Answer:
a) True
Explanation:
It's true, most strains of E. coli with which we have contact are harmless. They are found in the intestines of healthy animals and humans forming part of our flora. However, there are strains that can make us sick if we ingest them. We can found them in contaminated water, poorly washed vegetables and raw meats.
White blood cells leave capillaries by a process called ___________.
Answer:
Diapedesis
Explanation:
Diapedesis is the process of the extravasation of the white blood cells. This is the important process of the immune system.
During diapedesis, the white bllod cells from the blood leave the capillaries and migrate to the site of injury. This process mainly occurs in the post capillary venules.
Thus, the answer is diapedesis.
White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, exit the bloodstream and enter tissues through a process known as emigration or diapedesis.
Explanation:White blood cells, or leukocytes, leave capillaries via a process known as emigration or diapedesis. This process involves the leukocytes squeezing through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall to enter tissue sites. Once at these sites, depending on their functions, they may be given distinct names such as macrophage or microglia.
For leukocytes, the vascular network is akin to a highway that they use for transit before exiting to perform their defensive functions. This emigration allows them to remove infectious agents, such as bacteria and viruses, and clean the lymph before it returns to the bloodstream.
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Carbon 14 is an unstable isotope of carbon that decays very slowly. Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional ____________.
(a) electrons
(b) neutrons
(c) protons
(d) ions
Answer:
B. neutrons I think
Explanation:
carbon -12 contains six protons, six neutrons, and six electrons
carbon -14 contains six protons, eight neutrons, and six electrons
Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional neutrons. thus, option B is correct.
What is isotopes?An isotope is one of two or more species of atoms of a chemical element that have the same atomic number and location in the periodic table but differ in their atomic weights and physical properties. There are one or more isotopes for every chemical element.
Both isotopes of carbon have six protons in their atoms. Carbon-12 atoms have 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 atoms have 8 neutrons. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom are the same, hence a neutral atom of carbon-12 or carbon-14 would have 6 electrons.
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Which of the following airways precisely carry air to each of the lung?
a. terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. tertiary bronchi
d. secondary bronchi
e. primary bronchi
Answer:
D - Secondary bronchi
Explanation:
The secondary bronchi is the first subdivision of the lung and it directly carries air to each lobe of a lung. It serves as a pathway of gas exchange to provide air to the 3 lobes of the lung (superior, middle and inferior).
Divide the word into word parts. Define the word parts, then define the term. Example: spondylolisthesis = spondyl/o vertebra, -listhesis slipping; slipping of a vertebra, forward dislocation of a vertebra.
- Arthroplasty
- Syndactylism
- Osteomyelitis
- Electromyography
- Ankylosis
- Osteoclasis
Answer:
arthro-joint plasty-repair or replacement
arthroplasty- repair or replacement of the joint
syndactyl,-multipple digits ism-disease or conditon syndactylism is a birth defect in which the infant is born more with extra webbed fingers or toes
osteo -bone myelitis -inflamation of osteo myelitits is the inflammation of the bone
elctro- meaning electric ,myography- use of a myograph, electromyography
is a procedure diagnostic to show health of muscles and nerves
ankyl-bent or crooked osis-state or condition ankylosis- is a stiffness of a joint due to abnormal adhesion and rigidity of the bones of the joint, which may be the result of injury or disease.
osteo-bone clasis -break or broken
osteoclasis-the breaking of a bone
(brainliest?
Explanation:
What is the Icd 10 code for respiratory failure with hypoxia?
Answer:
Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia
J96.01 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes. The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM J96.01 became effective on October 1, 2018.
Explanation:
The ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision) code for respiratory failure with hypoxia is J96.0.
Definition of Respiratory Failure:
Respiratory failure occurs when the respiratory system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange, leading to an inability to oxygenate the blood efficiently or remove carbon dioxide. This condition can be acute or chronic and can arise from various underlying health issues.Definition of Hypoxia:
Hypoxia refers to a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin).Causes:
Pulmonary conditions (e.g., Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, pneumonia).Neuromuscular diseases affecting the diaphragm and respiratory muscles.Central nervous system issues (e.g., drug overdose affecting breathing).ICD-10 Coding Explanation:
The ICD-10 code J96.0 specifically signifies 'Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia.' It helps in accurately documenting the condition for medical billing and record-keeping purposes.Importance of Accurate Coding:
Accurate ICD-10 coding is crucial for patient management, insurance reimbursement, and statistical data on health outcomes. It allows for effective tracking of respiratory failure cases and informs treatment strategies.After 2 weeks JP complains of a painful rash on her back. JP is diagnosed with herpes zoster. What explanation can the nurse give for the occurrence of this new diagnosis?
Answer: the herpes zoster is a viral infection caused by the same varicela virus. If JP had varicela before, the virus could reactivate in a way that does not produce varicela, but zoster.
Explanation: Herpes zoster is an infection caused by varicela-zoster virus. When someone had varicela, this virus remains "latent" in the nervous tissue and could be reactivated in elderly people, or in those with diseases like HIV; when the immune system is not so strong.
The classic presentation is a painful eruption in the skin, mostly located in the back.
Which of the following are symptoms associated with pernicious anemia? (Select all that apply)
a. Sore tongue
b. Diarrhea and upset stomach
c. Insomnia
d. Paresthesias
e. Arthralgia
f. Weakness and fatigue
Answer:
the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
Explanation:
When the body is not able to make enough healthy RBCs due to B-12 deficiency this condition called pernicious anemia. It is a treatable condition with the help of the B-12 shots or pills. The major reason is the lack of a stomach protein known as Intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of the B-12.
Symptoms associated with this condition are -
Fatigue, shortness of breath, cold hands and feet, Paresthesias, feeling dizzy, chest pain, pale or yellow skin, depression, and trouble focusing and others.
Thus, the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.
Australopithecus afarensis:
A-all of these
B-is found in southern and eastern Africa
C-is the largest well-studied collection of early hominins
D-the fossil skeleton known as "Lucy" belongs to this species
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. all of these.
Explanation:
Australopithecus afarensis was early hominin that found between 3.9 and 2.9 million years ago in southern and eastern Africa. this hominin was well built and had a slenderly body. these were thought to be closely related to the genus homo than other primates of that time. These hominins were the most studied collection of hominins.
The most famous fossil is Australopithecus afrarensis is a skeleton named Lucy which is thought to be a very intelligent species of its time.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. all of these.
Cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.
Answer:
Sarcoplasm.
Explanation:
Sarcoplasm is comparable to the cytoplasm of the other cell. The main constituents of sarcoplasm is glycosomes, myoglobin and calcium.
Sarcoplasm is the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber or muscle cells. The sarcoplasm helps in the muscle contraction and regulation of muscle fibers. The cell membrane of sarcoplasm is sarcolemma.
Thus, the answer is sarcoplasm.
Which one of the following diuretics is a potassium sparing diuretic?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Indapamide
D. Furosemide
Answer:
(B). Spironolactone.
Explanation:
Diuretic drugs are used to treat hypertension by increasing diuresis (urine formation). Potassium sparing diuretics can be defined as a class of diuretic drugs that decrease secretion of potassium ions into the urine.
Normal diuretic can cause increased potassium loss that lead to hypokalemia (low level of potassium). Potassium ions are necessary for proper nerve transmission and muscle functioning.
Hence, potassium sparing drugs are used with diuretics for hypertension without causing lose of potassium ions from the body. Examples of potassium sparing diuretics are spironolactone, amiloride, and eplerenone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Luke, a 17-month-old, failed treatment with amoxicillin for otitis media. At the two-week recheck, his TM was still erythematous and you cannot see the landmarks. He has persistent nasal congestion, he is not sleeping at night, and he has a 101°F fever. What is the next best step for Luke?
Answer:
The next step is to start treatment with third generation cephalosporin combined or not with B-lactams according to the evolution of the symptoms.
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
What you have to keep in mind is:
It is an obstruction of the eustachian tubes.
We have to take the following measures:
Do not breastfeed or take a bottle lying down, do it in a sitting or semi-sitting position due to tubal obstruction. Nebulizations to decongest (with physiological solution)
betamethasone 1 drop / kg 3 times a day, orally for 3 days then twice a day for three days and lie once a day two days
children's paracetamol 5cm every 8 (according to temperature)
It is a congestive catarrhal otitis media compatible with tubal obstruction (eustachian tube
at the nasal level)
Which type of blood vessel carries blood back to the heart?
a. artery
b. arteriole
c. vein
d. capillary
Answer:
vein
Explanation:
vein is the vessel that carry blood to the earth
The increased risk of lung cancer that results from smoking and asbestos exposure is an example of a/an _________ effect.
Answer:
The answer is Carcinogenic effect.
Explanation:
When a physical, chemical or biological agent is capable of producing a neoplasic disease we speak of a carcinogenic or carcinogenic effect. The carcinogenic effect of cigarettes and asbestos has been scientifically demonstrated, asbestos being one of the largest producers of lung cancer in people working with this material, hence its use has already been banned in several countries.
Describe a normal plantar reflex.
Answer:
the plantar reflex or babinski sign, is the one we find when rubbing with a swab or a blunt object the sole of the foot, which will produce an extension of the big toe idem while the toes open in the form of a fan, his appearance is considered normal until twelve months of age; If this sign occurs in an adult, it indicates the presence of an injury in the pyramidal way.
The plantar reflex is a neurological test used in newborns and adults to assess neuromuscular function. A normal reflex in infants shows a positive Babinski sign, while in older children and adults, it causes toe curling and plantar flexion, indicating a healthy nervous system.
Explanation:The plantar reflex is a common neurological test for the Babinski sign, used to assess neuromuscular function in newborns and to check the integrity of the corticospinal tract in adults. In newborns, a normal plantar reflex elicited by stimulating the sole of the foot results in a positive Babinski sign, characterized by dorsiflexion of the foot and extension and splaying of the toes. In older children and adults, a normal plantar reflex involves the curling of toes and moderate plantar flexion. It is an important reflex for maintaining balance while walking, as a negative Babinski sign indicates proper functioning of the lower motor neurons and corticospinal tract. The presence of a positive Babinski sign in adults suggests potential neurological issues, such as reduced myelination of the spinal tract.
Where is the thymus located?
a. posterior to the stomach
b. superior to the heart
c. near lymphatic capillaries
d. posterior to the sternum
Answer:
d. Posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:
The thymus is a very large gland active during childhood, that is located right behind the sternum, in the middle of the two lungs. This area is part of the Mediastinum. The Mediastinum is a region inside the thorax that contains the great vessels (aorta artery, pulmonary artery), the heart, the trachea, the esophagus, the thymus, and many lymph nodes.
The thymus is important because before birth and during childhood produces a substance called thymosin that stimulates the production of lymphocytes.
The thymus cannot be posterior to the stomach, because in this location is the peritoneum that is a thick layer of fatty tissue with the function of sticking the abdominal organs to its place.
The thymus cannot be superior to the heart, because right there we could find the aorta artery and pulmonary veins which are big enough to fill that place.
Near lymphatic capillaries is not a place for a big gland as the thymus. Because these tiny structures are located in the intercellular space, so it is too small to have the thymus in it.
The thymus is located posterior to the sternum.
Explanation:The thymus is located posterior to the sternum, which is the bone in the middle of the chest. It is positioned behind the breastbone and extends upward towards the neck. The thymus is part of the immune system and plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T cells. The thymus is an important part of the immune system. In humans, it is located in the chest, specifically, posterior to the sternum. This position means that it is situated behind the sternum, a bony structure in the middle of your chest that connects to the rib bones. The thymus is also superior to the heart, meaning it is located above the heart. However, it is not related to the location of lymphatic capillaries or posterior to the stomach.
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Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction icd 10 code?
Answer:
Diastolic (congestive) heart failure
The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM I50.3 became effective on October 1, 2018. This is the American ICD-10-CM version of I50.3 - other international versions of ICD-10 I50.3 may differ.
Explanation:
heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, the ICD-10 code is I50.30. T
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is a type of heart failure where the heart's ability to pump blood remains adequate, but the heart muscle is stiff and does not fill properly with blood.
Definition: Heart failure is when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.
Classification: Heart failure can be classified into two main categories:
HFrEF (Heart Failure with reduced Ejection Fraction): where the heart's pumping ability is weakened.HFpEF (Heart Failure with preserved Ejection Fraction): where the movement and pumping force of the heart are sufficient, but the heart does not fill properly.Symptoms: Common symptoms include:
Shortness of breathFatigueSwelling in the lower extremities, abdomen, or neck veinsDiagnosis & Management: Diagnosis typically involves a combination of physical examinations, imaging tests (like echocardiograms), and laboratory tests. Treatment strategies often include lifestyle changes, medications, and, in some cases, surgical interventions.
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the:
a. tricuspid valve.
b. pulmonary valve.
c. mitral valve.
d. bicuspid valve.
Answer:
The answer is A tricuspid valve
Explanation:
The tricuspid valve is called that because it has three pillars that are located in the right heart between the atrium and the ventricular idem.
It is responsible for giving way to systematic blood for subsequent oxygenation at the level of the lungs.
Final answer:
The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve, which is an atrioventricular valve that prevents the backflow of blood. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is known as the tricuspid valve. This valve is one of the two atrioventricular valves (AV valves), with its counterpart being the mitral valve on the left side of the heart. The tricuspid valve consists of three flaps of tissue that open to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle and close to prevent backflow of blood. The mitral valve also referred to as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, consists of two flaps and functions similarly between the left atrium and left ventricle.
__________ are supposed to catch doctors' mistakes when it comes to interactions:
a. Nurses
b. Pharmacists
c. Director of Nursing
d. None of the above
Answer:
I think it's nurses?
At the neuromuscular junction, what specific receptor is located at the muscle cell?
a. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
c. Glutamate receptor
Answer:
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.
Explanation:
Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors has the ability to respond towards the acetylcholine molecule. These receptors are used for the transmission of signals.
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is located on brain, at neuromuscular junction and in the muscle cell. These receptors are released from the post ganglionic fibers.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction, allowing for muscle contractions to take place.
Explanation:The specific receptor located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction is the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. This receptor is responsible for muscle contractions in our body. When a signal travels down the nerve, acetylcholine is released, which then binds to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, causing an influx of ions and leading to muscle contraction.
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Bergmann’s rule:
A)is based on the principle that heat is retained at the body surface
B)concerns the relationship between climate and shape and size of appendages
C)state that bodies with increased mass or volume to surface area are optimal for cold climates
D)states that a linear body with long arms and legs is optimal for cold climates
Answer:
The answer is C: state that bodies wit increased mass or volume to surface are optimal for cold climates.
Explanation:
The bergmann rule establishes that the species of animals that maintain their body temperature within normal limits regardless of the ambient temperature, when they live in cold weather, tend to be of greater volume and weight than those of the same species that live in other warmer regions. A clear example of this are the North Pole penguins, which are larger than African penguins.
Lactose intolerance:
A. results from the lack of lactase
B. can be influenced by the environment
C. has a genetic basis
D. all of these
E. is a good example of biocultural evolution
Answer:
The answer is A: results from the lack of lactase
Explanation:
Lactose intolerance is caused by the lack of the enzyme lactase, necessary for digestion. Their symptoms usually occur 30 minutes after eating the food with a feeling of nausea, bloating and vomiting. It can occur from the first months of life as well as in adulthood.
Which of the following statement(s) about cells is/are true?
1. Mitosis --- division of somatic cells
2. Meiosis --- division of sex cells
3. Somatic cells are diploid
4. Sex cells are haploid
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
Explanation:
Mitotic cell division is a type of cell division in which one parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. This type of cell division takes place in all the cells except sex cells.
Somatic cells go through mitosis and help organisms in their growth, repair, and renewal of cells and tissue. Somatic cells are diploid in number that means they have two homologous chromosomes in their nucleus.
Meiosis is also a type of cell division that takes place in the reproductive cell or sex cells to form gametes. In this type of cell division, one parent cell gives rises to four daughter cell with half the number of chromosomes which is haploid. The sex cells are haploid as they are produced by the meiotic division.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
Under the influence of ADH, the __________ and the ___________ become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed.
a. Proximal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
b. Distal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
c. Proximal convulated tubule, Collecting duct
d. Distal convulated tubule. Collecting duct
Answer:
The correct answer is option D- Distal convulated tubule and collecting duct.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone that helps to maintain the amount of water in your body.
The hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland which controls the kidney to balance the water content in the body as it helps reduce the loss of water in the urine.
ADH hormone increases the permeability of the membrane by stimulating the insertion of "water channels" or aquaporins in the membranes of kidney tubules mainly Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. These aquaporins help the reabsorption of water thus reducing the loss of water from the body.
Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Final answer:
The correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct, as these are the sites where ADH acts to make the tubule more permeable to water, enabling water reabsorption.
Explanation:
Under the influence of ADH, the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed. Both of these structures are involved in the fine-tuning of water balance in the body.
While the distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs a smaller volume of water, the collecting ducts, influenced by ADH, play a major role in water reabsorption. The proximal convoluted tubule is mainly responsible for the reabsorption of a significant fraction of the filtered water, but this process is independent of ADH action. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct.
A specific form of cancer that develops in the connective tissue of the dermis is called? It is common in the elderly and HIV patients.
A. Kaposi's Sarcoma
B. Leukoderma
C. Carbuncle
Answer: Kaposi's Sarcoma
Explanation:
The Kaposi's sarcoma remains one of the most common cancer in people suffering from HIV. It is caused by the virus known as herpes virus 8.
It is developed when the cells that line the lymph or blood vessels begins to divide without stopping and starts spreading in the adjacent tissues.
It has the ability to start in several parts of the body at once.
Hence the correct answer is" Kaposi's Sarcoma "
The diaphyseal region of bone is composed of which of the following bone types?
A) spongy
B) cancellous
C) cortical
D) trabecular
Answer:
( C ) Cortical bone
Explanation:
The diaphyseal region of the bone , is the main or the medsection of the long bone.
The composition of Diaphyseal region is mainly of the cortical bone , bone marrow and the fat tissue i.e. the adipose tissue .
The middle tabular part of the diaphyseal region , composed of the compact bone is surrounded by the central marrow cavity which have the red or the yellow marrow.
Hence ,
The diaphyseal region is composed of cortical bone.
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the __________.
Answer:
Platysma.
Explanation:
Platysma is the sheet of muscle that arise from the chest and deltoid muscle. The muscle rises over the clavicle.
Platysma muscle comes upward from the slanting manner by the sides of the neck. This muscle draws the corners of the mouth and lower lip. Hence, platysma muscle is used to express horror and for the pouting.
Thus, the answer is platysma.
Final answer:
The orbicularis oris is the muscle used for pouting and expressing horror, as it is responsible for moving the lips and creating various facial expressions.
Explanation:
The muscle used for pouting and to express horror is the orbicularis oris. This facial muscle is a circular muscle that moves the lips. Along with various other facial muscles, such as the orbicularis oculi, which is responsible for closing the eyes, the orbicularis oris plays a critical role in conveying facial expressions. These muscles are capable of a wide range of movements, from expressing disgust and anger to forming the shapes necessary for speech and eating. Unlike muscles that move the skeleton, many of the muscles of facial expression, including the orbicularis oris, insert into the skin, allowing them to create subtle and complex expressions by moving the skin around the eyelids, nose, and mouth.
One of the following is not correctly matched. Which is it?
a. The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae.
b. Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air.
c. Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air.
d. Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles.
e. Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Answer:
The answer is E: Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses.
Explanation:
The paranasal sinuses are cavities located in the bones of the face, which communicate through holes and ducts with the nasal cavity. They are upholstered by the same mucosa of the nose. One of its main functions is to moisten and heat the air, which enters through its cavities into the airway.
The statement that is not correctly matched is that the olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae. In reality, the olfactory epithelium is found deeper in the nasal cavity for odor detection.
The student's question pertains to which statement about the nasal cavity and related structures is not correctly matched. Let's evaluate each statement provided:
The olfactory epithelium lies in a mucous membrane powering the inferior nasal conchae: The olfactory epithelium actually lies deeper in the nasal cavity and is primarily involved in odor detection.Hairs in the nasal vestibule help remove large particles from the air: This is correct. The hairs filter large debris as air enters the nasal cavities.Conchae and their meatuses increase surface area and help moisten entering air: This is accurate, as conchae increase surface area and disrupt air flow for better air conditioning.Mucus in the nasal cavity helps moisten air and removes smaller dust particles: Mucus production by goblet cells is indeed a key factor in trapping debris and moisturizing inhaled air.Most of the air inhaled does not directly enter the paranasal sinuses: This is typically true as the primary function of the paranasal sinuses does not involve direct air passage.The statement that is not correctly matched is therefore option a).
Describe the anatomical structure of the knee and why it is the most commonly injured joint of the body.
Answer:
The knee is made up of two bones, the femur and the tibia, among them is the patella attached to each other by means of ligaments.
The knee is the structure of the organism with greater load and mobility, for this reason, this joint is the one that is mostly injured in the human body
Where within the Gl tract does carbohydrate digestion begin? Where is carbohydrate digestion completed?
Answer:
The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth and ends in the small intestine.
Explanation:
The absorption of carbohydrates, depending on whether they are simple or complex, will begin their digestion in the mouth by the action of saliva in food, where starches are initially separated; Once this food bolus reaches the stomach, the hydrochloric acid acts, to end later in the small intestine. Amylase, a component of pancreatic juice, ends the digestive process of carbohydrates by transforming starches into maltose, which are then transformed into monisacarides (glucose, galactose, fructose), which is the way they are absorbed by the body. In the liver they are again transformed into glucose.
It is the fluid from the Prostate gland.
Answer:
Prostate fluid
Explanation:
Prostate fluid comes from the Prostate gland.
It propels seminal fluid into the urethra.