List two medications that are helpful in treating hypertension and describe their actions.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: Diuretics and beta-blockers

Explanation:

Hypertension is a condition in which high blood pressure occurs. In this condition the pressure of the blood inside the arteries is severely elevated. The blood exerts force on the walls of the arteries.

Following are the medications which can be used for the treatment of high blood pressure.

1. Diuretics: These medicines helps to reduce the excess level of sodium and water and hence it regulates the blood pressure. It is used along with other therapies.

2. Beta-blockers: These are the medicines which help in reducing the heart rate hence, helps in lowering blood pressure.

Answer 2

Answer: Anti-adrenergics and Diuretics

Explanation:

Doctors do not prescribe medication until the patients's blood pressure reaches 160/100, below this the hypertension is considered as mild hypertension.

For the people who is already suffering from diabetes and kidney disease, medications will be use at 130/80.

Diuretics are commonly known as water pills. These work by helping the kidney to eliminate sodium and water out of the body. This process decreases decreases the volume of blood and the heart needs to less pump with each beat, which lowers the blood pressure of the body.

Anti-adrenergics are another class of drugs that is offered to the patients suffering from the problem of hypertension. These drugs lowers the blood pressure by limiting the action of the hormone epinephrine and norepinephrine, which relaxes the blood vessels which reduces the spped of heart's contractions.


Related Questions

Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease. A couple (Jack and Jill) is worried about having a child who has Tay-Sachs, because Jack had a brother with the deadly disease. Since they wanted to have children, they sought the advice of a genetic counselor. During the course of the interview the counselor determined that Jack’s parents were not affected with Tay-Sachs, yet his brother had it. What is immediately known about the genotypes of Jack’s parents? Is the genotype of Jack immediately known? Under what circumstances could Jack and Jill have a child with Tay-Sachs? Assume that neither Jack nor Jill has Tay-Sachs.

Answers

Answer:

Jack parents' genotype = Both Heterozygous dominant (carrier)

Jack's genotype = could be homozygous dominant or heterozygous dominant

Jack and Jill can have a child with Tay-Sachs if both of them are heterozygous dominant for the disease.

Explanation:

Since Jack's brother died of the disease, his parents should be heterozygous dominant for the disease. Both the parents served as the carrier (Aa x Aa, assuming that allele "a" is responsible for Tay-Sachs disease) and had one affected child (Jack's bother= "aa").  

Since Jack is not affected by the disease, he could be homozygous dominant (AA) or heterozygous dominant (Aa). But, his exact genotype could not be determined by the given information.

Child of Jack and Jill could be affected with the disease only if both of them are heterozygous dominant (Jack: Aa and Jill: Aa) and serve as the carrier for the disease.

Final answer:

Jack's parents are carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene, and Jack has a 50% chance of being a carrier as well. For Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on the faulty copies of the gene.

Explanation:

The fact that Jack's parents are unaffected but his brother has Tay-Sachs indicates that they are both carriers of the Tay-Sachs gene. This means that they each have one normal copy of the gene and one faulty copy, which they passed on to Jack's brother. Jack himself has a 50% chance of being a carrier like his parents. In order for Jack and Jill to have a child with Tay-Sachs, both of them would need to be carriers and pass on their faulty copies of the gene, resulting in the child inheriting two faulty copies and developing the disease.

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The liver is important in carbohydrate metabolism as it processes the monosaccharides galactose and fructose into glucose. What happens to this glucose once it is done being processed in the liver?

Answers

Answer: The glucose extracted is stored in the liver as glycogen, which is made available to the body as needed. In this case, the liver cells function as a fuel reservoir.

Explanation:

Glycogen is the available reserve of glucose to supply tissues with a source of energy and is found mainly in the liver, this is considered a source of glucose that can be used throughout the body. The main area of daily glucose consumption is the brain, via the aerobic route. The biggest part of the remaining energy is used by red blood cells, skeletal and cardiac muscles. The body obtains glucose through diet or gluconeogenesis pathway. The glucose obtained from these two primary sources remain soluble in body fluids or are stored in a polymeric form called glycogen. Glycogen is considered the main form of glucose deposition and is found mainly in the liver and muscle.

Final answer:

Once processed in the liver, glucose either circulates in the body supplying energy, gets stored as glycogen for short-term energy reserves, or reformed into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. If needed, the liver can also produce glucose through the process of gluconeogenesis. These processes are all key parts of carbohydrate metabolism.

Explanation:

After glucose has been processed in the liver, it has multiple fates depending on the body's needs. It can remain in the bloodstream, providing energy in the form of ATP through a process known as glycolysis. This process, occurring in body cells, involves a series of reactions that transfer the energy in glucose to ADP to form ATP, with the product being pyruvate.

If the body has more glucose than is immediately needed, this excess glucose can be stored in the liver as glycogen or be converted into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. Should the body need more glucose, such as during fasting, the liver is capable of gluconeogenesis, a process where it produces more glucose.

The role and fate of glucose in the body is part of the larger process of carbohydrate metabolism, where complex carbohydrates are broken down into simple sugars and ultimately used for energy production.

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What does EEG stands for?

Answers

Answer:

An EEG is formally known as an electroencephalogram, thus the letters on the name.

This is a diagnostic test whose main purpose is to record the electrical activity within the brain through a series of electrodes that are placed on the scalp surrounding the skull of a person. As neurons communicate with each other through electrical impulses, the EEG, with its capacity to sensor these impulses, records the intensity, duration, wavelength and type of the electrical message to diagnose whether this communication is normal, or if it is being affected. The EEG is one of the most efficient diagnostic tests for epilepsy, narcolepsy, and other affections in the brain.

During inhalation, which changes first in the throacic caviaty, the pressure or the volume? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer to the question: During inhalation, which changes first in the thoracic cavity, the pressure or the volume, is, the volume.

Explanation:

The process of breathing, that is the cylces of inhalation and inspiration, are completely dependent on pressure gradients both on the atmosphere and inside the body, specifically the lungs and thoracic cavity. Before the breathing is initiated, both the atmospheric and alveolar pressures (alveoli are where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide will take place), is equal. However, during the initiation of inspiration, the costal muscles and the diaphragm descend and open up the chest cavity, pulling with them the lungs. This causes an increase in volume capacity and a decrease of pressure within the alveoli. Since gases like oxygen tend to move from higher to lower pressure gradients, as the volume of the lungs increases, and pressure decreases, oxygen will flow from the atmosphere into the lungs. During expiration, as the lungs return to their normal state, volume diminishes, pressure increase, and the gases are thus expelled to normalize pressures again.

Identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris.

Answers

Answer: Why are Type A's more prone to heart attacks?  

Explanation:

The fluid-filled space between the cornea and iris is called the anterior chamber. It is filled with a watery fluid called aqueous humor.

What is the function of the anterior chamber

The function of the anterior chamber is to provide a space for the passage of aqueous humor, a clear fluid that helps to maintain the shape, pressure of the eye and provides nutrients to the cornea and lens. It also helps regulate intraocular pressure, which is important for maintaining the overall health of the eye.

It is located between the cornea and the iris, and is filled with aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body. The anterior chamber also plays a role in the refractive power of the eye, contributing to focusing light onto the retina.

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Why is reducing caloric intake insufficient for a person to loose weight in a healthy way?

Answers

Answer:

The amount of calories intake on daily basis depend upon the the age and sex of the person, more younger and active person can consume more calories.

To loose weight by consuming low calorie diet can could reverse the whole dieting scene. Shortage of calorie intake could result in body storing fats, as a fear of starvation. It could also result in diet distress, just the metabolism becomes slow and body do not loose any weight, and frustration could lead you to over-eat. On the other hand, long term use of such low calories diet could result in fatigue, constipation, diarrhea etc. Gallstones are mostly observed in people using low calories diet.

This is because weight gain and weight loss are governed by many factors and mechanisms that are a balance between energy intake and expenditure. Even after reducing calorie intake weight may not be lost effectively if the metabolic rate of the body is lowered. Metabolic rate can be increased by exercising to burn excess calories.

How do volcanoes function as a disruptive force? Check all that apply.
force people to flee their homes
cause massive earthquakes
pollute the air with volcanic smoke
provide fertile soil for plant growth
make airplanes fly around ash clouds

Answers

Answer:

A,C,E

Explanation:

Force people to flee their homes

Pollute the air with volcanic smoke

Make airplanes fly around ash clouds

Final answer:

Volcanoes disrupt life by forcing evacuations, polluting the air with smoke, and changing flight routes around ash clouds. They do not directly cause massive earthquakes or contribute to soil fertility as disruptive forces.

Explanation:

Volcanoes function as a disruptive force in several ways. They can force people to flee their homes due to the imminent danger posed by eruptions. During significant volcanic activity, the release of tons of gases and dust into the atmosphere can pollute the air with volcanic smoke, which includes water vapor, carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and other gases. This can result in environmental impacts such as haze-effect cooling and climate change. Additionally, volcanic ash clouds can be so extensive that they make airplanes fly around ash clouds for safety reasons, due to the abrasive and engine-clogging properties of volcanic ash.

While volcanoes can also cause massive earthquakes and provide fertile soil for plant growth, these are not examples of disruptive forces. The fertile soil is a beneficial aspect, and while earthquakes are often associated with volcanic activity, they are not a direct function of the volcano itself, but rather a result of the tectonic plate activity beneath it.

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Explain a graded potential.

Answers

Explanation:

Neurons communicate by changes in electrical properties of the plasma membrane that move from one cell to another. The architecture of the neuron aids the spread of these electrical signals called nerve impulses. A potential difference exists across every cell’s plasma membrane. The side of the membrane exposed to the cytoplasm is the negative pole, and the side exposed to the extracellular fluid is the positive pole. This potential difference is called the membrane potential.

If the plasma membrane is depolarized (moved toward a polarity above that of the resting potential) slightly, an oscilloscope will show a small upward deflection of the line that soon decays back to the resting membrane potential. These small changes in membrane potential are called graded potentials because their amplitudes depend on the strength of the stimulus. Graded potentials can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing and can add together to amplify or reduce their effects. The ability of graded potentials to combine is called summation. The level of depolarization needed to produce an action potential is called the threshold.

Explain the differences between the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?

Answers

Answer:

The epithalamus, perithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus have in common that they are all part of the brain region known as the diencephalon. This structure is extremely important as it will be responsible for the collection, interpretation, and relying of information from the midbrain and other systems towards the cerebral cortex, and other parts of the brain, and then will be responsible also for collecting the responses from the higher brain regions towards the appropriate places.

However, each of these structures is different and has a different purpose.

The eipthalamus, which would be the outermost structure of the diencephalon, is the first region where information is relayed by the midbrain and the lymbic system. This structure is responsible also for the secretion of melatoning, which controls the circadian rythm, present in its most important portion, the pineal gland. It also controls the secretion of certain hormones of the pituitary gland, but it is not its biggest role.

Then comes the thalamus. This structure is also really important as it is also a centre of collection of information, especially that relayed by the midbrain, towards the cortex. Without the thalamus, there would be no connection between the cerebral cortex, the midbrain, and other parts of the body. Another major role of the thalamus is to regulate all regarding the process of sleep, wakefulness and alertness in the body

Finally, we have the hypothalamus, and its importance its enormous. This small portion of the diencephalon is responsible for the whole process of homeostasis, which means, it regulates all the processes that will bring equilibrium to the body. It also works as a bridge between the nervous and endocrine systems, as the hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormonal messengers from the pituitary gland towards other glands.

These are only a few of the differences between these portions of the diencephalon, without mentioning the anatomical and physiological differences between them.

Final answer:

The thalamus acts as a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system, while the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and autonomic functions. The epithalamus contains the pineal gland and is involved in regulating sleep cycles and circadian rhythms.

Explanation:

The thalamus is a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system. It consists of several nuclei that can be categorized into three groups: anterior, medial, and lateral. The anterior nucleus relays information between the hypothalamus and the emotion and memory-producing limbic system. The medial nuclei relay information from the limbic system and basal ganglia to the cerebral cortex, facilitating memory creation and determining alertness. The lateral nuclei receive sensory information and relay it to the appropriate sensory cortex of the cerebrum.


The hypothalamus is involved in regulating homeostasis and is situated inferior and slightly anterior to the thalamus. It is responsible for controlling the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through its regulation of the anterior pituitary gland. Some parts of the hypothalamus also play a role in memory and emotion as part of the limbic system.


The epithalamus is one of the regions of the diencephalon, along with the thalamus and hypothalamus. It contains the pineal gland, which is involved in the regulation of sleep cycles and circadian rhythms. While the thalamus and hypothalamus primarily have relay and regulatory functions, the epithalamus is more specialized in its role related to sleep and circadian rhythms.

From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the __(1)__ through the __(2)__ valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left __(3)__ to the capillary beds of the __(4)__ to the __(5)__ to the __(6)__ of the heart through the __(7)__ valve, to the __(8)__ through the __(9)__ semilunar valve, to the __(10)__, to the systemic arteries, to the __(11)__ of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the __(12)__ and __(13)__, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

Answers

Answer:

Circulatory system

Explanation:

From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle through the pulmonary sigmoid valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left lungs to the capillary beds of the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle of the heart through the mitral valve, to the aorta through the aortic semilunar valve, to the whole body, to the systemic arteries, to the capillaries of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the superior cava vein and inferior cava vein, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

Final answer:

The statement describes the journey of blood through the cardiovascular system. It involves the right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, aorta, capillary beds of the body, superior and inferior vena cava.

Explanation:

The blood flow pathway you're describing is basically the journey of blood throughout the cardiovascular system, including its passage through the heart. The blanks in your statement can be filled in the following way: From the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the (1) right ventricle through the (2) pulmonary valve to the pulmonary trunk to the right and left (3) pulmonary arteries to the capillary beds of the (4) lungs to the (5) pulmonary veins to the (6) left atrium of the heart through the (7) mitral valve, to the (8) left ventricle through the (9) aortic semilunar valve, to the (10) aorta, to the systemic arteries, to the (11) capillary beds of the body tissues, to the systemic veins, to the (12) superior and (13) inferior vena cava, which enter the right atrium of the heart.

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What does a hydrogen atom need to be in for hydrogen bonding to occur?

Answers

Answer:

Hydrogen Bonding. A hydrogen bond is a weak type of force that forms a special type of dipole-dipole attraction which occurs when a hydrogen atom bonded to a strongly electronegative atom exists in the vicinity of another electronegative atom with a lone pair of electrons

Explanation:

Answer: D. How can the proteins be used to increase the amount of oil produced by a plant?

Explanation:

Know the special characteristics of epithelial cells.

Answers

Answer:

Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing. Epithelial layers contain no blood vessels, so they must receive nourishment via diffusion of substances from the underlying connective tissue, through the basement membrane

Name the 4 main classes of ATP-powered pumps.

Answers

Answer: P-class pumps, V-class proton pumps, F-class proton pumps, and ABC superfamily.

Explanation:

The P-class pump can be found at the Plasma membrane of all eukaryotic cells (Ca2+ pump), and Sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane in muscle cells. All P-class ion pumps possess 2 identical catalytic subunits that contain an ATP-binding site.  V-class proton pumps can be found at endosomal and lysosomal membranes in animal cells, in the plasma membrane of osteoclasts and some kidney tubule cells.  F-class proton pumps can be found at the inner mitochondrial membrane and bacterial plasma membrane. ABC superfamily can be found in bacterial plasma membranes (amino acid, sugar, and peptide transporters), and mammalian plasma membranes.

The disease cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a mutation to the CFTR gene which affects the respiratory, endocrine, reproductive, and digestive systems. The most common cystic fibrosis allele is missing three bases compared to the normal allele, resulting in the loss of one amino acid in the CFTR protein. What kind of mutation caused the cystic fibrosis allele?

Answers

Answer: DF508 mutation. A Genetic, Hereditary, Autosomal and Recessive Mutation.

Explanation:

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a recessive autosomal lethal disease, it is most common on Caucasoid populations. Its diagnosis is suggested by the clinical features of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, persistent pulmonary colonization (particularly with mucoid Pseudomonas strains), meconium ileus, pancreatic insufficiency with or familiarity history of the disease. The FC gene is large, with about 250 Kb of genomic DNA, 27 exons representing about 5% of genomic DNA; encodes a 6.5 kb transcribed mRNA. This mRNA is transcribed into a protein of 1480 amino acid called CFTR (Regulator Transmembrane Conductance Cystic Fibrosis). When a three-base pair deletion, adenosine-thymine-thymine (ATT) identified in the CFTR gene, exon 10, it results in the loss of a single amino acid phenylalanine at position 508 of the protein. This mutation is called DF508; “D” stands for deletion and “F” for phenylalanine amino acid.

The male panda bear has 25 chromosomes in each sperm cell. How many chromosomes would be in the fertilized panda zygote?

Answers

50 chromosomes
A sperm cell is haploid (n) and a zygote is diploid (2n) so 25(2)=50 chromosomes

Answer:

50 chromosomes

Explanation:

You are a graduate student at the University of Iowa and working as a teaching assistant for a freshman introductory biology course. Two of your students have come to you with a ques- tion about the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from a gene. The original DNA sequence from which the mRNA was transcribed reads: TGACGATCGTA. The students were asked to provide the sequence of bases in the mRNA and came up with the following mRNA sequence: ACTGCTAGCAT. They are confused because their answer does not match the answer in the book. Briefly explain the very common mistake they made and what the correct sequence is.

Answers

Answer: The corret DNA sequence is ACUGCUAGCAU.

Explanation: The common mistake that they make is, they forget to replace thymine with uracil as a base pair of Adenine. During DNA transcription Thymine is replaced by Uracil in production of messenger RNA. Uracil is a de-mythylated form of thymine and requires less energy to produce.

Final answer:

The students made an error in understanding the base-pairing rules during transcription. The correct mRNA sequence from the DNA sequence TGACGATCGTA should be ACUGCUAGCAU. Before the mRNA can be used for protein synthesis in translation, it needs to undergo additional processes like capping, tailing and splicing.

Explanation:

The common mistake made by the students in determining the mRNA sequence from the given DNA sequence is not understanding the base pairing rules of transcription. During transcription, Adenine (A) pairs with Uracil (U), Thymine (T) pairs with Adenine (A), Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) and Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C). Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence that is transcribed from the given DNA sequence (TGACGATCGTA) would be ACUGCUAGCAU, not ACTGCTAGCAT. However, remember that in reality, this process requires more steps (such as addition of cap and tail, splicing) before the mRNA is fully mature and ready for translation (the process where mRNA is used to make a protein).

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A muscle that draws ribs together

a. Internal intercostals

b. Pectoralis major

Answers

B. Pectoralis major
The pectoralis major draws the ribs together

What substance is found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal

Answers

Answer:

I believe synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters.

Explanation:

In the far end of a neuron, there is the branch like ending with called the axon terminals. This is where neurons communicate with other neurons through a space called a synaptic cleft with the aid of neurotramitters. To better understand the significance of the synaptic vesicles, I have explained the functioning of the terminal before with an attached picture.

Further Explanation:

When a neuron receives a signal/stimulus from the external environment via the dendrites, it converts this signal into a nerve impulse in the cell body. The impulse. The impulse then travels along the myelinated axon to reach the end of the neuron called the axon terminal which links up with the next organ or neuron. When the impulse reaches the membrane of the axon terminal, it stimulates the opening of voltage gated calcium ion channels. This causes an influx of calcium ions inside the membrane of the cell and that stimulates synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters to move towards the membrane of the axon terminal. When they reach the membrane, they fuse with it and rapture releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters bind to ligand gated ion channels on the second neuron or the second cell causing a response in it. The voltage gated channels close and the synaptic vesicels that were not opened up continue holding the remaining neurotransmitters.

The substance found in synaptic vesicles of the axon terminal is called a neurotransmitter.

What is an neurotransmitter?

Neurotransmitters are chemicals that help neurons talk to each other. These small substances are kept in tiny containers called synaptic vesicles. These containers release the substances into a small space between two neurons called the synaptic cleft.

When an electrical signal reaches the end of a nerve cell, it causes the release of chemicals that help transmit messages to other nerve cells. The chemicals called neurotransmitters move through a small gap and attach to receptors on the receiving neuron. This causes an electrical reaction in the receiving neuron.

Neurotransmitters are important for lots of things in our body like moving, feeling things, emotions, and thinking. Problems with how brain cells communicate can cause different brain illnesses like Parkinson's, Alzheimer's, and depression.

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Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. Tetanus
D. Strep throat

Answers

Answer:

A. Hepatitis B

Explanation:

Hepatitis B is a disease caused by a virus.

Hepatitis B is passed from person to person from bodily fluids.

Tuberculosis, Tetanus, and Strep throat is caused by bacteria.

Describe the common tissues found in the organs of the intestinal tract. (4 points) Describe the common tissues and structures found in accessory organs. (4 points) Describe these structures and their function in the pancreas: (6 points) Acinar cells that secrete enzymes or bicarbonate _____ Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon ____ Blood vessel ______ Describe these structures and their function in the small intestine: (6 points) Villi _____ Smooth muscle ______ Intestinal glands _______

Answers

Answer:

1)

Tissues in the intestinal tract made up of loose connective tissues

Mucosa: It playa a role in the secretion of lubricants that lubricate and protect the intestinal wall from digestive enzymes.

Submucosa: It contains nerves, blood vessels and elastic fibers with collagen. It maintains the shape of the intestine by stretching.

Serosa: During digestive movements, it secretes lubricating fluid and prevents from frictional damages.

2)

Accessory digestive organs have common specialized cells, ducts, and secrete digestive hormones to help in digestion.

3)

Acinar cells that secrete and transport enzymes or bicarbonate into the duodenum for the digestion of the food.

Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon that increase the glucose level in the blood.

Blood vessels provide oxygen and nutrients for tissue growth and maintenance.

4)

Villi help to absorb digested food.

Smooth muscle moves food through the digestive tract.

Intestinal glands help in digestion and absorption by releasing hormones.

Acinar cells are basic units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.

The acinar cells represent the functional basic units of the exocrine pancreas.

These cells (acinar cells) secrete digestive enzymes called zymogens, which activate when they reach the duodenum.

Islets cells are groups of cells within the pancreas that perform specific functions.

For example, islets of beta cells, are pancreatic islets involved in the production of insulin, a hormone required to control the level of glucose in the blood.

These pancreatic islets are vascularized by many blood vessels, which are adapted in order to favor normal endocrine function.

Intestinal microvilli are finger-like projections of the intestinal surface cells, which are capable of increasing the internal surface area, thereby increasing absorption.

The smooth muscle tissue found in intestinal walls is responsible for the rhythmic involuntary contractions of the intestine.

Intestinal glands are tubular glands localized in the small intestine between the villi, which are capable of secreting digestive enzymes and mucus.

There are two classes of intestinal glands: crypts of Lieberkuhn and Brunner's glands.

In conclusion, acinar cells are units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.

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33. What is the correct term used for the water entering a red blood cell due to being placed in a hypertonic solution and the cell subsequently bursts?
a. Hemolysis
b. Plasmolysis
c. Crenation
d. Diffusion

Answers

Answer: a. Hemolysis

Explanation:

Hemolysis can be defined as a rupture of the membranes of the red blood cells and the consequent release of hemoglobin. Hemolysis is the process in which the rupture of the red blood cells occurs and the consequent release in the environment, of hemoglobin and other substances. Hemolysis can occur in the human body or during the processing of blood. It is said that hemolysis is in vivo or in vitro when occurring in the body or outside the body, respectively.

In vivo hemolysis can cause serious health problems, such as hemolytic anemia, a disease characterized by the early destruction of red blood cells. Jaundice and splenomegaly are signs of this pathology, which may be hereditary or acquired. In cases of severe hemolysis, blood transfusions may be required.

Which kind of psychology seeks to identify and promote those qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled, and contented lives?

a.self-psychology
b.positive psychology
c.eustress psychology
d.psychology of joy

Answers

Answer:

B - Positive psychology

Explanation:

By definition, positive psychology is the study of a healthy mind and it is a applied to achieve peak operational functioning of the mind. It does this by identifying and promoting qualities that lead to happy, fulfilled and contented lives. Positive psychology is based on nurturing what is best withing oneself, thereby improving both individuals and communities.

The average human body contains 6.10 L of blood with a Fe2+ concentration of 1.50×10−5 M . If a person ingests 12.0 mL of 14.0 mM NaCN, what percentage of iron(II) in the blood would be sequestered by the cyanide ion?

Answers

Final answer:

This Chemistry problem involves understanding reactions and stoichiometry. All Fe2+ ions in the blood would be sequestered by the ingested NaCN, leading to 100% sequestration of iron(II) ions by cyanide ions.

Explanation:

This problem involves understanding the chemical reactions and stoichiometry. In this scenario, sodium cyanide (NaCN) reacts with Fe2+ in blood to form cyanoferrate(II) complex. Potentially, each CN- ion can bind to one Fe2+ ion, since the cyanide ion has a 1- charge and iron(II) ion has a 2+ charge.

Step 1: Convert everything into moles

First, convert the volume of blood into liters: the average human body contains 6.1L of blood. Next, calculate the number of moles of Fe2+ ions using the molarity (M), which is moles/Liters:

1.5x10^-5 moles/L * 6.1L = 9.15x10^-5 moles

Do similar calculations for NaCN. Convert the volume ingested, 12.0 mL, to L: 12.0 mL * (1L/1000 mL) = 0.012L. Find the moles of CN- (since Na+ doesn't participate in the reaction):

0.014 moles/L * 0.012L = 1.68x10^-4 moles of CN-

Step 2: Determine how much Fe2+ can be sequestered

As each CN- ion can bind to one Fe2+ ion, the limiting reactant is the one with fewer moles. Hence in this case, Fe2+ is the limiting reactant. All of it would be sequestered by cyanide ion.

Step 3: Calculate the percentage

As iron(II) is fully sequestered, the percentage sequestered is 100% in this case.

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Final answer:

Theoretically, 100% of the iron(II) in the blood could potentially be sequestered by the cyanide ion as there are more moles of cyanide ions ingested than moles of Fe2+ present in the body.

Explanation:

To determine the amount of iron(II) that would be sequestered by cyanide ions, we should first calculate the total amount of Fe2+ present in blood and the total amount of cyanide ions ingested. The concentration of Fe2+ was given as 1.50×10-5 M and we assume an average blood volume of 6.10 L, so the total amount of Fe2+ in moles is (1.5*10-5) * 6.10 = 9.15 * 10-5 mol.

Similarly, the ingested cyanide (NaCN) has a concentration of 14.0 mM in 12.0 mL which is 12.0/1000 = 0.012 L of solution. So total CN- ion in moles is 14 * 10-3 * 0.012 = 1.68 * 10-4 mol.

Therefore, we can see more moles of CN- ions were ingested than there are moles of Fe2+ in the body. Consequently, all of the Fe2+ could theoretically react with the CN- ions indicating that 100% of the iron(II) in the blood could potentially be sequestered by the cyanide ion.

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Which is a difference between the synaptic cleft and the synapse?

Answers

Answer:

Synaptic cleft

Synaptic cleft may be defined as the space between two neuron and the gap between post synaptic and pre synaptic neuron. This is one of the component of synapse. The signals are transmitted in the form of chemical signal.

Synapse:

Synapse may be defined as the functional contact between two neurons and the gap between two consecutive neuron. This synapse consists of Presynaptic and postsynaptic membrane. The signals can be transmitted in form of electrical and chemical synapse.

Chimpanzee attacks on members of other groups can be extremely brutal and result in severe injury or death. never result in injury. are definitely motivated by territoriality. are so rare that only one or two have been observed. always occur in the form of displays and nothing more.

Answers

Answer:

severe injury or death

Suppose two parents, a father with the genotype AaBbCcDdee and a mother with the genotype aabbCcDDEe, wanted to have children. Assume each locus follows Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominance. What proportion of the off spring will have each of the following characteristics? Round your answers to two decimal places.

Answers

The fork line method is used to get genotypic and phenotypic proportions. In this case, 0.03 of the progeny have the father's genotype, 0.03 have the mother's genotype, 0.09 looks like the father, 0.09 looks like the mother, and 0.81 are different from both parents.

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Available data:

Five diallelic genes Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominancefather ⇒  AaBbCcDdeemother ⇒  aabbCcDDEe

Cross: Mother x Father

Parentals) aabbCcDDEe x AaBbCcDdee

To avoid making a Punnett square -which whould be very complex-, we will perform crosses separately for each gene, and then multiply their proportions. This is the fork line method, and is useful to get the proportions of the desired genotypes and phenotypes among the progeny.

Gene A:

Parentals) aa   x    Aa

Gametes) a  a     A   a

F1) 1/2 = 50% Aa  

    1/2 = 50% aa

Gene B:

Parentals) bb   x    Bb

Gametes) b  b       B   b

F1) 1/2 = 50% Bb  

    1/2 = 50% bb

Gene C:

Parentals) Cc   x    Cc

Gametes) C   c      C    c

F1) 1/4 = 25% CC  

    1/2 = 50% Cc

    1/4 = 25% cc

Gene D:

Parentals) DD   x    Dd

Gametes) D   D      D    d

F1) 1/2 = 50% DD

    1/2 = 50% Dd

Gene E:

Parentals) Ee   x    ee

Gametes) E   e     e   e

F1) 1/2 = 50% Ee

    1/2 = 50% ee

F1) Genotypes

a. Same genotype as the father ⇒ AaBbCcDdee

1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee

[tex]1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee[/tex]

b. same genotype as the mother ⇒ aabbCcDDEe

1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe[/tex]

     Phenotypes

c. phenotypically resemble the father  ⇒ A-B-C-D-ee

1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee

[tex]1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee[/tex]

d. phenotypically resemble the mother ⇒ aabbC-D-E-

1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-[/tex]

e. phenotypically resemble neither parent 26/32 = 0.81

1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee[/tex]

1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee

[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee[/tex]

1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee

[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee[/tex]

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In a certain group of African people, 4% are born with sickle-cell disease (homozygous recessive). In this case, only homozygous recessive individuals have sickle-cell disease. Heterozygous individuals not only don't have sickle-cell disease, they are resistant to malaria. If this group is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the population is heterozygous and resistant to malaria?

Answers

Final answer:

To determine the percentage of people heterozygous for sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. With 4% being homozygous recessive, we found out that p = 0.8 and q = 0.2 and calculated the heterozygous population (2pq) being 32%.

Explanation:

To calculate the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. This principle states that the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (ss) is equal to q2. Given that 4% of the population is homozygous recessive (ss) for sickle-cell disease, we can say that q2 = 0.04, which means q = sqrt(0.04) or q = 0.2. The frequency of the dominant allele (S) is represented as p, and since p + q = 1, we can find p by subtracting q from 1: p = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.

The frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Ss), which provides resistance to malaria, is 2pq. Therefore, the percentage of the population that is heterozygous and malaria-resistant is 2 * 0.8 * 0.2 = 0.32 or 32%.

The output region is the site of ______________________.
a. protein synthesis
b. ligand gated channels
c. voltage gated Na+ channels
d. neurotransmitter release

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C (voltage gated Na+ channels).

Explanation:

Output region or axon terminal is the structure of neuron which transmits the signals to other nerve cells.

The signal is transferred via action potential generated by the dendrite cell which moves along the axon and reaches the synaptic junction.  

At the synaptic junction, voltage-gated channel (Na+) channels located in the membrane of the axon terminal cell opens due to the changes in the electric membrane potential which play important role in returning the depolarized cell to a resting state.

Thus, option C (voltage-gated Na+ channels) is the correct answer.

The output region of neuron is where neurotransmitters are released, following the arrival of an action potential which opens voltage-gated calcium channels at the axon terminal, leading to neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft. The correct answer is d. neurotransmitter release.

In the context of neuron signaling, the output region of a neuron is the terminal end of the axon where synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are located. When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels.

The subsequent influx of calcium ions causes the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release their neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These neurotransmitters can then bind to receptors on the post-synaptic neuron, potentially initiating a new action potential in that neuron. This process is essential for the communication between neurons.

The parent cell that enters meiosis is diploid, whereas the four daughter cells that result are haploid. Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)

Answers

Answer:

I snatched this from someone else, so it isn't mine, but I hope it helps. They don't have a username so I cannot credit them.

Explanation:

DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.

During anaphase of both meiosis I and meiosis II, the DNA content (number of copies of chromosomes) in a cell is halved. However, the ploidy level changes only when the number of unique chromosome sets in the cell changes. This occurs only in meiosis I (where separation of homologous chromosomes decreases the ploidy level from 2n to n and produces daughter cells with a single chromosome set).

Continuing in analyzing myprotein and otherprotein, you then decide to run a gel to observe the presence of otherprotein and myprotein Which gel would you run?
a. 2D gel so that we can identify these protein specifically
b. PAGE because it allows for native confirmation so you can observe if these two proteins interact
c. SDS PAGE because it can separate based on size
d. SDS PAGE, Western Blot to find the presence of the both proteins within the protein sample

Answers

Answer:

SDC page because it can separate based on size

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