Markel is showing the symptoms of a panic attack.
A nurse in the antepartum clinic is assessing a client's adaptation to pregnancy. The client states that she is, "happy one minute and crying the next." The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of which of the following?a. The nurse should recognize and interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability.b. Many women experience rapid and unpredictable changes in mood during pregnancy.c. Intense hormonal changes may be responsible for mood changes that occur during pregnancy.d. Tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason.
In pregnancy, emotional lability is common and reflects the intense hormonal changes occurring in the body. These mood swings, which can alternate from tears and anger to joy and cheerfulness, are often unpredictable.
Explanation:The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability, which is a common phenomenon in pregnancy. This is characterized by rapid, often unpredictable mood swings. These sudden shifts in mood, from happiness to tears, can be attributed to the intense hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy. Thus, such emotional experiences, where tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason, are quite normal and to be expected.
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The nurse should interpret the client's rapid changes in emotions as an indication of emotional lability, a typical manifestation during pregnancy due to profound hormonal shifts.
Explanation:Based on the client's statement that she experiences rapid changes in emotions, the nurse should interpret this as an indication of emotional lability. Emotional lability is common during pregnancy due to the intense hormonal changes that occur. These hormonal changes can trigger unpredictable mood swings, causing a woman to alternate rapidly amongst different emotions such as tears, anger, happiness, or cheerfulness, often for little to no apparent reason. Therefore, the client's changing emotional states are a typical adaptive process to pregnancy.
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You are assessing 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs. Additionally, because his blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, you suspect neurogenic shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of neurogenic shock?
A. Warm and dry skin
B. Heart rate of 144
C. Heart rate of 44
D. Shallow rapid respirations
Answer:
A.
D.
Explanation:
Neurogenic shock is a type of shock that's manifested through low blood pressure, slower heart rate than usual. It is a result from damaging the central nervous system, like brain injury and spinal cord injury.
Some of the symptoms: Enormous pain in the chest, low heart rate (bradycardia, the opposite from tachycardia), very warm and dry skin, discolored lips and fingertips, shallow but fast breathing, feeling of weakness, etc.
The type of fracture often seen in young children is one in which there is not complete ossification of the bone, and the bone bends and just partially breaks. What type of fracture is this
Answer:
Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
Explanation:
Fractures
Bones are rigid structure but on applying force they may break apart.
Common types of fractures include:
Some of the common types of Fracture are
1) Stable fracture:
In this type of fracture bones are partially break and broken ends of the bone are barely out of place.
2) Open, compound fracture:
The skin in this type of fracture become ruptured by the bone and in some cases bones become visible in the wound. This is severe type of fracture.
3) Transverse fracture:
In this type, fracture appears in horizontal line. This may be same stable or open fracture but difference in direction of fracture.
4) Oblique fracture:
This type of fracture occurs an angled pattern.
5) Comminuted fracture:
In this type, fractures occurs in bone with three or more pieces.
Cause
The most common causes of fractures are:
Trauma:
Some kind of accident such as a fall, a car accident, or a during playing game.
Osteoporosis:
Osteoporosis is the disorder in which bones become weakens due to de-mineralization which makes bones more likely to break.
Overuse:
Too much utilization of the muscles make them tired and place more force on bone. This can result in stress fractures. This type of fracture most often occurs in athletes.
Answer:
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To assess whether Mrs. Webster had Alzheimer's disease, researchers conditioned her to blink in response to a sound that signaled the delivery of a puff of air directed toward her face. In this application of classical conditioning, the sound was a
a. US.b. UR.c. CS.d. CR.e. NS.
Answer:
C. CS
Explanation:
Hi! The answer would be C, CS. Cs stands for conditioned stimulus. During conditioning a stimulus which produces no response (i.e., neutral) is associated with the unconditioned stimulus at which point it now becomes known as the conditioned stimulus (CS).
The textbook suggests that people with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) have a more sensitive emotion-processing limbic system than other people do. Based on this information, the function of the _____ may be different among people with PTSD than among other people.
Answer:
limbic system
Explanation:
Which of the following personality disorders has the most disparate gender distribution, which occurs in men with a prevalence rate of about 4.5 percent and in women at only about a 0.8 percent prevalence rate?
The correct answer would be, Antisocial personality disorder.
Antisocial personality disorder occur s in men with a prevalence rate of 4.5 percent and in women at only about 0.8 percent prevalence rate.
Explanation:
Personality Disorder is basically a Mental Disorder. The person with this disorder has an unhealthy and rigid pattern of thinking, behaving and functioning. Some of the common personality disorders are as follows:
Paranoid Personality DisorderSchizoid Personality DisorderAntisocial Personality DisorderHistrionic Personality DisorderBorderline Personality Disorder, etc.Antisocial Personality Disorder has the most disparate gender distribution. This disorder is seen more in men than women. The prevalence rate of this disorder in men is 4.5% where as in women, it is 0.8%.
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The bacteria that causes the bubonic plague is carried by______ Fleas bite rats
Answer:
Xenopsylla cheopis (the rat flea)
Explanation:
Bubonic plague is mainly spread by infected fleas from small animals namely, rats. It is a result of exposure to the body fluids from a dead plague-infected animal. In the bubonic form of plague, the bacteria enter through the skin from a flea bite and travel through the pymphatic system in humans
Answer:
bacteria
Explanation:
cuz
Miranda is physically fit. She has
a. an increased risk of osteoporosis
b. the strength, endurance, and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living
c. a greater need for vitamins and minerals than other women
d. None of tthe above is correct
Answer:
B. The strength, endurance, and flexibility to meet the demands of daily living.
Explanation:
The question states that Miranda is physically fit. Using common sense we can see that she will be strong and capable of meeting the demands of daily living, as that is essentially the definition of being physically fit. There is no evidence to suggest an increased risk of osteoporosis (no family history or explained lack of calcium in the diet), and there is no reason that Miranda would have a greater need for vitamins (no low vitamin levels mentioned) because she's healthy. The question said she is healthy, and the answer is- she's healthy.
what is the "cancer" of mental illness? Explain how twin studies were used to note the differences in the brain between people who have this diagnoses and the co-twins who do not. (What looks different about the brains of the twins where only one had the disease?
Answer:
Cancer is a disease in which abnormal cells divide uncontrollably and destroy body tissue.
Explanation:
People with mental disorders, especially mood problems like clinical depression and bipolar disorder, have a high risk of developing certain cancers at younger ages, including brain and lung cancer.
The difference between the brain of the twin:
The study found that those with schizophrenia, compared with their identical twins, had smaller brain volume, especially in the critical areas involved in thinking, concentration, memory and perception. The study offers ''irrefutable evidence that schizophrenia is a brain disorder''.
Which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood? A Unintentional injuries more than double from early to middle adulthood.B Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.C Falls resulting in bone fractures and death occur at a lower rate than in early adulthood.D Economic disadvantage is a weak predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife.
Answer:
B. Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.
Explanation:
Under the biological approach, one can cite the greater predisposition to the occurrence of serious diseases during middle adulthood. From a social point of view, males tend to behave more risky, favoring aggressive behavior and dangerous driving of vehicles and still consuming alcohol and cigarettes more often than women, for example. As men engage in harmful behavior more often and women have a greater habit of having regular medical appointments, we can agree that men are more vulnerable to more health problems in midlife.
When discussing gender, the focus of attention is always on women, but health indicators have shown that men also require attention and investment, based on specific public health policies and disease prevention.
Economic disadvantage is a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. There is also an increase in disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood.
Explanation:The question asks which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood. According to various studies and statistical data, the most accurate statement is the one that identifies economic disadvantage as a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. This is linked to a number of factors, including access to quality medical care and healthy food, and the stress associated with poverty.
Disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer are seen to increase with age, especially after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood, many men exhibit strong health profiles into middle age, and falls leading to severe injuries may not necessarily occur at a lower rate in comparison to early adulthood.
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__________ is a progressive degenerative disease of the basal nuclei that affects the dopamine-secreting pathways.
Answer:
Parkinson's is a progressive degenerative disease of the basal nuclei that affects the dopamine-secreting pathways.
Explanation:
Parkinson's disease (PD) is a degenerative, progressive disorder that affects nerve cells in deep parts of the brain called the basal ganglia and the substantia nigra. Nerve cells in the substantia nigra produce the neurotransmitter dopamine and are responsible for relaying messages that plan and control body movement.
A friend of yours has a sudden onset memory loss and also doesn't seem to be able to make new memories for a few hours as they keep asking you the same questions repeatedly. What kind of amnesia is your friend suffering from?
Answer:
He is suffering of Transient global amnesia , anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
Explanation:
Transient global amnesia is sudden and temporary loss in the memory. As the people having this problem can not store the new memories and it can not be related with any common neurological problems.
anterograde amnesia is the loss of patient ability to create new memories after the event due to which amnesia occurs which will result in complete inability to recall the recent past event and memories.
Retrograde amnesia is the inability to recall past memories
Tommy consumed a breakfast consisting of yogurt with blueberries, corn grits, and orange juice. Shortly thereafter, Tommy experienced an allergic reaction. This reaction was most likely caused by:a. yogurt.b. corn grits.c. blueberries.d. orange juice.e. margarine in the corn grits.
The yogurt caused his allergic reaction
Answer:
c
Explanation:
because it cant be by anything else and I already took that class.
What is the name for the syndrome that involves an individual having a low level of motivation on intelligence tests based on the belief that the tests are biased and test results are unimportant for success in life?
a. sorting
b. low effort syndrome
c. low self-esteem
d. field-dependent style
Answer:
B. Low-effort Syndrome
Explanation:
Low-effort syndrome is characterized by a refusal to put an effort or work hard to achieve something. People with this syndrome have unusually low levels of motivation, not only on intelligence tests, but in tests overall because they are afraid of the results, which would probably be low due to the lack of effort.
In turn, these people often state that tests are unimportant for life and claim to have a desire of having an 'easy' life. However, all of this is a consequence of their fear of failure.
Sometimes Kianna wants to become a lawyer and focuses her attention on school work. Other times she finds playing with children so fun and spends most of her time as a volunteer at a preschool. Kianna's change of interests is an example of Erikson's_______________.
Answer:
Kianna's change of interests is an example of Erikson's identity vs confusion stage.
Explanation:
The identity vs confusion stage is the 5th stage of Erikson's theory. This stage is during the teen years and is a time of personal exploration that allows the person to construct his or her identity through different experiences. The person learns about what he or she likes and dislikes and thinks about the future. During this process, the teen might be confused at times because he or she is learning about him or herself.
On e theory about the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease suggests that the formatio n of solid waxy proteins in the brain causes the disorder in a process similar to
Answer and Explanation:
Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disease probably caused by the accumulation of beta-amyloid peptide in the brain. AD is the leading cause of dementia in the elderly people. Usually presents with gradual symptoms of loss of cognitive functions (memory, orientation, attention and language) caused by the death of neurons.
Similar to AD, we have Lewy body dementia and Parkinson's disease dementia, which may be variations of the same disease. In this disease, synuclein (a protein in the brain that helps nerve cells to communicate) changes shape (remains "badly folded") and slowly accumulates mainly in the brain, but also in the digestive tract and heart. These abnormal synuclein deposits are called Lewy bodies. Misfolded synuclein in Lewy bodies triggers more misfolded synuclein, resulting in the formation of more Lewy bodies. Brain damage results from the accumulation of Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies also is develop in some people with Alzheimer's disease,
Lance would like to lose two pounds a week. If his present energy intake is 4,200 kcal a day, his energy expenditure does not change, and 1 pound equals 3,500 kcals, how many kilocalories should he consume each day to achieve his goal?
a) 3200
b) 3600
c) 3800
d) 3400
Answer:
a) 3200
Explanation:
Total energy required to lose 2 pounds : 3500 x 2 = 7000
No. of days to lose energy = 7
Total energy required to lose per day : 7000/7 = 1000
So, Lance should take : 4200-1000 = 3200 kcal to lose 2 pounds in a week
Janice recently began menstruating. She has heard from her friends that she should not use tampons because that would make her lose her virginity. What information can you offer Janice?
Using tampons will not make Janice lose her virginity. The only way she can do that is through sex. A tampon can break her hymen which is often misinterpreted as losing virginity. This has a low probability of happening. Janice doesn't need to worry about losing her virginity to a tampon.
An adult client is suspected of having an androgen deficiency and has spoken with his primary care provider about the possibility of treatment with testosterone. The use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what pre existing health problem
Answer:
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
Explanation:
Androgen may be defined as the group of different hormones that play an important role in the development of male traits and reproductive ability of human male.
Testosterone hormone can be used in androgen deficiency. But the individual suffering from BPH cannot be given the hormonal therapy. The testosterone hormone therapy in case of BPH worse the sign and symptoms of BPH. This also increases the complication of lower urinary tract.
Thus, the correct answer is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).
Think about a sport, exercise, or physical activity that you enjoy. What is the activity? Which of the locations you described in part a would be a good place to do your activity? Why is the location a good choice? Explain the pros and cons. You might need to choose a different location that you did not describe above. If so, describe that location here. Explain its pros and cons. (I chose basketball)
Answer: Ballet is my favorite physical activity. The best location for ballet is the ballet studio. The ballet studio is a good choice because it is designed specifically for ballet's requirements. The pros are there are marley floors, ballet barres, mirrors, and air conditioning. The cons are that you are not outside and there is generally not a lot of air flow in ballet studios so there tends to be an odour of some sort.
Hope this helps! :)
Explanation:
Parents of a 20-month-old infant report that he refuses food or eats poorly and that he grimaces when he swallows. He also is irritable and cries a lot. The mother is worried that he ate something inappropriate this morning, because he vomited something that looked like coffee grounds. Which of the following health problems would the care team first suspect?A) Rotavirus infectionB) AppendicitisC) Esophagitis from gastrointestinal refluxD) Hirschsprung disease
Answer:
esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux.
Explanation:
It is an inflammation and as a result it damages tissues of the esophagus. Esophagus is a muscular tube with a role of delivering food from one's mouth to stomach. It is very painful, it makes it difficult to swallow and sometimes there is even pain in the chest. There are many different reasons why it happens, some of them are strong medicaments, allergies and infections.
"The correct answer is C) Esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux.
The symptoms described by the parents suggest that the infant may be suffering from esophagitis due to gastrointestinal reflux. Esophagitis is an inflammation of the esophagus, which can be caused by stomach acid refluxing into the esophagus. The key indicators supporting this diagnosis include:
1. Refusal of food or poor eating: The infant may associate eating with the pain of reflux and subsequent esophagitis, leading to food refusal or poor eating habits.
2. Grimacing when swallowing: This could be a sign of pain due to inflammation in the esophagus.
3. Irritability and crying: These are non-specific symptoms but can be associated with discomfort from esophagitis.
4. Vomiting that looks like coffee grounds: This is a particularly concerning symptom as it may indicate that the infant is vomiting blood that has been partially digested, which can be a sign of esophagitis or another gastrointestinal bleed.
Let's consider the other options:
A) Rotavirus infection: While rotavirus can cause vomiting and irritability, it typically presents with watery diarrhea and fever, which are not mentioned in the scenario.
B) Appendicitis: This is less likely in a 20-month-old infant and usually presents with abdominal pain, which starts around the belly button and moves to the lower right side of the abdomen, often accompanied by fever and a reluctance to move.
D) Hirschsprung disease: This condition is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a segment of the bowel, leading to a functional obstruction. Symptoms usually include delayed passage of meconium in the newborn period, chronic constipation, and failure to thrive. Vomiting coffee-ground-like material is not typically associated with Hirschsprung disease.
Given the symptoms of food refusal, pain with swallowing, irritability, and vomiting of what appears to be coffee grounds, esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux is the most likely diagnosis that the care team would first suspect."
Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets in response to high blood sugar. True or false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Insulin is the peptide hormone that is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas in the blood when the concentration of glucose becomes more than an appropriate level in the blood.
It reduces the extra glucose in the blood by storing it in the form of glycogen in the body. By doing this it helps in maintaining the blood sugar level and protect the body from hyperglycemia.
Alpha cells of the pancreas release another hormone called glucagon which works antagonistic to insulin by raising the blood glucose level. So the given statement is false.
The statement is false; insulin is secreted by beta cells in response to high blood sugar, while alpha cells secrete glucagon in response to low blood sugar.
Explanation:The statement that insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets in response to high blood sugar is false. Insulin is in fact secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets, or the islets of Langerhans. When blood glucose levels rise, it is the beta cells that release insulin to lower the blood glucose by facilitating its uptake by the body's cells. Conversely, the alpha cells produce the hormone glucagon, which is released when blood glucose levels are low, increasing blood glucose by promoting the break down of glycogen in the liver and gluconeogenesis.
After suffering a brain injury in a motorcycle accident, Arotza cannot form new memories. He can, however, remember events before the accident. Arotza's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates____________.A. retroactive interferenceB. the misinformation effectC. amnesiaD. déjà vu
Answer:
amnesia
Explanation:
Amnesia because when there is sudden impact, either part of your brain is damaged, or is overworked so you start to forget.
Arotza's condition, where he cannot form new memories after a brain injury but can remember past events, is indicative of anterograde amnesia. Anterograde amnesia is an aftermath of brain trauma affecting the hippocampus, preventing the transition of information from short-term to long-term memory.
Explanation:Arotza's condition exemplifies anterograde amnesia. This is a type of amnesia where a person is unable to form new memories following an event that caused brain damage, such as a motorcycle accident. However, previous memories, especially long-term ones that were formed before the event, remain intact. In context with Arotza's symptoms, he can recall events that occurred prior to his accident, but cannot remember new information.
Anterograde amnesia generally results from brain trauma that impacts the hippocampus, which hampers the ability to transfer information from short-term to long-term memory, thus, preventing the consolidation of memories. Despite the inability to form new episodic or semantic memories, those suffering from anterograde amnesia often can still develop new procedural memories.
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The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:_________
A. alcohol intoxication.
B. possible spinal injury.
C. cold-water immersion.
D. an air embolism.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A 34-year-old woman presents with an abrupt onset of shaking chills, moderate to high fever, and a constant ache in her lower back. She is also experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and a feeling of urgency. Her partner states that she has been very tired the last few days and that she looked like she may have the flu. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Acute pyelonephritis
Explanation:
Acute pyelonephritis is a kidney parenchyma bacterial infection which can endanger the kidney and/or life and quite often progresses to scarring of the kidney.
The bacteria have typically risen from the lower urinary tract in these instances, but can also enter the kidney through the bloodstream.
Acute pyelonephritis symptoms usually develop quickly over a couple of hours or a day. It might cause increased fever, urinary pain and abdominal pain that exudes to the back along the side.
A 2-week-old female is brought to the office for a well child visit. The physical examination is completely normal except for a clunking sensation and feeling of movement when adducting the hip and applying posterior pressure. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step? A. Referral for orthopedic consultation
B. Reassurance that the problem resolves spontaneously in 90% of cases, and follow-up in 2 weeks
C. Triple diapering and follow-up in 2 weeks
D. A radiograph of the pelvis
Answer:
Referral for orthopedic consultation
Explanation:
Answer:
A. Referral for orthopedic consultation
Explanation:
Developmental dysplasia of the hip: subluxation and dislocation of the newborn hip
Common in : firstborns, females, breech presentations, oligohydramnios and patients with a family history of developmental dysplasia
Sara has intense problems with leaving her house. She often refuses to do so, and in cases when she will go out, she simply must be by her mother's side at all times. This goes as far as requiring her mother to be in physical contact with Sara (holding hands, clinging to her mother's clothing) whenever they go shopping. Sara also refuses to go to a peer's house for a play date unless her mother stays the whole time and is never more than one room away. Sara may be diagnosed with:
a. generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)b. oppositional-defiant disorderc. specific phobiad. separation anxiety disorder
Answer:separation anxiety disorder
Explanation:
A client is admitted for an exacerbation of emphysema. The client has a fever, chills, and difficulty breathing on exertion. What is the priority nursing action based on the client's history and present status?
1. Checking for capillary refill
2. Encouraging increased fluid intake
3. Suctioning secretions from the airway
4. Administering a high concentration of oxygen
A nurse is providing health teaching to a group of adolescent girls. The focus is urinary tract infections . One of the girls tells the nurse that she wants to know what is cystitis. Which statement by the nurse is the most appropriate response?
Answer:
Inflammation is where part of your body becomes irritated, red, or swollen.
Explanation:
Virtue ethics is often applied to all fields of healthcare. All professionals involved in healthcare are expected to engage in behaviors that demonstrate excellence and virtue in their actions. This definition applies to which ethical term?
Answer:
This definition applies to the ethical term of responsibility.
Explanation:
Responsibility has to do with the accountability of a certain person performing a given action, following certain duties and moral codes.
Final answer:
The ethical term related to the behaviors expected of healthcare professionals that demonstrate excellence and virtue is virtue ethics. This approach emphasizes character development and well-being, with Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics influential in its foundation.
Explanation:
The ethical term that applies to the definition provided, where healthcare professionals are expected to engage in behaviors that demonstrate excellence and virtue in their actions, is virtue ethics. Virtue ethics is a philosophical approach that focuses on cultivating good character traits or dispositions, emphasizing personal excellence and well-being. This moral theory advocates for individuals to develop virtues through self-reflection and aimed self-improvement, which aligns with the expected standards in healthcare for demonstrating excellent character and judgment in the care of patients. Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics plays a significant role in this philosophical approach by suggesting that virtues represent a mean between extremes, which contributes to individual and societal well-being. In healthcare, virtues such as compassion, empathy, and bravery are crucial for ethical medical practice and patient care.