Explanation:
some of the example of bacterial diseases are syphills,pneumonia,tetanus,and tuberculosis.diseases cause by viruses are chickenpox,small pox,measles,polio.
Which of the following is (are) not the function (s) of the skeletal system: support, storage of minerals, strength, or production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)?
Answer:
strength
Explanation:
Skeletal system of the human body has 206 bones. Human skeleton is divided into appendicular skeleton and axial skeleton.
The skeletal system provide support to the other parts of body, chemicals like calcium are stored in the skeletal system and red bone marrow is the site of hematopoiesis. The skeletal system doesnot provide strength because muscles are mainly involved in providing strength to the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
4. Which of the following factors did not contribute to the genetic diversification of the Galápagos Island finches studied by Darwin?
a. Environmental conditions vary among the different islands.
b. Most of the islands are sufficiently distant from one another such that movement among their populations is limited.
c. The islands are only 100 km from Ecuador, so they receive a continual input of new genes from the mainland.
d. Occasional migrants to new islands rarely interbreed with endemic species.
e. Over time, the residents of each island have developed their own genetic distinctiveness.
Answer:
c. The islands are only 100 km from Ecuador, so they receive a continual input of new genes from the mainland
Explanation:
The Galapagos islands are not connected with the mainland. They are isolated islands and are located away from the mainland. Due to their geographical isolation, Galapagos islands do not experience the migration of populations from the mainland. So, there is no gene flow to Galapagos islands from the mainland.
Further, diversification of islands needs them to be isolated from the mainland so that the inhabiting populations can diversify to accommodate in available niches.
2)
The RNA type that is translated into a polypeptide is _____.
rRNA
mRNA
tRNA
nuclear RNA
none of the above
Answer:
mRNA
Explanation:
The messenger RNA also called mRNA is the type of RNA that serves to carry the genetic information from DNA to the cytoplasm. The mRNA is formed by the process of transcription using the DNA template strand.
The mature mRNA enters the cytoplasm and joins with the ribosome. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into the amino acids sequence of polypeptides. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is read in the form of triplet genetic codes by tRNA.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are divisions of which system?
Answer:
The correct answer is The autonomic nervous system (ANS).
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls the internal region of the human body. This type of nervous system takes information to the central nervous system which controls the internal parts like the gut, the heart by releasing noradrenaline and adrenalin from the adrenal gland and other.
The ANS has 2 divisions which are the parasympathetic division and the sympathetic division -
The sympathetic division can be defined as stress neurons or fight or flight neurons because it makes the body ready to prevent it from the impact of the injury.
The parasympathetic division function to recover and replace the activities of living. It has an antagonist effect in comparison to what sympathetic division does.
Thus, The correct answer is The autonomic nervous system (ANS).
Final answer:
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are parts of the autonomic nervous system, which helps regulate the body's involuntary functions, maintaining homeostasis.
Explanation:
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are divisions of the autonomic nervous system, which is a part of the peripheral nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight-or-flight" response during stressful situations, whereas the parasympathetic nervous system promotes the "rest-and-digest" state during times of calm. These systems work together to maintain the body's homeostasis, or internal balance, by regulating internal organ function and processes.
Muller’s ratchet is the
a. breaking down of adaptive combinations of genes by recombination.
b. elimination of deleterious mutations due to sexual reproduction.
c. maintenance of genetic variation via disruptive selection.
d. crossing over and independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis.
e. accumulation of deleterious mutations in asexual lineages.
Answer: e. accumulation of deleterious mutations in asexual lineages.
Explanation:
Muller's ratchet is a process of deleterious mutation accumulation that can drive to the extermination of a population of asexuals. This Ratched would ultimately create a vicious cycle of mutation accumulation that would lead to a population decline and finally pushes an entire population to extinction, which is called mutational meltdown. Muller’s Ratchet has been invoked to explain the evolution of sex, the extinction of small populations, the accelerated rate of evolution of endosymbiotic bacteria, the degeneration of Y-chromosomes, and cancer progression
Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces the botulinum toxin. When locally applied, to parts of the face for example, neuromuscular transmission is blocked, and muscles that cause wrinkles cannot contract (no more wrinkles). How exactly does the toxin block nueromuscular transmissions?
Answer:
Botulinum is a toxin that can be used to cure wrinkles in human beings by injecting it in very small concentrations and it works in preventing the signals from the nerve cells to muscles and thus paralyzing them by stopping wrinkle formation.
Wrinkles are caused by the contraction of muscles and this neurotransmitter does not allows the muscles to contract. In order to contract nerves release a chemical messenger called as acetycholine. This neurotransmitter is found at the junction where the nerve cell reaches the muscle cell. This causes contraction of muscles.
Injecting botulinum prevents the release of acetylcholine which prevents the contraction of muscle, causing reduction in wrinkles and muscles become stiff.
2)
The _____ of a protein can be altered when mutations in the DNA sequence occur.
shape
function
amino acid sequence
All of the above
None of the above, mutations have nothing to do with proteins.
Answer:
amino acids sequence
Explanation:
because Amino acid the acid found in protein, so it must possess the sequence of Amino acid
In passive absorption, nutrients enter the cell
Select one:
a. with a carrier.
b. with the expenditure of energy.
c. from an area of higher solute concentration to one of lower concentration.
d. from an area of lower solute concentration to one of higher concentration.
Answer:
c. from an area of higher solute concentration to one of lower concentration.
Explanation:
Passive absorption is a process in which the molecules or ions moves from the region of its higher concentration to its lower concentration or along the concentration gradient. The passive absorption takes place along the concentration gradient, hence no energy is needed for the movement of molecules across the membrane. Simple diffusion or facilitated diffusion is an example of passive absorption.
In passive absorption, nutrients enter the cell through passive transport, moving from an area of higher solute concentration to one of lower concentration, without the need for energy.
Explanation:In passive absorption, nutrients enter the cell from an area of higher solute concentration to one of lower concentration. This process does not require energy because it's a naturally occurring phenomenon called diffusion. The movement of substances occurs along the concentration gradient until equilibrium is reached. Therefore, substances move freely through the plasma membrane, and this process is categorized as a form of passive transport. Additionally, solutions in biology are characterized by the solute; hence the movement is from a place where the solute is more concentrated to where it is less concentrated.
The blood lactate threshold refers to:
a. the work rate or oxygen uptake where there is a systematic rise in aerobic metabolism
b. the work rate or oxygen uptake where there is a systematic rise in blood levels of lactic acid
c. the work rate or oxygen uptake where there is a systematic decrease in blood levels of lactic acid
d. all of the above are correct
Answer: b. the work rate or oxygen uptake where there is a systematic rise in blood levels of lactic acid
Explanation:
Currently, the anaerobic threshold is one of the most commonly used parameters, both as an indicator of physical performance capacity and training prescription, and there is evidence that performance in continuous and prolonged exercises correlates better with the anaerobic threshold than with maximum aerobic power. The anaerobic threshold can be understood as the point of imbalance between lactate production and removal (blood lactate threshold).
Sometimes, two atoms of the same element have different numbers of neutrons. What is this known as? Valence electrons Orbits Radiation Isotopes
Answer:
Isotopes
Explanation:
Atoms of the same element sometimes have different forms just as we have plants of the same species having different varieties. These atoms usually have the same number of protons in their nuclei but different number of neutrons. They are referred to as isotopes.
A good example of atoms of the same element having different number of neutrons is [tex]^1^4C[/tex] and [tex]^1^2C[/tex]. Both atoms have 6 protons but while the latter has 6 neutrons, the former has 8 neutrons.
Valence electrons, orbits and radiation do not come close as atoms of the same elements with different neutrons.
The correct answer is Isotopes.
Children's long bones have growth plates called __________.
Answer:
the answer is the epithelial plates.
Explanation:
this plate allows height and hardens at the age of around 17-20 years old when the youth is done growing.
If an animal’s body temperature exceeds the set point, which of the following is NOT a mechanism for lowering body temperature?
Sweating
Vasodilation
Panting
Vasoconstriction
Answer:
Vasoconstriction
Explanation:
Vasoconstriction is a process in which blood vessels get narrowed or get constricted by the activities of small muscles present in the wall of the blood vessels. When blood vessels constrict, the flow of blood flow is slow down. This process is to conserve body heat. Thus, by vasoconstriction does not help the animal body to lower the increased body temperature. Whereas vasodilation, sweating, and panting lower body temperature if an animal’s body temperature exceeds the set point.
Which of the following statements is true regarding water as a substance?
Answer:
show the statements
Explanation:
Farmers use fertilizers to improve crop growth which can impact the environment though agricultural runoff. What is agricultural runoff? Provide two examples of how farmers can prevent it.
This is the washing away of the topsoil (including agricultural chemicals applied in the soil) by surface runoffs into rivers and water bodies after precipitation.
Agricultural runoff can be prevented by adopting good farming management practices such as rotation farming to prevent loosening the topsoil such that it is easily eroded by runoffs. It can also be done by avoiding farming in floodway zones such as in the banks of rivers.
Agricultural runoff is water carrying pollutants like fertilizers from farmlands to water bodies, leading to eutrophication and 'dead zones'. To prevent this, farmers can use buffer strips and contour farming methods.
Agricultural runoff refers to water that collects and carries away various pollutants from agricultural lands into lakes, rivers, and oceans. This runoff can include excess fertilizers, containing nitrogen and phosphorus, which leads to eutrophication. Eutrophication is a process where excess nutrients stimulate excessive plant and algae growth, which, when they die and decompose, increase the biochemical oxygen demand. This process can eventually create 'dead zones' in water bodies where aquatic life cannot survive due to lack of oxygen. To prevent agricultural runoff, farmers can employ several strategies. One example is the use of buffer strips, which are areas of vegetation planted between farmlands and waterways that act as a filter for pollutants. Another method is the implementation of contour farming, where crops are planted across the slope of the land, which helps to reduce erosion and runoff.
Compare parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system
Answer:
The ANS ( Autonomous nervous system) is divided to PNS (parasympathetic nervous system) and SNS (sympathetic nervous system).
Explanation:
The PNS maintains homeostasis and digestive response. The SNS involves fight and flight response. The SNS releases adrenaline. PNS do not involve any secretion of adrenal gland. The PNS relaxes the muscular system, The SNS allows muscles contraction. The PNS decreases heart rate. The SNS increases heart rate.
Mina had a throat infection; in a few days it had spread to her ear. What part of her ear would be affected first?
Select one:
a. middle ear
b. inner ear
c. pinna
d. external auditory canal
Answer: Middle Ear
Explanation:
Ear is one of the most important part of human body by which an individual is able to hear sounds. It also helps in maintaining pressure inside body.
The Eustachian tube found inside the ear is a canal which is connects middle ear to the nasopharynx. This area consists of back of nasal cavity and the upper throat.
Its main function is to control the pressure within the middle ear, making it equal to the pressure outside the body.
Hence, the correct answer is option A
The middle ear, connected to the throat via the Eustachian tube, would be the first part of the ear affected when a throat infection spreads.
Explanation:When Mina's throat infection spread to her ear, it would have likely first affected the middle ear. The middle ear is the section of the ear directly connected to the throat via the Eustachian tube. It's this connection that enables bacteria or viruses causing throat infections to potentially move up to the ear. Common conditions such as otitis media, an infection of the middle ear, often occur as a result of an infection spreading from the throat.
Learn more about Middle ear here:https://brainly.com/question/38424649
#SPJ3
What does the interneuron do between the afferent and efferent neurons?
Answer:
Interneurons enable the communication between afferent and efferent neurons.
Explanation:
Internerons are also known as relay neuron. These neurons are classified into local neuron and relay neuron. Interneurons are involved in the process of reflex action and neurogenesis.
Interneurons are known to create neural circuits between the afferent and efferent neuron. This circuit helps in communication and transfer the information between afferent and efferent neurons.
Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes? (a) Dd and DD (b) Dd and Dd (c) DD and dd (d) dd and dd
Answer:
Option B, Dd and Dd
Explanation:
It is given that deafness is a recessive trait.
Let the recessive trait be represented by "d"
Normal hearing is a dominant trait and let it be represented by "D"
It is given that Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing , hence they can have genotype -
either Dd X DD
Or Dd X Dd
but Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness , thus his genotype would be "dd". Considering the genotype of Dr. Smith , his parents would be having genotype Dd and Dd.
Thus option B is correct.
Final answer:
Dr. Smith's parents must both be carriers of the recessive allele for deafness, which means their genotypes are Dd and Dd. This autosomal recessive inheritance pattern allows for the possibility of a child with deafness even if both parents have normal hearing.
Explanation:
In the context of inherited deafness, we must consider genetic inheritance patterns, particularly dealing with a recessive trait like the one causing deafness. Dr. Smith exhibiting deafness despite having parents with normal hearing indicates that the trait follows an autosomal recessive pattern. This means both alleles for the trait must be the recessive (d) allele for the deafness to be phenotypically expressed.
To have a child who is deaf, both parents of Dr. Smith must have at least one copy of the recessive (d) allele but not exhibit the trait themselves, making them carriers. The only genetic composition that fits this scenario, given the options provided, is that both parents are carriers of the recessive allele but do not show the trait, which is indicated by the genotype Dd. Therefore, the correct answer for Dr. Smith's parents' genotypes would be (b) Dd and Dd.
Autosomal recessive inheritance dictates that two carriers (Dd) have a 25% chance of having a child with a recessive trait (dd), explaining Dr. Smith's condition.
All of the following statements are true, except: Question 24 options: 1) Renin is a hormone produced by JG cells 2) JG cells are present in the vasa recta 3) Macula densa cells are present in the ascendinng limb of henle's loop and distal convoluted tubule 4) The JG apparatus play a role in BP regulation
Answer:
2) JG cells are present in the vasa recta.
Explanation:
The vasa recta is a web of the blood capillary which supply blood to the medulla region of a kidney due to its high permeability of solutes and water. It runs parallel to the loop of Henle. It does not composed of the juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells). The juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells) present in kidney which synthesise and stores enzyme renin. Thus, option 2) JG cells are present in the vasa recta is not a true statement.
The term “survival of the fittest” refers toA. the most reproductively successful in an environment.B. the strongest competing and surviving in an environment.C. the weakest being unable compete for resources and dying in an environment.D. the strongest surviving and reproducing in an environment.E. heterozygote advantage in an environment.
Answer:
The correct option is : A. the most reproductively successful in an environment.
Explanation:
The phrase ''survival of the fittest" originated from the evolution theory given by Darwin. In the Darwin's theory of Evolution, this phrase was used to describe the process of natural selection, which defines the concept of fitness as the reproductive success. Therefore according to this theory, the species which will leave the most copies of itself in the successive generations will survive.
Therefore, the term “survival of the fittest” refers to the most reproductively successful in an environment.
The term “survival of the fittest” refers to individuals who are most reproductively successful in an environment, highlighting the essence of natural selection as the mechanism by which species evolve. Therefore, the correct answer is A. the most reproductively successful in an environment.
The term “survival of the fittest” does not imply that only the physically strongest or largest survive, but rather refers to those more reproductively successful due to traits that confer survival advantages in their environment. Natural selection, another term for “survival of the fittest,” operates when individuals with beneficial traits are more likely to reproduce and pass those traits to future generations. This evolutionary mechanism is central to the theory of evolution, elaborating on how species adapt over time through the differential survival and reproduction of individuals.
It's essential to understand that the 'fittest' in this context is about reproductive success and the ability to pass on advantageous traits that increase an organism's chances of survival, not necessarily brute strength or speed. A classic example is the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria; those with genetic mutations that resist antibiotics are more likely to survive and reproduce, spreading this trait within the population.
Normally the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of ______ mm Hg, a PCo2 of ______ mm Hg, and a pH of _______.
A. 40; 95;7.4
B. 95; 40;7.4
C. 7.4; 40;95
D. 95; 7.4;40
Answer:
The correct answer is B. 95;40;7.4
Explanation:
Ranges of these values are:
PCO2: 35-45 mmHg
PO2: 80-100 mmHg
pH: 7.35-7.45
Systemic arterial blood typically has a Po2 of 95 mm Hg, a PCo2 of 40 mm Hg, and a pH of 7.4, corresponding to answer choice B: 95; 40; 7.4.
Explanation:The correct answer to the student's question is B: 95; 40; 7.4. Normally, systemic arterial blood has a partial pressure of oxygen (Po2) of about 95 mm Hg, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCo2) of about 40 mm Hg, and a pH of approximately 7.4.
These reference values indicate the typical gas concentrations in systemic arterial blood: the oxygen level (Po2) is high because the blood is oxygenated in the lungs before it enters the systemic circulation, the carbon dioxide level (PCo2) is lower because CO2 is expelled from the blood into the alveoli in the lungs, and the pH level reflects a tightly regulated acid-base balance in the body.
The single best indicator of one's ability to sustain high intensity aerobic exercise is:
a. Maximal oxygen debt
b. Maximal oxygen deficit
c. VO2 max
d. Maximal Ventilation
The best indicator of one's ability to keep a high-intensity aerobic exercise is Maximal oxygen debt thus option A is correct.
What is the Max oxygen debt ?The maximum actuated oxygen deficit is the measurement for the capacity for the anaerobic oxygen that is uptake. This refers to the predicted demand for the oxygen and the oxygen uptake measured during the extensive exercise. It is available for oxidative metabolism and develops at the time of intensive body activity.
Find out more information about the aerobic exercise
brainly.com/question/14375834.
Which type of white matter fiber tract connects the cerebrum to lower centers
Answer: Projection fibers
Explanation:
Subcortical white matter (medullary or semi-oval center) is composed of neurons extensions (nerve fibers) and glial cells. One of the fibers that are part of those extensions is the projection fibers (between cortex and structures outside the telencephalon). They are myelinated fibers that join cortical areas situated in different organs.
Describe the function of a chemical synapse.
The nervous system is one of the most important elements for our existence and survival, since it allows the management, organization and functioning of the rest of the corporal systems.
The synapse is a communication mechanism that occurs between two or more neurons in order to massively transmit a nerve impulse in order to coordinate a function in the organism.
The Chemical Synapse is the type of major synapse in our body. In these synapses the information is transmitted chemically, through the sending by the presynaptic neuron of different neurotransmitters that the postsynaptic neuron captures through different receptors, whose action generates an alteration in the form of excitatory or inhibitory postsynaptic potential that may end or not with the generation of an action potencial by the postsynaptic neuron. They are versatile synapses, since some neurons can inhibit the action of others depending on what is activated. There is no physical contact between both neurons.
Parents of a 3-year-old boy noticed that their son was walking "on his toes", had a waddling gait, fell frequently, had difficulty getting up again, and was not able to run because of the difficulty in lifting his knees. At age five, there was progressive muscular weakness and atrophy. Weakness of the trunk muscles led to increased lordosis and a protuberant abdomen. He was able to speak clearly and the muscles of his face functioned normally. At age 9, he was confined to a wheelchair. Circle the disorder you believe is the cause of the described symptoms. Explain your choice, including why the other disorder were eliminated.
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Polio
Answer:
The answer is A muscilar dystrophy
Explanation:
Progressive muscular dystrophy, which shows the patient by the symptoms that were manifested from three years of age and who started with walking on his toes and the difficulty in raising the legs accompanied by progressive weakness confirm this diagnosis worsening his clinical manifestation at nine years of age, where there is a marked skeletal muscle deformity that makes the use of a wheelchair necessary. we can discard miestemia gravis and multiple scoliosis because they are not pathologies of this age group, polio in turn is a contagious infectious disease that is eradicated in much of the world, mostly in developed countries thanks to the vaccine.
The most likely cause of the described symptoms is Muscular dystrophy.
Explanation:The disorder that is most likely the cause of the described symptoms is Muscular dystrophy. Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness and degeneration of the muscles. The symptoms described, such as walking on toes, waddling gait, frequent falls, difficulty in getting up, and difficulty in lifting knees, are characteristic of muscular dystrophy.
The other disorders can be eliminated:
Multiple sclerosis: Multiple sclerosis is a central nervous system disorder that affects the brain and spinal cord. It does not typically present with progressive muscular weakness and atrophy.Myasthenia gravis: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. However, it usually does not lead to progressive weakness and atrophy as described in the case.Polio: Polio is a viral infection that can lead to muscle weakness and paralysis. However, the symptoms described are not consistent with the typical progression of polio.Learn more about Muscular dystrophy here:https://brainly.com/question/3497922
#SPJ3
What are the cerebellar peduncles and where are they located?
Answer:
Cerebellar peduncles are the bundles of axons.
Location: On both sides of cerebellum
Explanation:
Cerebellar peduncles are the bundles made of white matter and serve to carry the information to and from cerebellum. These are the structures made of axons that serve to carry the impulses between cerebellum and other brain parts.
There are three pairs of cerebellar peduncle which are located on the sides of cerebellum and serve to attach cerebellum to the brain-stem.
Which of the following is NOT true of adaptation?
adaptations account for why organisms are suited to their way of life
adaptations account for why organisms can escape predators
natural selection causes adaptive traits to be increasingly represented in future generations
an adaptation evolves quickly, because it is necessary for survival
an adaptation takes many generations to evolve
Answer:
The correct answer will be option an adaptation evolves quickly, because it is necessary for survival .
Explanation:
Adaptation is a trait or feature which has been acquired by the organism by the changes in physiology, structure and behaviour which are more suited to the environment.
Adaptation is a pre-requisite of natural selection and evolution which enables the organism to survive and reproduce. Adaptation or an organism is not an instant response but to become permanent in a population adapted trait must be passed on to the generations that involve gene level.
Thus, option an adaptation evolves quickly, because it is necessary for survival is the correct answer.
The correct answer is: an adaptation evolves quickly, because it is necessary for survival.
Adaptations are traits that have evolved through natural selection to help organisms survive and reproduce in their specific environments. Here's the reasoning behind why each option is or isn't true:
1. Adaptations account for why organisms are suited to their way of life. This is true because adaptations are specific traits that enable organisms to survive and thrive in their particular habitats and lifestyles.
2. Adaptations account for why organisms can escape predators. This can be true because some adaptations, such as camouflage or the ability to run quickly, can help organisms avoid being eaten by predators.
3. Natural selection causes adaptive traits to be increasingly represented in future generations. This is true because individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing those traits on to their offspring.
4. An adaptation takes many generations to evolve. This is generally true because evolution is a gradual process that occurs over long periods of time. Adaptations develop through the accumulation of small genetic changes over numerous generations, rather than quickly.
The statement that is NOT true is:
5. An adaptation evolves quickly, because it is necessary for survival. This is not true because the evolution of an adaptation is typically a slow process. While the need for an adaptation can be immediate due to environmental pressures, the actual development of that adaptation through natural selection and genetic changes occurs incrementally over many generations.
Therefore, the option that is NOT true of adaptation is the idea that an adaptation evolves quickly simply because it is necessary for survival.
Imagine you are a lawyer representing a man with blood type B. A woman with blood type O has a child with blood type A and is proposing that the man fathered the child. Using what you have learned about blood typing and genetics, construct an engaging evidence-based argument to the jury in defense of your client.
Answer:
Both type A and B blood are Dominate types and O is recessive. So the mother would Have to be oo and couldn't pass on an A and The man cant pass on an A because Type B blood can only be found as BB or Bo. This is due to A and B both being Dominate the would end up as AB not just A/B
Answer:
Both type A and B blood are Dominate types and O is recessive.
Explanation:
Choose the event below that does not occur during apoptosis Choose the event below that does not occur during apoptosis rupture of the cell, releasing cytoplasmic contents. flipping phosphatidylserine to the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane. bleb formation. DNase fragmentation of DNA. formation of apoptotic bodies.
Answer:
Rupture of the cell, releasing cytoplasmic contents.
Explanation:
Rupture of the cell to release the cell content into the intercellular space occurs in necrosis. This event does not occur in apoptosis. Release of the cell content into the intercellular space in necrosis results in stimulation of inflammatory response. Apoptosis does not include inflammatory reaction and hence, the cells do not rupture to release their content.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? Which of the following statements is FALSE? The difference in melting temperature between a saturated fatty acid and an unsaturated fatty acid with the same chain length is only a few degrees C. Some unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at physiological temperatures. Most types of fat in many animals is used in energy production. The longer the chain length of a saturated fatty acid, the higher the melting temperature.
Answer:
Option (1).
Explanation:
Saturated fatty acid may be defined as the fatty acid with the single bonds between the carbon atoms. The unsaturated fatty acid consist of double and triple bond in its structure.
The melting points differs between the saturated and unsaturated fatty acid. The saturated and unsaturated fatty acids have high difference in their melting point and this difference may changes as the double and triple bonds are increased or decreased in the fatty acid structure.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).