Answer:
Explanation:
These are the three reasons why the connective tissue wrappings of the skeletal muscle are important:
- Supporting and binding the muscle fibers.
- Providing strength to the muscle as a whole.
- Provide a route for the entry and exit of nerves and blood vessels that serve the muscle fibers.
Skeletal muscle has three different connective tissue layers: the whole muscle is enclosed by a dense connective tissue sheath called the epimysium, cells (fibers), like other body cells, are soft and fragile. The connective tissue covering furnish support and protection for the delicate cells and allow them to withstand the forces of contraction.
There are more indirect muscle attachments than direct—that is, tendinous-muscle attachments than direct muscle attachments because of their small size, more tendons can pass over a joint.
The connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle are important for protection, support and organization, and transmission of force.
Explanation:The connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle are important for several reasons:
Protection: The connective tissue sheaths help protect the delicate muscle fibers from damage.Support and organization: They provide structural support and help to organize the muscle fibers into functional units called fascicles.Transmission of force: The connective tissue sheaths help transmit the force generated by the muscle fibers to the tendons, which then attach to the bones, allowing movement.Learn more about Importance of connective tissue sheaths in skeletal muscle here:https://brainly.com/question/34281172
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How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?
Answer:
The myelin sheath are the glial cells which present in the neurons. It acts as an insulator for the impulse. Inside the myelin sheath the impulse propagates in high speed. Because there is no depolarization occured in it. Therefore, the nerve impulse jumps from one sheath to other and it is called saltatory movement.
The gap between the two myelin sheath is called nodes of ranvier. It contains sodium ions and have voltage gated channels. When the action potential passes through the myelin sheath, the depolarisation happens due to entry of excess sodium ions into the non - myelinated sheath / nodes of ranvier.
When there is excess sodium ions present in the axon, again repolarization occurs and action potential occurs in the myelin sheath. Myelin sheath contains lipids which enhance the action potential.
________________________ have thin and flexible primary cell walls, perform the most metabolic functions (including photosynthesis), and retain the ability to divide and differentiate into other cells
Answer: Parenchyma cells
Explanation:
The parenchyma cells of plants are the functioning cells organ-tissue of non-woody part of soft plants and fruits.
The structure of the parenchyma cell consist of thinner walls and retain the ability to divide quickly, differentiate into other cells and stay alive at maturity. Parenchyma cells are less useful in structural part of plants but capable of photosynthesis, store water and nutrients.
The aggregate of parenchyma cells form a majority of ground tissue in the plant. They cells of parenchyma are capable of metabolic activity, such as growth and photosynthesis
John took home some leftover ham and potato salad from a picnic, reheated the ham on the stove, ate it, and got sick two hours later. John thought the heating made his food safe because it would have killed any bacteria present. He didn't know that __________ produces a heat-stable toxin.
Answer:
Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:
S. aureus is a toxin producer and even though the bacteria can be destroyed with heat, its toxin is heat stable, this means that it can survive after heating producing food poisoning. This kind of poisoning occurs in foods that require hand preparation, like the potato salad or ham in the example, especially because in the example those food were at room temperature, in the picnic, allowing the S. aureus to produce the toxin.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
On police procedural TV shows, the brilliant detective sometimes gets a DNA sample from a paper coffee cup that the suspect has touched. Is this fantasy made up for television, or is it scientifically sound?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- it is scientifically possible
Explanation:
Taking the DNA sample from the coffee cup in solving the criminal cases can be performed.
This could happen as touching the cup can help extract the DNA sample as the act of touching leave few cells which can provide the minute DNA sample. This sample can be replicated via PCR technique which could help solve the case. The case can be solved by comparing the DNA samples of the suspect and the collected samples.
Thus, it is scientifically possible is the correct answer.
The male reproductive system relies on a negative feedback loop, meaning that as _________ rises above a certain level, the hypothalamus and pituitary are triggered to stop producing GnRH, FSH, and LH.
Answer:
level of testosterone
Explanation:
The level of testosterone produced is a determinant factor which influences the effect they have on the hypothalamus and the pituitary in regulating the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH in the male reproductive system.
A high level of testosterone would lead to the production of the hormone called inhibin, which is released into the blood. The GnRH and FSH, which are responsible for the initiation of spermatogenesis and secretion of testosterone in the testes, are inhibited by inhibin. This causes the GnRH and FSH from being produced further by the hypothalamus and pituitary when the testosterone level rises beyond normal level.
When the testosterone level drops below the normal level, the release of inhibin stops, while the hypothalamus and the pituitary resume the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH to initiate spermatogenesis and the secretion of testosterone.
Summarize the experiments performed by the following scientists that provided evidence that DNA is the genetic material: a. Frederick Griffith b. Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod c. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase d. Erwin Chargaff
Answer:
The following scientists have performed different experiments that were helpful in providing evidence that DNA is the genetic material. The summarize experiments are as follows-
1. Fredrick Griffith- the experiment was an experiment performed in 1928. It was one of the experiments that exhibit that bacteria can acquire through the process of transformation.
2 Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod: this experiment exhibited that DNA can transform the cell properties, and clarifying the chemical properties of the genes.
3. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase: They determined that even the bacteriophage has a protective coat around it but the DNA that is present inside is the genetic material that has the ability to produce the progeny inside a bacterium.
4. Erwin Chargaff: He proposed tow rules which were named after him as chargaff rules. This tells that natural DNA the number of cytosines is equal to the number of guanine units and adenine to Thymine units.
In ecological terms, disturbance is an event such as a storm, fire, or human activity that changes a community, removing organisms and altering resource availability. Which of the following statements about the effects of disturbance is correct?
Answer:
Disturbances can create patches of different habitats in a community.
Explanation:
Disturbances such as fire etc can cause a bigger and wider ecosystem to be destroyed from certain places. This will result in the formation of patches of different habitats. Each habitat will evolve into a different community. Some of the patches of habitat might have an abundance of resources, hence making life easier for the organisms inhabiting there. Some of the habitats might have rare resources hence, making life to be difficult in those areas.
DNA, the genetic material of living organisms, is damaged by light in the
A) visible region of the spectrum.
B) ultraviolet region, especially below a wavelength of 320 nm.
C) ultraviolet region, especially above a wavelength of 340 nm.
D) infrared region of the spectrum.
Answer:
The correct option is B) ultraviolet region, especially below a wavelength of 320 nm.
Explanation:
Ultraviolet light carries an enormous amount of energy in it. It is invisible to the human eye. When UV light with enormous energy and wavelength lesser than 320nm, hits the DNA, it causes changes in the structure of the DNA. Mostly, it affects the thymine nitrogenous base regions and forms pyrimidine dimers. The structure of the DNA changes on all the sites where dimers form and hence, they cannot be properly transcribed.
DNA is the genetic material, that carries the information about organisms. The damage to the DNA is done maximum with the UV light below 320 nm wavelength.
What causes maximum damage to the DNA molecule?DNA molecules consist of the bases adjoined by the phosphate diester bond and carrier the information for the formation of enzymes, proteins, and life activities.
The damage to the DNA results in the alteration of the nucleotide sequence and thereby functioning of the body.
The damage to DNA is caused by high-intensity ultraviolet radiation. The energy of the radiations is higher at lower wavelengths.
Thus, damage to DNA is caused by UV radiations with a wavelength lower than 320 nm. Thus, option B is correct.
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After a copper smelter begins operation, local downwind populations of plants begin to adapt to the resulting air pollution. Scientists document, for example, that the acid tolerance of several plant species has increased significantly in the polluted area. This is an example of:
A) stabilizing selection.
B) disruptive selection.
C) genetic drift.
D) directional selection.
Answer: Directional selection
Explanation:
In the population genetics, directional selection is the mode of selection during which the extreme phenotype are favored more than the other phenotype.
This causes the allele frequency to shift towards the time in the direction of that particular phenotype.
Here, in the question the acid tolerant plant species is favored over the other phenotype.
Hence, the correct answer is option D
Heterozygote advantage refers to the tendency for heterozygous individuals to have better fitness than homozygous individuals. This higher fitness results in less genetic variation in the population.a) trueb) false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Genetic variation is the difference in the sequence of DNA in the individuals of a population and a heterozygote has more genetic variation that homozygote person because heterozygote has two different alleles of a gene while homozygous individual have two same alleles.
Heterozygotes have advantage over homozygotes because it protects the individual from many genetical diseases and increase the genetic variation by increasing the gene pool in the population. So higher fitness results in more genetic variation in the population therefore the statement is false.
What evidence suggests that vertebrates are more closely related to echinoderms than are any other invertebrate phyla? What evidence suggests that vertebrates are more closely related to echinoderms than are any other invertebrate phyla? a.Shared DNA sequences b.Shared morphology c.Shared patterns of development
Answer:
The correct answer is option a. "Shared DNA sequences".
Explanation:
The most reliable evidence that suggest that vertebrates are more closely related to echinoderms than are any other invertebrate phyla is the fact that vertebrates share DNA sequences with echinoderms. Among the different genes that have been analyzed between vertebrates and echinoderms, the genes involved in immunology and biomineralization are the ones practically identical among these two categories of species.
What is the function of the promoter in the e. Coli lac operon?
Answer:
An operon consists of sets of genes that are part of single transcription unit and is under the control of a single promoter. Lac operon is found in E.coli which consists of three structural genes which code for beta-galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase.
These genes are under the control of one promoter which is present upstream of these structural genes. The role of promoter is that it provide the binding site for RNA so that the RNA polymerase can start the transcription of these structural genes.
Between structural gene and promoter, operator region is present which when binds to repressor protein then it prevents the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter and stops the transcription initiation.
The promoter in the E. coli lac operon functions as a binding site for RNA polymerase, aiding in the transcription of genes necessary for lactose metabolism. Its activity is dependent on the presence of lactose and other regulatory proteins.
Explanation:The function of the promoter in the E. coli lac operon is to provide a binding site for RNA polymerase, which initiates the transcription process. Located between the promoter and the three genes is a region called the operator. In the absence of lactose, a protein known as a repressor binds to the operator, blocking RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and resulting in little production of protein. When lactose is present, a metabolic end product of lactose binds to the repressor, preventing it from binding to the operator. This allows RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and transcribe the three genes, enabling the bacterium to metabolize lactose. The promoter also interacts with other elements like the CAP-cAMP complex in the absence of glucose to promote transcription.
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generalize how restriction enzymes are used
Answer: for cutting DNA sequences
On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies wasdiagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens.Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. Thesepeople were given______.A)antiviral medications.B)immune globulin injections.C) human diploid cell vaccine.D) antibiotics.E) postexposure prophylaxis.
A viral ailment that generates inflammation in the brain concerning the central nervous system (CNS) of mammals and humans is called rabies disease.
The correct answer is:
Option E) Post-exposure prophylaxis.
This can be explained as:
For controlling mortality in the infected patients they are aided with post-exposure prophylaxis.This shot consists of a rabies vaccine and human rabies immune globulin.The vaccination for rabies-infected is done on the 3rd, 7th and 14th day of getting contaminated.This vaccine will vest antibodies against the virus by stimulating the body to create antibodies of its own.Therefore, post exposure prophylaxis is administered.
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It is now known that much of the RNA that is transcribed is not translated into protein. these RNAs are called noncoding RNAs. Read carefully to discern a crucial role played by these RNAs. What is this role?
Answer:
bsx m
Explanation:
Answer:
regulating gene expression
Explanation:
A non-coding RNA is one that cannot participate in the protein formation process, because it does not code for any of them. Although it appears to have no function, non-coding RNA plays an important role in regulating gene expression, which is how the cell controls the expression of genes, preventing them from being expressed when they are not needed. In this way the cell saves energy and inhibits the accumulation of unnecessary molecules.
Compare the horizontal and vertical components of global winds. (Earth Science)
Global winds are caused due to the unequal heating of the planet by the sun, and they're named according to the direction they flow. While horizontal movement of wind is a product of the pressure change from high to low, vertical change happens because of density.
Suppose that we are dealing with four genes, each gene consisting of a dominant allele (capital letter) and a recessive allele (small case letter). If the cross CcMmLlPP X CCmmLlpp is made, what is the probability of obtaining an individual who is CcmmLLPp?
Answer:
1/16
Explanation:
The desired genotype is "CcmmLLPp". The proportion of the desired genotype can be calculated by using the product rule. The probability of getting Cc, mm, LL and Pp genotype can be calculated separately first and then the product rule is applied.
Parents= CcMmLlPP X CCmmLlpp
Cc x CC= 1/2 Cc: 1/2 CC
Mm x mm= 1/2 Mm: 1/2 mm
Ll x Ll = 1/4 LL: 1/2 Ll: 1.4 ll
PP x pp= All Pp
Therefore, the probability of obtaining an individual who is CcmmLLPp = 1/2 Cc x 1/2 mm x 1/4 LL x 1 Pp = 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/4 =1/16
"Mutations in the lacI and lacO genes in the lactose system often lead to full production of the three structural genes related to the lac operon even with no lactose available to the organism. Such mutations would be called ________."
Answer:
constitutive mutations
Explanation:
Constitutive mutations -
They are the strains which uninterruptedly make proteins , and therefore , can lead to excess of protiens and the process is very difficult or nearly impossible to stop , is known as the process of Constitutive mutations .
One of the example of this process of Constitutive mutations is ,
The strain with lac operon mutation which can even results in th etranscription of the lac genes .
Hence , from the statement of the question ,the correct term is Constitutive mutations .
What are the two major factors determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes?
Answer:
Rainfall and temperature
Explanation:
The type of terrestrial biomes that occurs in different parts of the world is mainly influenced by rainfall and temperature. The density, height, and diversity of species decreases from warm, wet climates to cool, dry climates. The differences in rainfall and temperature, which are important climatic factors, determine the distribution of terrestrial biomes across the world.
For example, low rainfall is a main climatic factor that influences the variety of plant species that are found in desert biomes.
Answer:
temperature and rainfall
In garden peas the allele for tall plants () is dominant over the allele for dwarf plants() A true breeding tall plant is bred with a true breeding dwarf plant to produce heterozygous tall plants. These Ft heterozygotes then self fertilize to yield F2 offspring. Complete the Punnett squar combination re for this monohybrid cross with the appropriate genotype of the Fi gametes and the F2 genotype/phenotype
A) Tt Tall
B) TT Tall
C) T
D) t
E) tt Dwart
Answer: This is called Monohybrid Experiment
Explanation: Monohybrid Cross
P Generation TT * tt
Tall plants Dwarf plants
F1 Generation
T T
t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
In F1 generation;
There are 100% Tt Genotype and 100% Tall plant Phenotype
F2 Generation
F1 * F1
( Tt * Tt )
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
In F2 Generation;
Genotype
There are 25% TT (homozygous dominant, tall plants).
50% Tt (heterozygous tall plants), and
25% tt (homozygous recessive dwarf plants).
This is how dwarf characteristics reappear in the second generation.
The Phenotype of F2 generation is 3:1 (Tall : Dwarf)
I have attached a document to this answer to facilitate effective understanding if there is anormalities in arrangement the Punnet Square.
What four large islands make up the greater antilles in the west indies
Answer:
Read the explanation section.
Explanation:
Cuba, Jamaica, Hispaniola (Haiti and the Dominican Republic), and Puerto Rico.
A population of caterpillars feeds on the leaves of trees in a forest and is in turn food for birds that eat them off the tree leaves. Given this information, which adaptation would be most likely to evolve?
A. Birds would evolve to eat more types of insects.
B. Caterpillars would evolve to eat the bark as well as the leaves.
C. Caterpillars would evolve to a larger size.
D. Caterpillars would evolve to a color that matched the leaves they eat.
Answer:
D. Caterpillars would evolve to a color that matched the leaves they eat.
Explanation:
In addition to the ability of caterpillars to cling in leaves and draw water from them, they are able to camouflage themselves on the leaves depending on their coloration.
Caterpillars can come in many different colors, but most are green or brown, this is an evolutionary response, so caterpillars can be mistaken for the leaves they usually feed on, for the purpose of not drawing attention of predators such as birds, for example. This evolutionary trait will therefore give caterpillars a better chance of survival.
Final answer:
The most likely adaptation for caterpillars under predation pressure would be camouflaged coloration to match the leaves, enhancing survival by avoiding detection from bird predators.
Explanation:
In the given scenario of caterpillars and their bird predators, the most likely adaptation to evolve would be camouflaged coloration that matches the leaves the caterpillars eat. This adaptation, option D, would increase their chances of avoiding detection by predators, thereby enhancing their chances for survival and reproduction.
Examples of this process include the peppered moth, which evolved darker coloration to blend in with sooty trees in polluted environments, and hypothetical lizard populations that develop camouflaged coloration to evade predators. Such adaptations are a result of selective pressures that favor individuals with traits that provide better protection against predators,
How is a tendon different from a ligament?
a. A tendon joins a bone to a bone; a ligament joins a muscle to a bone.
b. A tendon joins a muscle to a bone; a ligament joins a bone to a bone.
c. A tendon covers a bone; a ligament supplies nutrients to a bone.
d. A tendon supplies nutrients to a bone; a ligament covers a bone.
Answer:
b. A tendon joins a muscle to a bone; a ligament joins a bone to a bone.
Explanation:
To maintain the accuracy of the genome sequence, the DNA should not be cut into small pieces before sequencing.a) true b) false
Answer:
True. In sequencing, the first few sequences and the last few sequences may not accurately sequenced hence cutting DNA into smaller pieces would result in a larger portion of DNA inaccurately sequenced than if a longer sequence of DNA was sequenced with the sequence of interest in the middle.
Describe the appearance of dna in a typical prokaryotic cell
Answer:
Explanation:
The prokaryotic cell or prokaryotes are single celled organisms that do not posses organelles or membrane bound structures hence they do not have a nucleus but they posses single chromosome which is a piece of circular double-standard DNA in the nucleoid.
In a typical prokaryotic cell, DNA appears as a singular, circular chromosome localized in a region known as the nucleoid. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus and may also carry plasmids, which are smaller extra-chromosomal DNA. Other cell features include ribosomes, cell membrane, and a cell wall, with some cells having flagella, pili, and capsules.
Explanation:The appearance of DNA in a typical prokaryotic cell is unique compared to eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotes such as bacteria and archaea, the DNA is typically a single, circular chromosome that is found in a region called the nucleoid. Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do not have a membrane-bound nucleus to contain their DNA. Additionally, prokaryotic cells may also carry extra-chromosomal DNA known as plasmids, which are smaller circles of DNA that can provide advantages such as antibiotic resistance.
Aside from the nucleoid containing the genomic DNA, prokaryotic cells also have other structures such as ribosomes for protein synthesis, a cell membrane that defines the boundary of the cell, and a protective cell wall. Some prokaryotic cells also have additional features like flagella for movement, pili for adherence, and a capsule for protection against the host's immune system, though not all bacteria will have these structures.
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?a. cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongatab. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systemsc. carotid sinus and aortic arch
Answer:
The correct option is c. The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are located in carotid sinus and aortic arch.
Explanation:
Baroreceptors are primary sensors (or mechanosensitive nerve endings) that detect distention in vascular walls and are stimulated by mechanical deformations during blood vessel stretching. They are located in the carotid sinus and the aortic arch. The stretching the vessel walls at any of these locations causes vasodilation and bradycardia. The baroreceptors detect the stretching of the vessels due to changes in blood pressure, through them a more efficient control of blood pressure is achieved.
The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are found in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. They are responsible for detecting changes in blood pressure and initiating a response to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.
Explanation:The sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. Baroreceptors are specialized stretch receptors within the walls of these vessels that respond to changes in blood pressure. When there is an increase in blood pressure, these receptors are stretched more and their rate of firing to the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata increases. This leads to adjustments in heart rate and blood vessel dilation/constriction to maintain blood pressure homeostasis.
These baroreceptor sites are critical for the baroreceptor reflex, which adjusts blood flow and pressure by changing the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system actions on the heart and blood vessels. With increased pressure and stretch, the cardiovascular center decreases sympathetic stimulation and increases parasympathetic stimulation, and vice versa when pressure and stretch decrease.
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Acepromazine concentration is 10 mg/mL. You are instructed to make a dilute acepromazine solution at 1 mg/mL. Which of the following could be used for how much acepromazine and how much sterile water are mixed to make this concentration? the bottle reads 500 mg/50 mL (10 mg/mL)
a. 9 mL acepromazine and 1 ml sterile water
b. 1 mL acepromazine and 9 ml sterile water
c. 10 mL acepromazine and 25 ml sterile water
d. 0.1 mL acepromazine and 2.5 ml sterile water
Answer:
b times its self b mailman
Explanation:
c times itself c squared
To make a diluted 1mg/mL acepromazine solution from a 10mg/mL solution, you should mix 1mL of the acepromazine with 9mL of sterile water.
Explanation:To make a dilute solution, we will need to take a low amount of acepromazine (which is in a higher concentration) and mix it with a larger volume of sterile water (which acts as a diluent) to reduce the amount of acepromazine per milliliter. Since the initial solution is 10mg/mL, to achieve a dilution of 1mg/mL we would need to take 1ml of the initial solution (which contains 10mg of acepromazine) and then add nine times this volume of water to dilute it to 1mg/mL. Therefore, the correct answer is b. 1 mL acepromazine and 9 ml sterile water.
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The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult
Answer:
No
Explanation:
The larvae are the juvenile phases of animals with indirect development and that have an anatomy, physiology and ecology different from those of the adult. The adjective derived from the larva is larval. In common language, larvae often receive different names from adults; The larvae always differ significantly from those of adults, in aspects such as size, external shape and even internal anatomy and the development of their functions. The differences are related to ecological differences, both in terms of habitat and resources.
A vaginal photometer and a penile plethysmograph can be used as measures of
Answer:
sexual arousal
Explanation:
A vaginal photometer is an instrument used in vaginal photoplethysmograph - a medical procedure that uses light to determine the amount of blood in the wall of the vagina. It is a procedure used to estimate or evaluate the level of sexual arousal in females.
A penile plethysmograph on the other hand is a device used to measure the blood flow to the penis during penile plethysmography procedure. It uses the same principle as the vaginal photometer and can be useful in the evaluation of erectile functions or sexual arousal in males.
Hence, both device measures sexual arousal in females and males respectively.
Vectors such as puc18 and others of the puc series contain a large number of restriction enzyme sites clustered in one region. Which term describes this advantageous arrangement of restriction sites?
Answer: multiple cloning site
Explanation: the selectable marking characteristics of given vector is an advantage of coexpression of recombinant protein, optimization phase cloning procedures as well as multiple manipulation within the same host strain that gives it it's name.