Answer:
The correct answer is c) deciduous forest
Explanation:
Deciduous forest is the forest that is dominated by deciduous trees that shed their leaves annually. These forests are found in temperate climates having moderate temperature. They are found in eastern Canada and United States, Europe, China, and Japan.
In deciduous forest, precipitation is moderate and quite constant overall which ranges between 75-150 cm. The soil in deciduous forest is nutrient-rich as the decomposition of fallen leaves release all the nutrients into the soil. So the correct answer is c) deciduous forest.
Excess acetyl CoA that accumulates during fat breakdown is modified in the liver by which of the following pathways? Excess acetyl CoA that accumulates during fat breakdown is modified in the liver by which of the following pathways? ketogenesis lipolysis lipogenesis beta oxidation
Answer:
Ketogenesis
Explanation:
As acetyl CoA accumulates in liver cells, the process called ketogenesis begins. It includes condensation of two molecules of acetyl CoA into acetoacetic acid. This reaction releases a large amount of CoA which cannot diffuse out of cells. Some acetoacetic acid is converted into beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone. The acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone are collectively known as ketone bodies and the process of their formation is called ketogenesis.
How do sulfonylureas and meglitinides help to lower blood glucose levels?
A) Promoting beta cell secretion of insulin
B) Decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell
C) Increasing glucose formation from liver glycogen
D) Decreasing deamination of protein
Answer:
The correct answer is B decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell.
Explanation:
Sulfonylureas and meglitidines are used for the treatment of diabetes.These drugs exerts their action by decreasing the insulin sensitivity of the receptor cell.
As a result the secreted insulin from beta cells of pancreas can easily binds to the insulin receptor in the target cell.The binding of insulin to the receptor helps in the activation of receptor.
The activated receptor then further activates various enzymes that helps in the utilization of glucose by various body cells there by the decreasing the plasma glucose level.
A biologist has been studying two populations of trout in Montana for the last 25 years, when the two populations were established from one common population. In the southern population, the fish now have a slightly different mouth shape. But the northern population hasn't changed from the original type. The new shape works well in catching the type of prey common in the habitat of the southern population. Which is the best explanation for the gene differences in the two populations?
Answer:
Positive natural selection.
Explanation:
The positive natural selection is a type of natural selection that increases the frequency of an allele or trait when it is advantageous for the population. What happened in the example is that the mouth with the slight change in morphology (trait) was more advantageous for the population in the south in relation to the ancestral morphology (still preserved in the population in the north), and therefore its frequency increased. This, in turn, is due to the fact that the food (prey) is not the same in the two habitats (north and south). The specific prey in the south, caused the new morphology to be selected, (increasing the frequency of individuals with the new mouth), becasue probably that trait allows the trouts in the south to hunt more effectively.
If the following events are arranged in the order in which they occur for an animal hiding and holding still in response to seeing a predator, which is the fourth event in the series?
A) information processing in the CNS
B) signaling by an efferent PNS neuron
C) activation of a sensory receptor
Answer: C A B
C) activation of a sensory receptor
A) information processing in the CNS
B) signaling by an efferent PNS neuron
SYNAPSE AT THE EFFECTORS for refection action.
Explanation:
the arrival of the action potential at the effector initiate contraction of muscles and secretion by glands in response to stimulus of sighting a predator.
this involves the flow of action potential from the presynaptic neuron to the synaptic cleft where neurotransmitters, (from calcium ions fusion to the membranes) ,binds with the receptors on the muscles and post synaptic neuron to imitate synaptic reaction for action potential
this brings response in animal to run and hold still at the sight of the predator.
Final answer:
The fourth event in the neural response sequence when an animal detects a predator is the coordination of muscle movements, which follows the activation of sensory receptors, information processing in the CNS, and signaling by efferent PNS neurons.
Explanation:
Understanding the Sequence of Neural Processing in Animals
When an animal detects a predator, a series of events are triggered within its nervous system to produce a response. This sequence is as follows:
Activation of a sensory receptor.Information processing in the CNS (Central Nervous System).Signaling by an efferent PNS (Peripheral Nervous System) neuron.Coordination of muscle movements to respond appropriately.Therefore, the fourth event in the sequence when an animal hides and holds still in response to seeing a predator is the coordination of muscle movements. This involves integrating numerous signals and processing visual information to decide the most appropriate action.
In bacteria, the antibiotic erythromycin prevents ribosomes from functioning. The MOST likely reason that bacteria die from treatment with erythromycin is because the antibiotic____________
Answer:
inhibits translation
Explanation:
Bacteriostatic macrolide antibiotic produced by Streptomyces erythreus. Erythromycin A is considered its main active component. In sensitive organisms, it inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunits. This binding process that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity and interferes with the translocation of amino acids during translation and protein assembly.
The bacteriostatic effect consists in producing the inhibition of bacterial growth; Meanwhile, immunogenesis is expected to provide the necessary defensive elements for disease control. Therefore, these antimicrobials should not be indicated to the immunocompromised patient. They act in the stationary phase of bacterial growth.
Some antibiotics have a bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect depending on whether the drug acts in vivo or in vitro, and depending on the dose administered. For example, Amphotericin B, has fungistatic effect in vivo and fungicide in vitro; Streptomycin and erythromycin have bactericidal effect when administered at high doses and bacteriostatic effect if administered at low doses.
Gender Dysphoria is:
A. A form of homophobia
B. A form of sexual dysfunction and paraphilia
C. A condition where transgender people choose to alter their bodies
D. A condition of people whose gender at birth is contrary to the one they identify with
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. A condition of people whose gender at birth is contrary to the one they identify with.
Explanation:
Gender dysphoria is a type of disorder where a person does not feel comfortable with the physical sex that was assigned at birth, but feels that it belongs to the opposite gender.
This type of disorder generates a significant clinical discomfort or a feeling of not fitting socially.
Gender dysphoria began being treated as a psychiatric illness, although this was ruled out by WHO. After being cataloged in the category of sexual disorders, it was recategorized and it started to have its own category, which today is known as gender dysphoria, where it is established that it is not a mental illness itself but that it is a feeling of clinical discomfort in As for the condition of gender.
Currently, it is still considered a disorder, and not a disease, although there are many groups that require it to stop being treated as such, although they do not have medical evidence to support this request.
A radiographer performs an abdomen examination with a mobile digital radiography (DR) system. In order to reduce the likelihood of a repeat exposure, he decides to increase the technical factors slightly more than necessary. Which term refers to this undesirable practice?A. Maximum permissible dose.
B. Technique creep.
C. Reciprocity.
D. Dose creep.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. dose creep.
Explanation:
Dose creep is a practice when an individual technologist like radiographer is unwittingly lured into not modifying exposures as much as with screen film, by not altering causal factors in between AP view when are taken consecutively.
Thus, the correct answers are option D. dose creep.
The correct term referring to the undesirable practice of increasing the technical factors slightly more than necessary is B. Technique creep.
Technique creep is a term used to describe the gradual increase in exposure factors beyond what is necessary for producing a diagnostic quality image. This practice can lead to an increase in patient dose without a corresponding improvement in image quality. It often occurs when radiographers increase technical factors as a precaution to avoid having to repeat an exposure, which can be seen as a way to ensure image quality. However, this is not a recommended practice as it goes against the principle of ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable), which aims to minimize radiation dose to patients while maintaining the require image quality.
Let's consider the other options for clarity:
A. Maximum permissible dose refers to the highest dose of radiation that a person is allowed to receive under regulatory guidelines. It is not related to the practice of incrementally increasing technical factors.
C. Reciprocity in radiography refers to the relationship between the intensity of the x-ray beam and the exposure time. It is a principle that guides the adjustment of exposure parameters to achieve consistent image density when changing from one set of exposure factors to another.
D. Dose creep is a term that is sometimes used interchangeably with technique creep, but it more specifically refers to the gradual increase in radiation dose over time due to changes in technology, practices, or protocols. It is a broader term that encompasses technique creep but is not the most precise term for the scenario described in the question.
Therefore, the most accurate term for the described practice of increasing technical factors more than necessary to reduce the likelihood of a repeat exposure is B. Technique creep.
A new food product is being distributed by a company. Researchers determine that the food product contains only carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. Which claim is best supported by the composition of the food product?
Answer:
This new food is a carbohydrate
Explanation:
Carbohydrates (also known as saccharide) general formula is CH2On, this means they are molecules that only contain carbon (C), hydrogen (H) and oxygen (O). In the basic form, these sugars are known as monosaccharides, they can combine no form more complex sugars like disaccharide (2), oligosaccharides (2-10) or polysaccharides (>10).
Therefore we can conclude that this new food is a carbohydrate.
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The food product, composed of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen, likely contains carbohydrates, such as sugars, and may also contain water and atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Explanation:The new food product, composed only of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen, most likely supports the claim that it primarily contains carbohydrates or sugars. These three elements commonly form carbohydrates, which are a main energy source in food. For example, glucose, a simple carbohydrate, is made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms.
Other food components like proteins, fats, or vitamins usually contain elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, or various minerals, which in this case, are not present. Therefore, considering the composition, the food product may consist primarily of carbohydrates (fruits, vegetables), and to a lesser extent water (hydrogen and oxygen), and may have potentially absorbed atmospheric carbon dioxide (carbon and oxygen).
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What role do bacteria play in an aquaponics system?
They transform fish waste into plant food.
They enrich the water to help fish grow.
They break down dead plant matter.
They warn that the fish are sick.
They transform fish waste into plant food.
They break down dead plant matter
The most important bacteria in aquaponics are the nitrifiers that turn ammonia excreted by fish into nitrites and nitrates that can be taken up by the plants (hydroponic)
Explanation:
Aquaponics is system of farming that combines hydroponics and aquaculture with the two systems being interdependent due to nutrient cycling. Occasionally, some dead matter such as excrement falls from the fishes and plants and into the system. The bacteria break this organic matter to release the nutrients (nitrites and nitrates) hence making them available for uptake by plants. This cleans the water and makes it available again for the fishes.
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Answer:
They transform fish waste into plant food.
Explanation:
For those who needed only one answer, just took the review quiz for it so it's right.
Recent research has demonstrated a correlation between the presence of certain types of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut with obesity and type 2 diabetes. These findings best support which of the following statements?
a. Normal microbiota may significantly impact human health and disease
b. The presence of Gram-positive bacteria in the human gut causes obesity and type 2 diabetes
c. Gram-positive bacteria compose the majority of normal microbiota in the human gut of people with obesity and type 2 diabetes.
d. Obesity and type 2 diabetes are caused by normal microbiota in the human gut
Answer:
The correct answer a. Normal microbiota may significantly impact human health and disease.
Explanation:
Even though many organs and body parts of humans are properly working with the presence of microorganisms, when the population exceeds certain limits, the effect can be opposite and bad for health.
A female rabbit of phenotype c’ is crossed to a male rabbit with c ch. The F1 is comprised of five rabbits with a c’ phenotype, two with c ch phenotype, and three with c phenotype. Of the phenotypically c rabbits, two are females and are backcrossed to their father. This cross produces only rabbits with c ch phenotype. These results suggest that:A) c could be dominant or recessive to c’B) c is dominant to c’, but recessive to c chC) c is dominant to c ch, but recessive to c’D) c is dominant to both c’ and c chE) c is recessive to both c’ and c ch
Answer:
Option E, c is recessive to both c’ and c ch
Explanation:
As it is given in the question that when phenotypically c female rabbits are crossed with father with phenotype cch , the offspring produced have only cch phenotype which means that allele cch is dominant over allele “c”
Now in the F1 cross, when a female rabbit of phenotype c’ is crossed with cch male rabbit, then also c’ is expressed over “c” allele.
Hence, c is recessive to both c’ and cch allele
Final answer:
Considering the results of the rabbit breeding experiments and the dominance hierarchy known for rabbit coat color alleles, it can be concluded that the c allele is recessive to both c' and c ch.
Explanation:
Based on the given cross and the resulting phenotypes, we can deduce the dominance relationship for the coat color alleles in rabbits. Since the backcross of the c phenotype females with the c ch phenotype male only produces c ch phenotype offspring, we can conclude that c is recessive to c ch. Furthermore, since the initial cross resulted in three different phenotypes (c', c ch, and c), with c' being the most common, it is likely that c' is also dominant to c since it appears more frequently than the others.
Hence, c is dominant to both c' and c ch is incorrect since it did not appear in the F1 offspring when crossed with c' (a c' phenotype parent would contribute a recessive allele, not c, if c were dominant). Regarding the complete dominance hierarchy, the wild-type allele (C+) is dominant over all the others, chinchilla (cch) is incompletely dominant over Himalayan (ch) and albino (c), and Himalayan is dominant over albino. Therefore, the correct answer is E) c is recessive to both c' and c ch.haa
Which line best represents the level of oxygen gas in the atmosphere during the Proterozoic?
A. a
b. b
c. c
d. d
Explanation:
C- this line shows a gradual increase
Just before the Cambrian explosion, the atmosphere became oxygenated, leading to an explosion of new life in the form of primative blue green algae called cyanobacteria and oxygen dependent organisms in the Proteozoic Eon (2500-541 million years ago). Later, multicellular organisms followed, along with higher levels organization and complex life. Oxygen levels rose from low levels, steadily over this period of time.
Further Explanation:
The rise in O2 gas within the aquatic habitat and atmosphere is attributed to photosynthesis in cyanobacteria which allowed respiring eukaryotes to thrive.
Photosynthesizing cells in blue green algae contain chlorophyll, a specialized compound which facilitates the conversion of light energy to energy stored in carbohydrates in the process photosynthesis. This is a chemical pathway that’s integral to producing energy in primary producers. Energy in the form of molecules of glucose is produced from light, water and carbon dioxide while oxygen is released. This occurs in several complex steps, photosynthesis is a rate limited reaction, depends on several factors including carbon dioxide concentration, ambient temperature and light intensity; the energy is retrieved from photons, I.e. particles of light, and water is used as a reducing agent.
With the evolution of oxygen dependent organisms like Ediacara biota, came respiration in the mitochondria. Eukaryotes utilize glucose along with oxygen for the production of ATP in the Krebs’s cycle via the oxidization of pyruvate( through the process of glycolysis). Oxidative phosphorylation describes a process in which the NADH and FADH2 made in previous steps of respiration process give up electrons in the electron transport chain these are converted it to their previous forms, NADH+ and FAD. Electrons continue to move down the chain and the energy they release is used in pumping H+ to produce ATP from ATP synthase. At the end of the ETC molecules of oxygen accept electrons and protons to form molecules of water.
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How are cells able to recognize various molecules and other types of cells
Explanation:
The membrane of the cell defines its boundaries and allows it to interact with the exterior taking in, excluding or excreting different molecules. To recognize another type of cell, the cells use a call-cell recognition that allows them to distinguish one type from another thanks to receptors located in the membrane, these receptors bind to specific ligands that recognize the differentiation. According to their structure and composition, these surface receptors can also recognize different molecules such as ions, water, proteins, etc.
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You read that the frequency of a particular disease-associated recessive allele in a population is 12%. What does that mean
Answer:
The correct answer is - It means that 12% of the population is a carrier for the disease.
Explanation:
The frequency of an allele is a measure to find the relative occurrence or frequency of the particular allele on a locus in the next generation. It is measured and denoted generally in percentage or proportion.
The particular disease-related recessive allele in a particular means that the particular number of individuals or a particular percentage of the population is a carrier for the particular disease.
Thus, the correct answer is - It means that 12% of the population is a carrier for the disease.
What type of experiment involves mating two individuals with different characteristics to each other? One individual provides females gametes, while the other produces male gametes.
Answer:
Hybridization experiment
Explanation:
Hybridization is a process of mating individuals of different species or individuals of the same species that are genetically dissimilar.
When the mating involves two individuals of different species, such hybridization is said to be inter-specific.
When the mating involves individuals of the same but genetically dissimilar species, such hybridization is said to be intra-specific.
The mating between individuals of different species of varieties results in hybrid offspring that may posses hybrid vigor but sometimes partially fertile or sterile.
A Mendelian Cross is the type of experiment that involves mating two individuals, each providing different characteristics. This process, part of sexual reproduction, combines the male and female gametes to produce genetically diverse offspring.
Explanation:The type of experiment involving mating two individuals with different characteristics is known as a Mendelian Cross. In this type of experiment, conducted by Gregor Mendel, two true-breeding organisms with different traits are mated. In plants, this involves manually transferring pollen from the anther of a mature plant of one variety to the stigma of a separate mature plant of the other variety, effectively mating the two. This allows the male gamete (the sperm in the pollen) to reach the female gamete (the ova) for fertilization to occur.
During sexual reproduction, the genetic material of the two individuals is combined to produce genetically diverse offspring. These offspring differ genetically from their parents, providing the species with a stronger chance of survival in unpredictable or changing environments. This type of breeding involves both male and female gametes to create this variation.
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The relationship of structure to function is one of the major themes in biology. For three of the following structure/function pairs, describe the structure and then explain how the function is related to the structure.
a. enzyme structure/catalysis
b. mRNA structure/protein synthesis
c. cell membrane structure/signal transduction
d. membrane protein structurelactive transport or facilitated diffusion
Answer:
The function of biomolecule inside our body system fully depends on the structure of that biomolecule.It is because the functional groups that participate in a chemical or biochemical reactions are arranged in a specific array in the structure of that biomolecule or macromolecule.
Explanation:
a enzyme structure/catalysis Enzymes are proteinecious in nature.Enzyme contain various amino acids in its active site such as histidine,serine,glutamic acid etc The amino acids of the active site of that enzyme interact with the substrate resulting in the formation of the product.
b mRNA structure/protein synthesis mRNA or messenger RNA consist of nucleotide sequence.The 3 concequetive nucleotides of an mRNA is termed as codons.Each codon codes for specific amino acid.The so formed amino acid linked with the adjacent amino acid by peptide linkage.
c cell membrane structure and signal transduction cell membrane contain various surface protein that act as receptor to detect signals by binding with signaling molecule during signal transduction process.
Enzymes, such as lactase, have a specific three-dimensional structure that allows them to catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy. mRNA carries the genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, and its structure determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein during protein synthesis. The structure of the cell membrane, particularly its proteins, enables signal transduction and the transmission of signals from outside to inside the cell.
Explanation:Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in living organisms. They have a specific three-dimensional structure, including an active site where the substrate binds and the reaction takes place. This structure is crucial for their function because it allows enzymes to interact specifically with their substrates and lower the activation energy needed for the reaction, thereby facilitating catalysis. For example, the structure of the enzyme lactase allows it to bind to lactose and break it down into glucose and galactose.
mRNA (messenger RNA) is a single-stranded molecule that carries genetic information from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis occurs. Its structure consists of a long sequence of nucleotides, each containing a nitrogenous base (adenine, cytosine, guanine, or uracil), a ribose sugar, and a phosphate group. The specific sequence of nucleotides in mRNA determines the sequence of amino acids in the protein that will be synthesized. Therefore, the structure of mRNA is essential for accurate and efficient protein synthesis.
The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins and other components. This structure allows the cell membrane to serve multiple functions, including signal transduction. Cellular signaling involves the transmission of signals from outside the cell to the inside, which triggers various cellular responses. The structure of the cell membrane, specifically the proteins embedded in it, allows for the recognition and binding of signaling molecules, leading to intracellular signaling cascades and the activation of specific cellular processes.
We know that DNA and RNA (each with four nucleotide components) both use a three nucleotide genetic code and 64 codons (43 = 64). Knowing that the minimum number of codons for the genetic code is 21 (20 amino acids, 1 stop codon), what codon size would be required if only three nucleotides were present in the genome?a) 2 nucleotides per codonb) 3 nucleotides per codonc) 5 nucleotides per codond) 4 nucleotides per codone) 6 nucleotides per codon
Explanation:
b) 3 nucleotides per codon
In the genetic code, an amino acid is encoded by 3 nucleotides, while there are just 4 bases
A set of amino acids, 20 in total, build proteins from numerous configurations∴ for 20 amino acids, and 4 nucleotides a minimum of 3 bases is required [tex]N^{3}[/tex] = [tex]4^{3}[/tex] = 64 possible codon arrangementsHowever, if only 3 nucleotides were present...
[tex]N^{3}[/tex] = [tex]3^{3}[/tex] = 27 codonsGiven the degeneracy of the genetic code- the code contains more information that necessary multiple codon encode the same amino acid. ∴ as only 21 are needed, and [tex]N^{3}[/tex], 27> 21, only 3 nucleotides per codon would be required.
Further Explanation:
The nucleic acids are comprised of smaller units called nucleotides and function as storage for the body’s genetic information. These monomers include ribonucleic acid (RNA) or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). They differ from other macromolecules since they don’t provide the body with energy. They exist solely to encode and protein synthesis.
Basic makeup: C, H, O, P; they contain phosphate group 5 carbon sugar does nitrogen bases which may contain single to double bond ring.
Codons are three nucleotide bases encoding coding and amino acid or signal at the beginning or end of protein synthesis.
RNA codons determine certain amino acids so the order in which the bases occur within in the codon sequence designates which amino acid is to be made bus with the four RNA nucleotides (Adenine, Cysteine and Uracil) Up to 64 codons (with 3 as stop codons) determine amino acid synthesis. The stop codons ( UAG UGA UAA) terminate amino acid/ protein synthesis while the start codon AUG begins protein synthesis.
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The codon size that would be required if only three nucleotides were present in the genome is 3 nucleotides per codon.
What is a codon?A codon is group of triplet nucleotides that encodes an amino acid.
According to this question, DNA and RNA are said to both use a three nucleotide genetic code and 64 codons.
There are 4 nucleotide bases in the genome, hence, 4³ = 64 codons.
This means that 3 nucleotides per codon is the codon size that would be required if only three nucleotides are present in the genome.
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The body's first line of defense from microbial infections is afforded by the _____ system.
a) nervous
b) immune
c) integumentary
d) skeletal
Answer:
C.)
Explanation:
According to conflict theory, the health care industry includes many groups, including doctors, lawyers, hospitals, insurance ecompanies, banks, and real estate, among others. The industry can maintain the status quo because of the______.a.paramedical complex.b. medical-industrial complex.c. neo-business complex.d. social-industrial complex.e. post-medical complex.
Answer: Option B.
The health system can maintain its status quo by medical -industrial complex.
Explanation:
Conflict theory is a theory that is suggested by Karl max which states that society is in a state of conflict due to competition for limited resources. It stressed that social order can be maintained by power and dominance and not by conformity or consensus. The healthy care industry can maintain it status quo by medical- industrial complex. Medical-industrial complex involves links of corporations that supplies products and services to health care system primarily to make profit. Insurance companies, banks, real estates and lawyers provide services to health care system to make profits. Manufacturers of medical devices supplies products to hospitals to make profit.
According to conflict theory, the health care industry can maintain the status quo because of the medical-industrial complex (Option b).
The medical-industrial complex refers to the corporations that supply healthcare services for profit.The conflict theory states that all different matters concerning industries (including the healthcare industry) are rooted in capitalist society.The three main presumptions of this theory include:
Individuals are inherently self-interested.Societies always operate under a scarcity of resources.Conflict is unavoidable both within and between social groups.In conclusion, according to conflict theory, the health care industry can maintain the status quo because of the medical-industrial complex (Option b).
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How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
A. Photosynthesis produces carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration
produces oxygen.
B. Photosynthesis stores energy, while cellular respiration releases
energy
C. Photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria, while cellular respiration
occurs in chloroplasts.
D. Photosynthesis breaks down glucose, while cellular respiration
produces glucose.
Answer:
The correct answer is B photosynthesis stores energy,while cellular respiration releases energy.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is an anabolic process that utilizes the atmospheric CO2 along with water molecule as a electron donor to generate glucose sugar and oxygen gas.Photosynthesis helps to store the light energy in form of chemical energy in the bonds of glucose molecules produced during photosynthesis..
on the other hand cellular respiration is a catabolic process that oxidizes glucose to generate energy in form of ATP along with CO2 and water as a byproduct.
Name two features of eukaryotic cells that prokaryotic cells lack
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell are different in many ways and some features that are present in eukaryotic cell but lacked by prokaryotic cells are:
1. Membrane-bound nucleus: Membrane-bound nucleus are present in eukaryotes which contains the eukaryotic cell's genetic material but prokaryotic cell do not contain nucleus therefore it's genetic material is present in the cytoplasm of the cell.
2. Other membrane-bound organelle: Apart from nucleus prokaryotes lack other membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria and chloroplast which is used for ATP generation in eukaryotes therefore ATP generation in prokaryotes takes place in the cell's plasma membrane.
Where are new volcanoes forming in the Hawaiian Island chain? Be specific and use directional terms N, S, E, W, etc.
Answer:
If the hot-spot theory is correct, the next volcano in the Hawaiian chain should form east or south of the Island of Hawai'i. Abundant evidence indicates that such a new volcano exists at Lö'ihi, a seamount (or submarine peak) located about 20 miles off the south coast.
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Some organisms can reproduce both sexually and asexually. Which of the following is a long-term consequence of undergoing only asexual reproduction?
A. Fewer mutations than if the organism reproduced sexually
B. Fewer natural predators than if the organism reproduced sexually
C. Less genetic variation than if the organism reproduced sexually
D. Less reproductive success than if the organism reproduced sexually
C
Asexual reproduction does not produce variety in population, unless through mutations, because offspring are exact copies of their parent – because they reproduce by binary fission.
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction produces variations by genetic combinations. Remember during meiosis, there is the crossing over of chromosomes. In addition during fertilization, in sexual reproduction, each gamete brings in alternative forms of alleles of genes. The advantage of asexual reproduction is that it allows for fast reproduction because only one parent is involved in the formation of offspring.
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Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
Which range is the average resting pulse rate for adults?
Answer: 60 to 100 beats per minute.
Explanation:
Pulse is the number of times the hear pump blood out into the systemic circulation per minute
The lower this range the more efficient the heart is. In trained athletes the pulse rate is about 40bpm.
This shows the heart pumps blood at a faster rate to meet the demands of the muscles and other organs involved in the strenuous activities.
It can be measured by placing two fingers on the thumb side of the wrist,and count numbers of beats heard for 15 seconds.The counted number should multiplied by 4 to obtain beats per minute.
The average resting pulse rate for adults is 60 to 100 beats per minute, although athletes may have lower rates due to cardiovascular efficiency. Conditions such as bradycardia or tachycardia are defined by rates below 60 bpm or above 100 bpm, respectively. Measurements are most accurate in the morning at rest.
The average resting pulse rate for adults is typically between 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm). Conditions such as bradycardia, occur when the resting rate drops below 60 bpm, and tachycardia is when the resting rate exceeds 100 bpm. It's noteworthy that elite athletes may exhibit much lower resting heart rates, some in the high 30s, due to increased efficiency of their cardiovascular system. Moreover, with chronic exercise, one can expect a reduction in resting heart rate, due to adaptations like increased tidal volume and diffusion capacity in the lungs, thereby enhancing oxygen supply to the heart's muscles.
When assessing resting heart rate, it's most accurate to take this measurement in the morning before getting out of bed, by counting the number of heartbeats per minute at the wrist. While resting heart rates can vary with exercise, fitness level, and age, it's still a valuable indicator of an individual's cardiac health.
A client with a history of chronic alcohol use but without visible jaundice comes to the clinic reporting nausea and weakness. She admits to taking acetaminophen for persistent headaches but denies exceeding the recommended daily dose; she has not taken any other medications. She is suspected of having acetaminophen toxicity. Which diagnostic test finding would suggest a different cause of her symptoms?
Answer: malnutrition
Explanation:
It has been evident in chronic alcohol users to be be malnourished due to loss of appetite and irregularities in their feeding.
This kind of patients might suffer acetaminophen toxicity from ingestion of acetaminophen for her headaches because malnutrition causes depletion of glutathione stores in the system.
Where do the reactions of the citric acid cycle occur in eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
Matrix of mitochondria
Explanation:
Citric acid cycle is also known as the Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle. It occurs in the matrix of mitochondria. As in glycolysis, only partial oxidation of glucose takes place, therefore, the final product of glycolysis that is pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA in the matrix of mitochondria and here it's complete oxidation takes place by citric acid cycle.
Citric acid cycle is important in producing electron donors in the form of NADH and FADH2 which provide electron source during the oxidative phosphorylation process to create ATPs.
Therefore the reaction of the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of mitochondria in eukaryotes.
The reactions of the citric acid cycle in eukaryotic cells occur in the mitochondrial matrix and involve the production of ATP and reduced forms of NADH and FADH₂. The high-energy electrons carried by these reduced forms are then transferred to the electron transport chain.
Explanation:The reactions of the citric acid cycle in eukaryotic cells occur in the mitochondrial matrix.
The cycle is a series of chemical reactions that produce two carbon dioxide molecules, one ATP molecule, and reduced forms of NADH and FADH₂, which are important coenzymes in the cell. These reduced forms carry high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain located in the cristae of the mitochondrion. ATP is also synthesized from ADP and inorganic phosphate by substrate-level phosphorylation during the cycle.
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Compare and contrast the modes of action of lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones.
Answer:
Lipid soluble hormones:
Lipid soluble hormones are hydrophobic in nature and contains hydrophobic signals. Their receptors are present inside the nucleus and some are limited to cytosol as well. The binding of the receptor to its ligand stimulates the synthesis of new protein. The binding of hormone response element binds to the enhancer region of DNA. Example: steroid hormones and thyroid hormones.
Water soluble hormones:
Water soluble hormones are hydrophilic in nature and contains hydrophilic signals. Their receptors are present on the cell membrane . The binding of the receptor to its ligand stimulates the signaling cascades mechanism. The binding of hormone to its receptor results in the activation of protein kinase and secondary messenger.
Lipid-soluble hormones such as steroid hormones can pass through cell membranes to interact with intracellular receptors, while water-soluble hormones like those derived from amino acids or peptides, bind to surface receptors and activate signaling pathways. Water-soluble hormones typically amplify their signal for a more efficient response.
Explanation:Lipid-soluble hormones, such as steroid hormones and thyroid hormone, are able to diffuse through the membrane and interact with an intracellular receptor. These are often derived from cholesterol and include hormones like estrogen and testosterone.
Because they are non-polar, they can permeate cell membranes and bind to receptors located in the cytoplasm of target cells.
On the other hand, water-soluble hormones, derived from amino acids or peptides like epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroxin, and melatonin, are unable to pass through the plasma membrane of cells due to their hydrophilic nature.
These hormones bind to receptors that are located on the cell surface, which then activate a signaling pathway. This pathway triggers the production of second messengers, such as cyclic adenosine monophosphate (CAMP) which greatly amplifies the hormone signal, accelerating and broadening the response.
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Sometimes, pregnant women are very emotional. This is believed to be caused by extra estrogen and progesterone that are released during pregnancy and would be considered an effect on behavior.
Activational effect is the correct answer.
Activational effect is an impermanent hormonal effect that leads to a change in physiological activity or behavior in both humans and adult animals. For instance, when testosterone levels rise in male songbirds they become more aggressive and tend to engage in courtship behavior. Also, a pregnant woman may get more emotional than usual due to an extra level of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy.
Answer:
Activational effect is the correct answer.
Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red-flowered long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white-flowered oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following?
A) Red and longB) Purple and ovalC) Purple and longD) Red and ovalE) White and long
Answer:
C: Purple and long
Explanation:
Let R represents flower color. RR genotype will give red flower, Rr will be purple (incomplete dominance) and rr will be white.Let L represents radish's length. LL and Ll will give long radishes since long radish allele is dominant over oval radish allele. ll genotype will be result in oval shape radishes.Crossing RRLL with rrll:
All the progeny will have RrLl genotype (see the attached image for Punnet's square result).
Phenotypically, they will appear with purple colour flower and long radishes.
The correct answer is C.
A cross between true-breeding red-flowered long radishes and true-breeding white-flowered oval radishes would result in F1 offspring that are purple and long. This is because purple color is the result of incomplete dominance between red and white, and length is the dominant trait for shape.
Explanation:Given the information provided, we can deduce that when a red radish flower is crossed with a white radish flower, the trait for the flower color is incompletely dominant, resulting in a purple offspring. When looking at the shape of the radish, long is dominant over oval. When a true-breeding long radish is crossed with a true-breeding oval radish, all F1 offspring will express the dominant trait. Thus, if true-breeding red-flowered long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white-flowered oval radishes, the F1 offspring is expected to be purple in color (due to incomplete dominance between red and white) and long in shape (as long is the dominant trait).
So, the correct answer to the question would be "Purple and long", which is option C.
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Junctions hold cells together in a sheet, which restricts the movement of substances between the cells. These junctions can be found in cells such as the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron of the kidney. True or False?
Answer:
The answer is TRUE
Explanation:
The statement is about the Tight Junctions. It is true.