The possibles is knowing the Medical history of the family which can
tell you what hereditary diseases the child boy/girl might be strangely have which could tell the doctors what to look for and how to solve the problem if it can be impossible to be fixed, it will also prepare the parents for what their expectations are for the their child and not be so surprised about the whole situation.
conmon disorders=heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, certain cancers and more.. other..
~Have a nice day~
the length of a vector arrow represents its ___
Answer:
Magnitude
Explanation:
The length of a vector arrow represents its magnitude.
Answer:
Magnitude
Explanation:
What might be the effect on portland's climate if the cascade range was to the west rather than to the east of portland? Be sure to consider the prevailing pattern of wind in the united states and the concept of a rain shadow in your answer.
The mountain ranges have a very big influence on the climate, especially if they are larger mountain ranges, such as the Cascades. If the Cascades were west of Portland, instead of being on the east as they are, than Portland would have had significantly changed climate. By having the Cascades on the west, the rainfall would have fallen on their western side, windward side, as that would be the side facing the ocean. The eastern side of the mountains, where Portland would be located in this scenario, would be arid or semi-arid, as it will be in a rain-shadow. The rainfall will be stopped by the mountain, so Portland would have predominantly received dry winds, and very little precipitation. The continental influence would be dominant, so the summers would be dry and hot because of the warm and dry air masses coming from south, while the winters dry and cold because of the cold air masses coming from north..
Early scientists used morphological characteristics to create a phylogeny of animals, but recently, DNA sequence data have helped in the revision of phylogenies of taxa within the larger groups (i.e., bilaterians, sponges, cnidarians). Why are morphological characteristics like “fate of the blastopore” or “body symmetry” relatively good at predicting larger-scale branching patterns on phylogenies?
Answer: the development of these features is controlled genetically, therefore similarities in DNA sequence would be expected in more closely related data.
Explanation:
Phylogenies or Phylogenesis is the evolution of a genetically related group of organisms as being different from the development of the individual organism.
What should be changed to make the following sentence true? "A theta wave is a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that may in some cases occur in response to environmental stimuli."
Answer:
The words "theta wave" should be changed to the phrase "K-complex."
Explanation:
Complex K is a type of where related to slow wave sleep. The k complex is a group of high amplitude waves that can occur spontaneously or relate to awakening relationships. That is, the K Complex is a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that can, in some cases, occur in response to environmental stimuli.
On the other hand, Wave Theta is the state of mind where it is believed that you can create everything and change reality instantly.
Final answer:
The sentence should replace "very high amplitude" with "higher amplitude" to accurately describe theta waves, and note that the 'very high amplitude' pattern is associated with K-complexes during stage 2 sleep.
Explanation:
To make the sentence true, the phrase "very high amplitude" should be replaced with "higher amplitude" when referring to theta waves. Theta waves are characterized by even lower frequency (4-7 Hz) and higher amplitude brain waves as compared to alpha waves, but they are not the 'very high amplitude' pattern of brain activity. This higher amplitude wave occurs during the early stages of sleep and can be indicative of a transition from wakefulness to sleep.
It's also important to correct the association of a 'very high amplitude pattern of brain activity' which describes a K-complex, not a theta wave. A K-complex is indeed a very high amplitude pattern of brain activity that may occur in response to environmental stimuli, but it is typically associated with stage 2 sleep, not theta waves.
Susannah has an intense fear of flying and endures flights with extreme distress. Although she knows her fear is irrational, it is overwhelming and uncontrollable. Susannah most likely suffers from:
Answer:
Aerophobia
Explanation:
A phobia is an irrational fear of something. It can persist even when we know that we will not be harmed.
Aerophobia is the fear of flying or being on a flight (aeroplanes, helicopters, etc.). Experiencing this fear will often result in extreme anxiety and discomfort. Some doctors prescribe anti-anxiety medication for people who have aerophobia and need to take a flight.
If each breeding pair of elephants produces 6 offspring during a 90-year life span, in 750 years, a single pair of elephants will have given rise to a population of 19 million elephants. Yet elephants have not overrun the planet. WHY?
Answer:
I can think of several reasons
Explanation:
Not all the offspring will survive until they are old enough to propagate Disease and accidents will kill some mature individuals before they can produce six offspring Predators will kill the weak and infirm individuals Poachers will kill every elephant they can find for their valuable ivory The land has a limited carrying capacity. Each area has a limited amount of resources available, so the population will level off as it approaches this limit.Elephants have not overrun the planet due to limits on populations such as environmental carrying capacity, disease, predation, and human impacts like poaching and habitat loss. Conservation efforts and legal protections help manage these populations. The balance of these factors maintains elephant numbers at sustainable levels.
The reason elephants have not overrun the planet despite their theoretical reproductive potential relates to the concept of limits on populations. Each breeding pair of elephants can indeed produce a significant number of offspring over their lifespan. However, this potential growth is constrained by several factors such as environmental carrying capacity, availability of resources, disease, predation, and human factors like poaching and habitat destruction. These forces result in a steady state where the elephant population remains roughly constant or even declines. Factors such as the overhunting of Northern Elephant Seals and the use of legal protection measures through CITES to stop the sale of ivory illustrate how human activities can deeply impact elephant populations. The fluctuation of elephant numbers in various regions of Africa also reflects the balance between the forces of human impact, natural constraints, and conservation efforts. Ultimately, while the reproductive potential of elephants is high, real-world constraints lead to population sizes that are sustainable within their ecosystems. The idea of superfecundity explains the capacity of organisms to reproduce in large numbers, but it is the balance of various factors that prevent the exponential growth to the point of planetary overpopulation.
A dietitian asks a patient about the food that the patient eats and makes the table below to summarize the results.
Based on the table, what advice do you think that the dietician will give the patient?
A) The patient should increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) and decrease the amount of oils in his or her diet.
B) The patient should decrease the amount of lean meats (proteins) and increase the amount of oils in his or her diet.
C) The patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of oils in his or her diet.
D) The patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) in his or her diet.
Answer:
Patient should decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats in his or her diet.
Explanation:
As we can see in patient's diet chart that he is consuming carbohydrates in a quantity much more than the required by his body. On the other hand, the consumption of lipids and proteins in his body is lower than the required amount. There is an interesting fact about lean meat that it is both a good source of lipids and proteins thats why the person needs to decrease pasta and rice in his diet and increase lean meat so that his all three goals are fulfilled.
Hope it helps!
According to the diet chart, the advice that dietician will give the patient is to decrease the amount of rice and pasta and increase the amount of lean meats (proteins) in his or her diet. Thus, the correct option is D.
Who is Dietician?A dietician may be characterized as an individual whose assignment is to give people guidance and direction about the category of food they should eat depending on their situation.
After analyzing the diet chart of the patient, it must be clear that the patient takes more carbohydrates as compared to the required limit, while less protein and lipids as compared to the required limit.
To satisfy this need for a diet chart, the patient should require to decrease the intake of carbohydrate source foods, and increase the intake of protein and lipids food which extremely gets from lean meat.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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The genetic code works only because each codon is read in a specific manner that results in the correct amino acid being placed in that particular spot. What physically places each amino acid by matching up the correct codon?
Answer:
tRNA
Explanation:
tRNA goes into the cytoplasm attaching to anticodons and bringing them back to the ribosomal unit where it attaches to the mRNA.
Which nervous system division is responsible for the integration of sensory information?
What information must be considered to determine whether a specific molecule will pass through a biological membrane?
Answer:
Size, polarity, and direction of concentration gradient
Explanation:
A biological membrane is a semipermeable lipid bilayer.
Size
Only small, nonpolar molecules can move through the lipid bilayer. Oxygen, and carbon dioxide are examples. Even though they are polar, water and ethanol are also small enough to pass through the membrane
Polarity
Smaller lipids (nonpolar) can also pass through the membrane. Polar molecules (like glucose and amino acids) and ions (like Na⁺ and K⁺) cannot pass through without assistance.
Concentration gradient
Small molecules diffuse spontaneously from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Such movement is called passive transport.
Special channels allow polar glucose and amino acids to diffuse through the membrane while avoiding the lipid bilayer. This is facilitated diffusion.
Ions and molecules that must be moved against a concentration gradient must go through special channels using energy from ATP. This is active transport.
An ice age is a period in which large areas of Earth are covered in ice. Throughout its history, Earth has experienced at least five such ice ages. Ice is white in color, so it reflects most of the sunlight it receives. Imagine that an ice age were to happen again on Earth. Which statement best explains how Earth’s temperature would be affected?
Answer:
the albedo will increase and the temperatures will drop
Explanation:
If an ice age occurs, the Earth will cool off. The reason for this will be the increased albedo. The ice has high albedo, thus it is reflecting big portion of the sunlight instead of absorbing it. Because of the much lower absorption of sunlight, the Earth will start to cool off, eventually resulting in several degrees drop of the average temperatures around the whole planet. Apart from the drop in temperature, the Earth will also be drier, with decreased amounts of precipitation because there will be less evaporation from the water bodies, which will also be reduced in size because parts of them will be frozen.
You are served dessert at a restaurant. You want to know what % of the calories in the dessert are from fat. The menu states that there are 10 grams of fat, 30 grams of carbohydrates and 4 grams of protein in the dessert. You know that the number of calories per gram is roughly the same for both protein and carbohydrates. What percentage of calories comes from fat for your dessert?
Final answer:
To calculate the percentage of calories from fat in the dessert, divide the calories from fat by the total calories in the dessert and multiply by 100. Approximately 39.34% of the calories in the dessert come from fat.
Explanation:
To calculate the percentage of calories that come from fat, we need to know the number of calories in each macronutrient. Since the menu states that there are 10 grams of fat, we can use the fact that one gram of fat contains nine calories. So, the total calories from fat would be 10 grams x 9 calories/gram = 90 calories.
Next, we need to calculate the total calories in the dessert. Since the menu also states that there are 30 grams of carbohydrates and 4 grams of protein, and we know that both carbohydrates and protein have roughly four calories per gram, we can calculate the total calories from these macronutrients. The total calories from carbohydrates would be 30 grams x 4 calories/gram = 120 calories, and the total calories from protein would be 4 grams x 4 calories/gram = 16 calories.
To calculate the percentage of calories that come from fat, we can divide the calories from fat by the total calories in the dessert, and then multiply by 100. So, the percentage of calories from fat would be (90 calories / (90 calories + 120 calories + 16 calories)) x 100 = 39.34%. Therefore, approximately 39.34% of the calories in the dessert come from fat.
How does the relationship between flying dragons and trees compare to that of iguanas and trees?
A) Flying dragons rely on trees for a food source, but not for shelter while iguanas rely on trees for both food and shelter.
B) Flying dragons live exclusively in trees except to lay eggs, while iguanas will venture to the ground more frequently.
C) Flying dragons use trees for shelter, but not for food, while iguanas rely on trees for food but not for shelter.
D) Flying dragons and iguanas have an identical relationship with trees.
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Iguana and flying dragons are both reptiles. Iguana is a herbivorous lizard belongs to the order squamata. Flying dragons are known as gliding lizrds and belong to the genus Draco.
Iguana can easily be identified by their droopy skin, stocky stature and spines on their necks, backs, heads and tails. Iguanas may venture to the ground. Flying dragons has reduced tail, throat sacs color is different in males and females. Flying dragons used to live on trees, feed on the arboreal ants and will frequently venture in the ground.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
B. Flying dragons live exclusively in trees except to lay eggs, while iguanas will venture to the ground more frequently.
Explanation:
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What makes amino acids different from each other?
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Hydrogen atom
Side chain
Answer:
Side chain
Explanation:
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found Select one: a. on the outer surface of the epiphyses. b. inside the medullary cavity. c. on the outer surface of the diaphysis. d. in the spaces of the spongy bone.
Answer:
a. on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
Explanation:
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses.
The articular cartilage is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses of a long bone. It is notable that these areas don't have periosteum, as they function to form joints with other bones. These cartilage layers help reduce friction and act as shock absorbers during joint movement.
Explanation:In understanding the location of the articular cartilage of a long bone, it's important to know the structure of such a bone. A typical long bone is made up of two main parts - the diaphysis, or the shaft, and the epiphyses, being the wider sections at each end of the bone. The latter are filled with spongy bone and red marrow.
The articular cartilage functions in reducing friction in joints and acts as a shock absorber. According to the provided information, the articular cartilage in long bones is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses, particularly in regions where these epiphyses form joints with other bones. It's notable that these areas are an exception to the places covered by another type of tissue called periosteum, which surrounds the outer surface of the bone. So, the correct answer should be (a).
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For several nights in a row, a sleep researcher wakes you up whenever you show signs of entering REM sleep. On the first night that you are allowed to sleep uninterrupted, you will most likely experience:
Answer:
The correct answer is REM rebound.
Explanation:
REM rebound refers to the phenomenon where the frequency of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep increases after prior instances of REM sleep deprivation.
REM sleep refers to one of the five stages of sleep we experience during the period we sleep at night. REM is an important state of sleep, where dreaming occurs more frequently, our muscles deeply, and memories and events are consolidated most effectively. Adequate REM sleep is highly important for feeling well rested and for optimal cognitive functioning. Deprivation of REM sleep results in more grogginess, fatigue, poorer memory and negative mood.
In this instance, if a sleep researcher wakes you up whenever you show signs of entering REM sleep several nights in a row, on the first night that you are allowed to sleep uninterrupted, you will most likely experience REM rebound so that you can make up for the lost REM sleep, and thus you will experience this kind of sleep more frequently and deeply.
After several nights of being woken up to prevent REM sleep, a person will most likely experience REM rebound when allowed to sleep uninterruptedly, resulting in increased amounts and potentially longer durations of REM sleep to compensate for the deprivation.
The subject of a sleep researcher waking someone up to prevent them from entering REM sleep involves the study of sleep patterns and the effects of sleep deprivation on the human body, specifically the consequences of disrupting REM sleep. After several nights of being prevented from entering REM sleep, the most likely outcome when one is allowed to sleep uninterrupted is a phenomenon known as REM rebound. During REM rebound, an individual will experience increased amounts of REM sleep to make up for the deprivation. REM sleep is a critical stage of sleep where dreams are most likely to occur, and the brain sees increased activity compared to other stages. If REM sleep is suppressed over several nights, the body will often compensate by increasing the duration of REM periods once uninterrupted sleep resumes. This compensation can lead to longer and more frequent REM stages, resulting in vivid and frequent dreaming, and changes in the overall sleep patterns. It is a part of a sleep cycle that, along with non-REM sleep, composes the full sleep experience crucial for optimal health and functioning.
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The chart indicates the tasks of three individuals working in the Agriculture, Food, and Natural Resources career cluster.
Which best describes the career pathways of each worker?
A.Letitia works in Animal Systems, Jared works in Food Products and Processing, and Duane works in Natural Resource Systems
B.Letitia works in Animal Systems, Jared works in Agribusiness, and Duane works in Environmental Service Systems
C.Letitia works in Natural Resource Systems, Jared works in Agribusiness, and Duane works in Plant Systems
D.Letitia works in Environmental Service Systems, Jared works in Plant Systems, and Duane works in Food Products and Processing
Answer:
Lititia works in animal systems, Jared works in agribusiness, and Duane works in Environmental Service Systems .-B.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option B.
Explanation:
In the given question, Letitia works with horses mainly horse riding.Since he is working with an animal he is considered to work in animal system.
Another person Jared work of supplying the food to the market and add the information in the computer which is considered a work of dealing with food products and processing it to the market.
Duane works in the role of a scientist by analyzing the soil and water samples. Since he is working with natural system, the work is considered of Natural Resource Systems.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
A microbiologist has isolated a bacterium from his face and wishes to determine whether it might be a member of the normal microbiota. Which of the following would NOT be evidence for such a conclusion? The bacterium is extremely salt tolerant. The bacterium is an acidophile. The bacterium is resistant to antibodies. The bacterium produces a number of virulence factors.
Answer:
The bacterium produces a number of virulence factors
Explanation:
The skin is inhabited by a heterogeneous group of bacteria, fungi and viruses, all of them form the skin microbiota. The skin surface varies among our bodies sites but has two main characteristics: is highly salty and acidic. For this reason, bacteria that live in our skin is salt resistant and acidophile (can survive in acidic conditions), also skin microbiota bacteria must be resistant to the host immune system (antibodies) if not, the immune system kills the bacteria.
The term virulence factor refers to the abilities that have the bacteria to enter the host, persist, and initiate an infection. All the potentially harmful bacteria carry virulence factors and these bacteria can be found in diverse environments, for this reason, this is not evidence to be part of the skin microbiota.
Evidence of being part of normal microbiota would not likely be production of a number of virulence factors. While normal microbiota can have some level of salt tolerance or be resistant to antibodies, producing virulence factors is typically associated with causing disease or infection.
Explanation:To determine if a bacterium is part of the normal microbiota on a human's face, one would EXPECT the bacterium to demonstrate some level of salt tolerance or be resistant to antibodies, as we see with the naturally occurring species of Staphylococcus aureus residing on human skin. However, the production of a number of virulence factors would NOT provide evidence of being a member of normal microbiota. Virulence factors refer to substances or characteristics like toxins or enzymes that enable a microorganism to establish itself within a host, cause damage, or evade the immune system. Usually, normal microbiota do not produce such factors; if they did, it would likely cause disease or infection, as they do in Streptococcus or Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Also, being an acidophile, meaning it thrives in highly acidic conditions, might not be directly relevant because while some skin bacteria could be mildly acidophiles, the skin’s pH is generally neutral to slightly acidic (pH 5.5), not highly acidic.
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Karri is getting ready to take her psychology final exam. She studied three hours ago. The names, terms, and information that she will need to retrieve while taking the test are located in her _________ memory.
Answer:
Long term memory
Explanation:
As we study, information gets stored in the short term memory, and then moves to our long term memory as we repeat the information.
There are three phases/stages of memory storage:
Sensory memory is very short term memory and the information usually disappears/ degrades fairly quickly (usually within half a second)Short term memory holds a small amount of information (approximately 7 items) and holds that information for a short period of time (about 1 minute)Long term memory holds information for long periods of time (sometimes indefinitely). When we study, the information is often transferred to long term memory.The names and information that she will need to retrieve while taking the test are located in her long term memory.
What is Long term memory?
This type of memory involves storing information for an extended period of time.
The information can be retrieved anytime the individual wants to use it which os why long term memory is the most appropriate choice.
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You are palpating bilateral pedal pulses and cannot feel one of the pulses. The feet are equally warm. You find that both great toes are pink, with a capillary refill within 2 seconds. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Immediate emergency surgery is indicated.
(B) Pedal pulses are not always palpable, especially in a fat or edematous ankle.
(C) Unilateral pulses are never normal.
(D) Venogram studies will be needed.
Answer: the correct answer is (B) Pedal pulses are not always palpable, especially in a fat or edematous ankle.
Explanation: It is difficult to assess pulsation in a fat or edematous anckle. If there is a lot of subcutaneous fat, you will need to push firmly to look for the right vessel.
The slightly movable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium is called
Answer:
The correct answer will be- sacroiliac joint
Explanation:
The sacroiliac joint is a type of joint which joins the sacrum bone (support the spine) to the ilium bone (support the sacrum on both sides).
These bones are held together by a collection of strong ligaments which can support the weight of the upper body. The joints contain irregular depressions and elevations which interlock the two bones.
Thus, the sacroiliac joint is the correct answer.
Which school of psychology would agree with the statement that "psychology should stress the study of how behavior and mental processes function to allow people and animals to adapt to their environments"?
The school of psychology called Functionalism agrees with the focus on studying behavior and mental processes as functions aiding adaptation to the environment, influenced by Darwin's theory of evolution.
The school of psychology that would agree with the statement that "psychology should stress the study of how behavior and mental processes function to allow people and animals to adapt to their environments" is known as Functionalism. This school was established by influential figures such as William James, John Dewey, and Charles Sanders Peirce, who embraced Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. They believed that just as physical characteristics evolved to aid in survival and function, so too did psychological characteristics. Functionalists focused on how mental activities help an organism adapt within its environment and saw thinking as instrumental to behavior.
What field of work was shared by the parents of the man with the middle name gamaliel
Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele. If a woman and her husband are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
Answer:
3/8
Explanation:
Given that both the parents are carrier for phenylketonuria, the genotype of both parent is "Aa".
Probability of getting phenotypically healthy child = Aa x Aa = 3/4 Healthy (1/2 AA and 1/2 Aa) : 1/4 affected (aa).
Probability of getting a girl child = XY x XX = 1/2 girl (XX) : 1/2 boy (XY).
Hence, probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl = 3/4 healthy x 1/2 girl = 3/8 healthy girl child.
The probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl is 37.5%. This is calculated using a Punnett square to determine that 75% of children would be phenotypically normal, half of which would be female.
Explanation:Phenylketonuria, or PKU, is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning that it's caused by two copies of an abnormal gene - one inherited from each parent. To illustrate this, we use a Punnett square which is a tool to predict the probability of certain genetic outcomes. If both parents are carriers (also called heterozygotes), they each have one affected (p) and one normal (N) allele. The Punnett square would be set up as follows:
Mother (carrier): NpFather (carrier): Np
If we cross these, we get the following potential outcomes (NN, Np, pN, pp), each with a 1/4 chance.
However, for this question, we are focused on the child being a phenotypically normal girl. Only the combinations with at least one normal allele (NN, Np, pN) will be phenotypically normal, occurring 75% of the time. Half of these cases will be female based on the typical 50/50 split of gender.
Therefore, the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal female is
75% (phenotypically normal) * 50% (female) = 37.5%.
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A student finishes an experiment involving several bacteria which are highly pathologic in humans. She wishes to dispose of the agar plates and micropipette tips she used. Which of the following procedures should she carry out?
Answer: Place all materials in a biohazard bag and autoclave the bag.
Explanation:
The most effective procedure for sterilizing used laboratory materials is using an autoclave and should be the standard technique followed here. And autoclave takes the materials to a temperature over 120 °C and pressure over 2 atm, which is enough to kill almost anything.
What molecule is associated with plant cell walls
Answer:
cellulose
Plant cell walls are primarily made of cellulose, which is the most abundant macromolecule on Earth.
Answer:
Cellulose
Explanation:
Lymphocytes responsible for the cell mediated immune response are the (BLANK) cells.
Answer:
White
Explanation:
Lymphocytes responsible for the cell mediated immune response are the white cells.
Which of the following is not a defining characteristic of plants?
A. Plants have cell walls
B. Plants contain chloroplasts for photosynthesis
C. Plants are eukaryotic
D. Plants are prokaryotic
Answer:D. Plants are prokaryotic
Explanation:
Plants are prokaryotic. -is not a defining characteristic of plants.
Plants are prokaryotic is not defining characteristic of plants. Thus, the correct option is D.
How plants are classified?Plants are multicellular eukaryotic organisms that are classified under the kingdom of Plantae.
Plants have some defining characteristics that include they have a cell wall that is made up of cellulose, contains chloroplasts for photosynthesis, etc.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is D.
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Which part of the brain processes inputs received from the cerebral motor cortex
Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is made up of two large cortical areas: the motor cortex and the prefrontal cortex. The motor cortex is located in the region of the pre-central gyrus, between the central sulcus and the pre-central sulcus. The primary motor cortex has the function of voluntary motion control while the supplementary motor cortex has the function of planning the movements of the limbs and eye. The cerebellum connections with various regions of the central nervous system have long been known and explain the involvement of this organ in multiple brain functions. It has been known for several decades that the cerebellum plays an essential role in motor coordination, verbal articulation, and control of eye movements, while also participating in the control balance and autonomic functions.
Imagine that part of a population of flies is blown from the California coast to an offshore island. The island flies have no contact with the mainland flies for 10,000 years. Then an earthquake rearranges the landscape and the island is rejoined to the mainland. The former island flies can now mingle freely with the mainland flies. If attempts at mating between flies from the two groups are successful and the resulting baby flies grow up strong and healthy and have offspring of their own, you could conclude that _________.
A.over the past 10,000 years, a single species had split into two speciesB.over the past 10,000 years, effective isolating mechanisms had evolvedC.over the past 10,000 years, no speciation occurred in these fliesD.there is insufficient information available to determine how many species of flies are now presentE.flies will mate no matter what
Answer:
The correct answer is C. over the past 10,000 years, no speciation ocurred in these flies.
Explanation:
If these flies can mate means that they are the same species.