shaped affirmative action policies in university admissions. The first case, Gratz v. Bollinger, addressed the undergraduate admissions at the University of Michigan, where the Supreme Court ruled that policies awarding a specific number of bonus points to minority applicants were unconstitutional. This decision stated that such a point system was too mechanical and not sufficiently individualized. The second case, Grutter v. Bollinger, involved the University of Michigan Law School. The Supreme Court upheld the law school's admission policy, which considered race as one of many factors in a less quantitative, more holistic approach to admissions. This close 5-4 ruling emphasized that race could be considered to enhance diversity but should not be the sole determinant in the admissions process.
Drawing from these cases, affirmative action is permissible when race is used as one part of an individualized assessment in higher education admissions. However, policies that allocate a specific number of points or resemble a quota system based on race are not allowed. These rulings followed the precedent set by the 1978 Regents of the University of California v. Bakke decision, which also underscored the importance of a flexible, individualized consideration of applicants' race rather than rigid quotas or separate admissions tracks.
Sheena presented her informative speech on the life of Marie Curie. She covered Curie’s early life and marriage, her scientific achievements despite the prejudice against her, and finally, the lasting importance of Curie’s discoveries. Sheena concluded her introduction by previewing all the main points, then used an internal summary as a transition to each of the main ideas. In her conclusion, she summarized her main ideas, emphasizing the importance of Marie Curie’s life. What strategy to enhance audience recall was Sheena using?
Answer: it is called build in redundancy
Explanation:
In a presentation or speech, the build in redundancy strategy is key because it allows the audience to recall all the most important topics developed by a lecturer.
Following _____, a conditioned response may reappear. This process is known as ______. a. extinction; spontaneous recovery b. discrimination; spontaneous recovery c. discrimination; extinction d. generalization; extinction e. generalization; spontaneous recovery
The correct answer is extinction; spontaneous recovery.
Explanation:The correct answer is a. extinction; spontaneous recovery. Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with an unconditioned stimulus. The conditioned response weakens and eventually disappears. However, even after extinction, there is a possibility of the conditioned response briefly reappearing, which is known as spontaneous recovery.
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Following 'extinction', the conditioned response can reappear in a process known as 'spontaneous recovery'. This is based on the theory of Classical Conditioning where the conditioned stimulus is decoupled from the unconditioned stimulus leading to the extinction of the conditioned response, which may reappear after some time.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question is 'Following extinction, a conditioned response may reappear. This process is known as spontaneous recovery.' This is based on the principles of Classical Conditioning, a form of associative learning as described by Ivan Pavlov.
Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, which in turn, results in a weakening and eventual disappearance of the conditioned response. However, after a pause or break, the conditioned response can suddenly reappear, even without the presence of the unconditioned stimulus. This reappearance of the conditioned response is known as spontaneous recovery.
For instance, if a dog has been conditioned to salivate at the sound of a bell which has been repeatedly paired with food presentation, over time if the bell sound is presented without the subsequent food presentation, the dog's salivation response will decrease and eventually stop. This is extinction. If after a period of time, the bell is again rung, the dog may suddenly salivate again. This is a spontaneous recovery of the conditioned response.
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After drinking at his favorite bar all day long and becoming very intoxicated, the defendant pulled out a gun to reenact a scene from a movie he had seen the other day. Pointing his gun at a bystander, he slurred a line from the movie and pulled the trigger. He was shocked to see the bystander fall down dead with a bullet in him. Due to his intoxicated state, the defendant cannot remember pulling out or firing the gun.A state statute defines all murders as second degree murders unless deliberation and premeditation can be shown, in which case the crime is elevated to first degree murder.The crimes below are listed in descending order of seriousness.What is the most serious crime of which the defendant may be convicted?A First degree murder.B Second degree murder.C Manslaughter.D No crime.
Answer: the correct answer is B Second degree murder.
Explanation:
Second degree murder is a crime in which premeditation and deliberation are not shown.
When an incident expands ________________________________. A. functions and positions remain the same throughout the incident regardless of expansion. B. only the functions and positions necessary are filled. C. all functions of the Command and General Staff must be filled. D. all functions of the Command and General Staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each Section.
Answer:
The correct answer would be option D, All functions of the command and General Staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each section.
Explanation:
In a common typical organizational structure, there are clear lines of authorities and responsibilities. Every member of the staff has been assigned a specific task to be done. Each member performs his or her duties effectively and try to accomplish the objectives of the company. When an incident happens, and that is not normal, and that escalates or expands, then each and every member in the line of the organizational structure comes in action, and all functions of the command and general staff are filled and the entire list of elements within each section.
When an incident occurs and expands, only the necessary roles and functions within the incident command system are filled, not all. The complexity and scale of the incident determine which roles should be filled.
Explanation:When an incident expands, the correct answer is B. only the functions and positions necessary are filled. This means that not all roles within an incident command system (ICS) are filled immediately. The complexity and scope of the incident dictate the need for more roles to be filled. For a minor incident, only a few key positions may be required. But as an incident grows or becomes more complex, additional roles may be activated to support the response.
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You're offered fried balls of spicy ground chickpeas stuffed into pita bread. Most likely, you're experiencing the local cuisine of A. Hong Kong. B. Lebanon. C. South Africa. D. Mexico.
Answer:
Lebanon.
Explanation:
If you're offered fried balls of spicy ground chickpeas stuffed into pita bread you're experiencing the local cuisine of Lebanon.
That dish is called Falafel and is Middle Eastern typical food. Falafel consists of fried spiced balls made from ground chickpeas. Spices, onion, tomato, herbs, can be added to the dough. It is a famous dish.
Falafel is from Middle Eastern local cuisine and Lebanon is located in Middle Eastern. That's why the answer is Lebanon.
Julia reads a research study which shows that when children have a mother who talks about emotions with them, the children tend to be more empathetic. Julia scoffs, "This is obvious I could have told you that!". Julia's reaction to the study is an example of
A) fundamental attribution error. B) reliability. C) the hindsight bias. D) schemas.
Answer:
"The Hindsight Bias"
Explanation:
Julia's reaction to this study is a clear example of "The Hindsight Bias". This is also referred to the "I knew it all along" phenomenon. This is when people tend to act like they knew a certain fact was going to happen when they actually had no clue. "The Hindsight Bias" tends to be a very common reaction for many people which is why it is called a phenomenon for some people.
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"We should consider we are providing a constitution for future generations of Americans, and not merely for the particular circumstances of the moment." The writers of the Constitution best reflected this idea when they provided that (A) senatror should elected directly by the people(B) three-fifths of the slaves should be counted as part of the total population(C) Congress shall make all laws necessary and proper to carry out its constitutional powers(D) political parties should be established to represent various viewpoints
Answer:
(D) political parties should be established to represent various viewpoints
Explanation:
This speech reflects a visionary feeling that the US would become a plural nation with a future reality distinct from the time the Constitution was promulgated. Thus, it would be necessary for the public power to be prepared to represent all future generations, in all forms, and the institution capable of capturing and representing the plurality of the American people is the political parties.
A federal statute makes it a felony to engage in any commercial act involving the "cruelty, wounding, or killing" of an animal or depicting anything being to an animal that is prohibited by law. robert stevens ran a website that sold films of dog fighting, many of which were films done in japan where such activity is not illegal. he was convicted of violating the federal statute. stevens appealed his case on the grounds that his first amendment rights were violated because the statute was overly broad. what theory of constitutional law would stevens be using in his appeal
Answer:
Substantive due process
Explanation:
The substantive due process theory of the constitutional law that prohibit the government from violating the rights of the defendant during the due process.
The first amendment protect the government to prevent the citizens from exercising their free will. Since on the case above the dog fighting is not illegal in japan , the defendant could make a case that the government is violating first amendment during the due process (since he is not informed why he is sentenced from exercising activities that he believed as legal) and can be used as a basis for his appeal.
Robert Stevens used the overbreadth doctrine to appeal his conviction under a federal statute criminalizing certain depictions of animal cruelty, arguing it violated his First Amendment rights. The U.S. Supreme Court found the statute to be overly broad and therefore unconstitutional as it criminalized protected speech.
In the case of United States v. Stevens, Robert Stevens appealed his conviction under a federal statute on the grounds that it violated his First Amendment rights due to being overly broad. This appeal was based on the overbreadth doctrine, a theory of constitutional law which argues that a law is unconstitutional if it restrains more protected speech than necessary to achieve a legitimate government interest. In Stevens' case, the U.S. Supreme Court agreed, stating that the statute as written criminalized protected speech and thus was not enforceable given the First Amendment protections.
When considering the constitutionality of such a statute, it's also essential to analyze it in relation to the Eighth Amendment and the due process clause in the Fourteenth Amendment. The Court was wary of expanding the categories of speech excluded from First Amendment protections, as it would set a precedent for increased government censorship and detract from the principle that speech has social value even if it's distasteful or offensive to many.
The Spanish-American War marks a large shift in U.S. foreign policy. After this war, the U.S. became an imperial power. In at least 250 words, make a claim as to whether or not becoming an imperial power was good for the country, by following these directions:
Answer:
The definition of Imperialism is " The policy by which one country takes control of the land and people of another country, for their own benefit. Strong nation taking over a weak nation.". So a country that becomes an imperial power country means that it has the power to and will take control of another country/part of land and its people. The U.S. becoming an imperial power was a good the for the U.S. country. The U.S. becoming an imperial was a good thing for the country because it gave the U.S. more opportunities. By the U.S. becoming an imperial power it caused the U.S. to gain more territory and land and many say that the U.S. became an imperial power was because the U.S. would get good money if it did. It gave the U.S. trade/sales opportunities because they had control of the nation they took over with their imperial power.
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer to this question is explained down below. However, the reasons that made good the Imperial development of the U.S were the economical boost, the status, the political influence, and the sympathy from different countries all over the world.
Explanation:
Becoming an Imperial power was incredibly good for the U.S. First fall because in positioning it as a very influential power in the future of Americ. Because it's sympathy for the Cuban rebels and its military power won over one of the biggest kingdoms at that time. So, the U.S. won a level of recognition never seen before. Also in the second place because the result of that war made the U.S. a guard of the world. Leading it to acquire geopolitical positions that positioned it as one of the most relevant countries in different areas of trade routes. In third place, the U.S. obtained a lot of sympathy from all the world in its paper of liberator, protector and many countries looked to engage relationships with it. The U.S. also saw a very good boo in its economy that let them prepare for the future wars they were going to fight in the name o peace and international justice. Therefore the United States of America Imperialism was very good for it but also for the world. It also helped the United States to develop a military structure that would position it as one of the most revolutionary nations in terms of technology. The reach of the seas that the U.S. won after the Spanish American war was too big that they focused on the development of a navy as big as the Great GRitains royal fleet to compare them in power in the means of economic and military potential. Thus, where only the foundations that positioned the leadership of the U.S. in the 20th century.
According to Piaget, which stage occurs from approximately ages 2 to 7, in which children's use of symbolic thinking grows, mental reasoning emerges, and the use of concepts increases?
Answer:
Preoperational Stage
Explanation:
Piaget proposed stages of cognitive development, and claimed that in the preoperational stage children have a significant cognitive development and are able to mentally represent an object that is not present as well as use symbolism and language to get what they want. However, their egocentrism does not allow them to distinguish between their own view and other people's views.
In what sense does first language acquisition involve a "logical problem"? Select one:
A) It is difficult to understand children when they begin to acquire language. The problem is how they end up being comprehensible adult native speakers.
B) The speed and depth of first language acquisition make it incompatible with the rate of development in other cognitive domains like vision and hearing.
C) Children are strongly resistant to grammatical correction from adults. Thus, it is not clear how they end up acquiring the language.
D) Children are born ready to acquire any human language. However, they typically only acquire the one(s) in their environment.
E) The kinds of input that a child receives does not seem commensurate with the grammatical knowledge that native speakers possess.F) Despite differences in culture and child-rearing practices, children all over the world still pass through identical stages of language development.
Answer: the correct answer is E) The kinds of input that a child receives does not seem commensurate with the grammatical knowledge that native speakers possess.
Explanation: the first language acquisition involve a "logical problem" when children can manage all the information because the are still limited in their grammar knowledge.
A single dad begins his day by making breakfast and putting his daughter on the school bus. Then he heads to his office where he works as an attorney. Later that day he serves as a coach for his daughter’s soccer team. These are examples of:
Answer: Social role
Explanation: This dad is an example of engaging in multiple related activities throughout the day, representing a social role. According to social role theory, such activities are linked and are made up of certain behaviors, obligations, rights, beliefs that interfere with a particular social concept and determine social status. In addition to duties, these activities also include freely chosen obligations, but regardless, they must all be fulfilled and faced.