Answer:
G=21 %
T= 29 %
A= 29 %
Explanation:
Since C only binds to G, you have the same amount of C and G, so G is 21 %.
100 % minus 42 % ( 21 % C plus 21 % G=) equals 58 %.
So the other 58 % is made of T and A. Since T only binds to A , the half of the extra 58 % is T and the other half is A. Therefore 29 % is T and 29 % is A
How might protein synthesis execute differently if a mutation occurs?
Answer:
The kind of mutation that would affect protein synthesis is one that causes a change in the position of the stop or start codon on the mRNA. This would cause either an incomplete translation or overlengthening of the required proteins on the ribosome. Nonetheless, other mutations such as substitutions would still be translated in the ribosomes to a complete polypeptide. The only implication is that the changes in amino acid content on the polypeptide, due to mutations, will affect how the polypeptide folds into secondary or tertiary proteins which would eventually affect its function.
Fresh water fish have the same osmoregulatory mechanisms as the marine fish.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The osmoregulatory mechanisms in fishes are the gills, In freshwater, the gills pump in sodium ions, but in the ocean, they need to pump sodium and chloride ions out; to keep the osmoregulation.
The marine fishes gills have a particular type of cells called chloride cells. The membrane of these cells has a sodium and potassium pump that regulates the amount of sodium and potassium that comes and goes inside the cell.
Light dependent repair is carried out by which of the following enzymes?
a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA photolyase
d. RNA polymerase
e. DNA helicase
Answer:
The correct answer is option c. "DNA photolyase".
Explanation:
DNA photolyase is an unique DNA repair enzyme that harvests the light energy to repair the lesions produced by the exposure of ultraviolet light. DNA photolyase is light dependent and there are two types: one for repairing cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers and the other for pyrimidine-(6-4)-pyrimidone photoproducts.
Protein phosphorylation is commonly involved with all of the following except
a. activation of receptor tyrosine kinases.
b. activation of protein kinase molecules.
c. activation of G protein-coupled receptors.
d. regulation of transcription by signaling molecules.
Protein phosphorylation is not involved in activation of G protein coupled receptor.
Further Explanation:
Roles of Protein phosphorylation are :
To involve in signal transduction.To help in membrane transport .To regulate cell cycle.G- protein coupled receptor is activated through the external signals in the forms of ligand.
In this, ligand binds to the active site and cause conformation changes in receptor and active G- protein.
Protein phosphorylation is a key process in many biological functions but it is not directly involved in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Those receptors are activated by the binding to a specific signaling molecule, not phosphorylation.
Explanation:Protein phosphorylation is a biochemical process that adds a phosphate group to a protein molecule, significantly affecting its function. Indeed, protein phosphorylation is involved in the activation of receptor tyrosine kinases, the activation of protein kinase molecules, and regulation of transcription by signaling molecules. However, phosphorylation is not directly involved in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors. Instead, these receptors are activated by binding to a specific signaling molecule or ligand, leading to a cascade of signaling events within the cell.
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Alteration of DNA or Chromatin structure is a form of gene regulation seen more in Eukaryotes than Bacteria, why is this?
Answer:
Eukaryotes are more composite in comparison to prokaryotes like bacteria. In eukaryotes, the processes of translation and transcription take place in distinct compartments like translation take place in cytosol and transcription takes place in the nucleus.
However, in bacteria both the procedures take place in cytosol as the genetic substance of bacteria is found in the mid of the cell, which lacks nuclear membrane.
In prokaryotes these processes are comparatively simple, however, in eukaryotes, these processes are highly composite and need regulation. In prokaryotes the control takes place only at the level of transcription, while in eukaryotes the regulation of gene takes place at both transcription and posttranslational level.
Draw the amino acids alanine ( R group-CH3) and serine
(RgroupCH2OH) and then show how a dehydration
reactionwill form a peptide bond between them.
Answer:
As shown in figure.
Explanation:
The dehydration reaction implies the appearance of water as a residue after the bond is formed.
The reaction is carried on in various steps, as shown in the figure below.
First, the oxigen in the carboxilic acid takes the pairing electron an debonds from the molecule, after which the amino in the other aminoacid attacks this positive charge and attachs to the first molecule.
The negatively charged hydroxyl group remaining attacks the hydrogen in the amino removing the positive charge ballancing the reaction and forming water, remaining a peptide bond between both aminoacids and lefting water as a residue.
To draw alanine and serine amino acids and show how a dehydration reaction forms a peptide bond between them.
Explanation:To draw the amino acids alanine and serine, we start by representing the central carbon atom, known as the alpha carbon, with four groups bonded to it. In the case of alanine, one of the groups is a methyl group (CH3) and in the case of serine, one of the groups is a hydroxyl group (CH2OH).
To form a peptide bond between alanine and serine, we remove a molecule of water. The carboxyl group of alanine will react with the amino group of serine, resulting in the formation of a peptide bond. The structure would be:
CH3-CH(NH2)-CO-NH-CH2OH
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Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?
a. habitat isolation
b. temporal isolation
c. behavioral isolation
d. gametic isolation
Answer: The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
Behavioral isolation is a type pre-zygotic reproductive isolation, that is, it prevents the formation of zygote.
It includes all the differences the organisms of different species have in choosing a mate.
It includes all the rituals followed by the organisms before reproduction.
For example, pattern of mating dance, voice (singing) pattern, fighting rituals, et cetera.
So, if the two species follow different rituals or behavior then they do not tend interbreed.
The same is given in the question the two species of fruit fly follow different courtship rituals due to which they do not interbreed.
Thus, it is an example of behavioral isolation.
Explain the importance of immunological memory cells. Describe in detail how and when memory cells arise and explain how they form the basis for effective immunizations.
Explanation:
Immunological memory is the property of the immune system to store information about a stimulus so it can mount an effective response if it encounters the same stimulus again being this second response quicker and stronger even after years since the first encounter.
This kind of response is dependent on many subpopulations within T and B lymphocytes and NK cells. When encountering an antigen, B cells recognize it by membrane antibody specifically binding to the antigen and then being activated to expand rapidly with their progeny clones differentiating into plasma and memory B cells, these last ones have a long life span to remain in the body, ready when another encounter with the same stimulus occurs, this is how the basis for effective immunizations happens.
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Scientific evidence indicates that the CO2 added to the air by the burning of wood and fossil fuels is contributing to global warming, a rise in global temperature. Tropical rain forests are estimated to be responsible for approximately 20% of global photosynthesis, yet the consumption of large amounts of CO2 by living trees is thought to make little or no net contribution to reduction of global warming. Why might this be? (Hint: What processes in both living and dead trees produce CO2?)
Answer:
The trees in tropical rainforests exhibit very less or no effect on the decline of global warming as these living species by themselves donate to the emanation of carbon dioxide via the process of respiration. Though the trees use carbon dioxide in the process of photosynthesis, however, they balance this is donating the carbon dioxide back to the atmosphere via respiration.
The process of photosynthesis takes place only at the time of day, however, the process of respiration takes place both during day and night and in certain plants known as C3 plants, who exhibit one more kind of respiration known as photorespiration, which takes place in the existence of light and again discharges carbon dioxide.
With some exemptions, the majority of the tropical trees are C3 plants. Thus, in spite of contributing 20 percent of the global photosynthesis, their contribution to diminishing global warming is negligible or nil because of the production of carbon dioxide by the process of respiration.
The processes of respiration in plants, deforestation/decay of trees or bush burning contribute largely to global carbon dioxide burden.
Plants take in carbon dioxide via the process of photosynthesis. As such, plants are expected to contribute to the reduction of the global carbon dioxide burden especially in the tropical rain forest which has an abundance of vegetation.
However, plants also undergo cellular respiration which produce carbon dioxide. In the process of cellular respiration, oxygen breaks down glucose to yield carbon dioxide and water. This contributes to the global burden of carbon dioxide thereby counteracting the large amounts of CO2 taken in by living trees.
Secondly, when trees die or are cut down and left to rot or when trees are burned, CO2 is released. It is estimated that about 30 million acres of forest lands are lost yearly to deforestation, this results in the release of about 1.5 billion tonnes of CO2. It is suggested that about 10 per cent of global carbon dioxide emissions result from deforestation especially in the tropical rain forest.
Therefore, consumption of large amounts of CO2 by living trees makes little or no net contribution to reduction of global warming.
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Plantlike photosynthesis that releases O2 occurs in
(A) cyanobacteria.
(B) archaea.
(C) gram-positive bacteria.
(D) chemoautotrophic bacteria
Answer:
Cyanobacteria. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes, are a phylum of bacteria. They are also called as blue-green algae and obtain their energy through the process of photosynthesis. They are commonly found in fresh water and terrestrial environment such as land, in rocks even in animal cells (fur).
Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic (oxygenic) bacteria. They harvest the energy of sun, absorb carbon dioxide and release O2. Cyanobacteria also contain chlorophyll such as plants and algae and convert carbon dioxide to sugar through the process of carbon fixation.
Cyanobacteria lack nucleus and other organelles like found in algae and plants. Instead of these they have double outer cell membrane and folded inner thylakoid member which are used in the process of photosynthesis.
Plant like photosynthesis that releases oxygen occurs in cyanobacteria and the correct option is option A.
Cyanobacteria are a group of prokaryotic organisms that are photosynthetic. They are also known as "blue-green algae" because they produce a blue-green pigment called phycocyanin.
Cyanobacteria are found in a wide variety of habitats, including freshwater, saltwater, and soil. They are also found in extreme environments, such as hot springs and deserts.
Cyanobacteria are important for the environment because they produce oxygen. They are also responsible for the formation of some types of rocks, such as stromatolites.
Thus, the ideal selection is option A.
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Spermatogenesis takes place within the ________________
Answer:
The correct answer is - seminiferous tubules.
Explanation:
The seminiferous tubules are part of the reproductive organ which is present within the testes in males. It is the site of production, development, maturation of the sperm or the procedures spermatogenesis. In this reproductive organ, meiosis takes place to make sperm or male gametes.
The spermatogenesis is a three-stage process of producing mature spermatozoa from the stem cells or germ cells. The first phase is spermcytogenesis in which germ cells go under mitotic division followed by the second phase which is meiosis of the cell of the first phase and in the last phase is spermiogenesis.
Thus, the correct answer is - seminiferous tubules.
Spermatogenesis takes place within the seminiferous tubules. It begins with spermatogonia that produce primary spermatocytes through mitosis, which then go through meiosis to become sperm.
Explanation:Spermatogenesis takes place within the seminiferous tubules. The process begins with spermatogonia, which are stem cells that undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes. These primary spermatocytes then undergo meiosis to become secondary spermatocytes, which eventually develop into sperm.
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In Bufo marinus, what is the name of the posterior part of the vertebral column?
a. 9th vertebrae
b. 10th vertebrae
c. urostyle
d. hypoglossal nerve
Answer:
c. urostyle
Explanation:
Urostyle is the given name to the particular structure involving the last group of vertebrates which are fused in a single posterior bone in amphibians.
Which of the following is the correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the codon sequence AUG?
a. AUG
b. GUA
c. TAC
d. UAC
e. CAU
Answer:
d. UAC
Explanation:
An anticodon, present on tRNA, is the complementary sequence to a determined codon on the mRNA. tRNA is responsible for placing the aminoacids in the correct order when a protein is being translated, and it does so by complementary binding the codons on the mRNA. Each tRNA can hold a different aminoacid, so, for example, the codon AUG encodes the aminoacid methionine, and this means that only a tRNA that has an anticodon with the sequence UAC will be able to hold metionine and place it on its position on the protein sequence.
Final answer:
The correct anticodon sequence that corresponds with the mRNA codon AUG is UAC. This anticodon-codon pairing is essential for the proper translation of genetic information from mRNA into proteins during protein synthesis.
Explanation:
The correct anticodon sequence corresponding to the codon sequence AUG is UAC. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides forming a unit of genetic code in a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule, corresponding to a complementary codon in messenger RNA (mRNA). During the translation process in protein synthesis, the anticodon pairs with a codon according to base-pairing rules (adenine (A) with uracil (U) and cytosine (C) with guanine (G)). Since the mRNA codon AUG codes for the initiation of protein synthesis and also specifies the incorporation of methionine (Met), the tRNA molecule with the anticodon UAC is the one that pairs with it, bringing methionine into the growing peptide chain.
Visualize the structural formula of each of the following hydrocarbons. Which hydrocarbon has a double bond in its carbon skeleton?
(A) C3H8
(B) C2H6
(C) C2H4
(D) C2H2
Answer:
C₂H₄
Explanation:
A hydrocarbon with a double bond is called an alkene. The general formula for an alkene is CₙH₂ₙ where as the n represents the number of carbons.
Taking your problem as an example:
C₂H₄ has 2 carbons, as indicated by the subscript beside the chemical symbol of Carbon.
if C = 2 then n = 2
CₙH₂ₙ = C₂H₂₍₂) = C₂H₄
What are the parts of the Hiv Virus and how do they take part in infecting cells, but also maybe helping the virus survive?
Answer:
Envelope, Capsid, Enzymes, RNA, Glycoproteins
Explanation:
HIV is the Human Immunodeficiency Virus which belongs to the retrovirus. HIV infects humans and causes AIDS ( Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). The several parts of HIV are there;
1. HIV Envelope: It is the outer covering of the HIV.
2. Capsid: it is the HIV core which contains genetic material RNA.
3. HIV Enzymes: Enzymes reverse transcriptase are responsible for the entire life cycle of HIV to synthesize the viral protein.
4. HIV RNA: RNA is the genetic material of HIV.
5. Glycoproteins: These are the protein spikes that are fitted in the HIV envelope.
HIV is a retrovirus which infects the WBCs of the human beings and attached to the helper T-cells (T4 lymphocytes). They control over the host DNA and replicate in the host's cell and synthesize more viruses.
Infectious HIV can be recovered from the dead body of human beings in between 11 and 16 days after death if the body keeps at a low temperature i.e. 2 degree Celsius.
Bryophytes never formedforests (mats maybe, but not forests)
because
A) they possess flagellated sperm.
B) of bacterial parasites
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue.
D) they have no adaptations to prevent desiccation.
E) their rhizoids were too weak.
Answer:
C) they lack lignified vascular tissue. ( Since they do not have vascular tissues, they are not able to develop vertically like the trees we know.)
Explanation:
A) Plants do not have "sperm". They have sporophytes or gametophytes.
B) No specific parasitic bacteria of bryophytes are known.
D) In fact, they have. Although they require water for their reproduction, some species of bryophytes are found in deserts.
E) Rhizoids are not weak, otherwise they would not have the ability to keep bryophytes attached (mosses).
Which would have the highest melting temperature?
a. 5'-AATTCGAAT-3'
b. 5'-ACGGCTACG-3'
Answer:
Option (b).
Explanation:
Melting temperature may be defined as the temperature at which the DNA strand melts. The melting temperature depends on the Guanine and cytosine content of the DNA.
The thymine binds with Adenine with two hydrogen bonds whereas cytosine binds with guanine with three hydrogen bonds. More energy is required to break the guanine cytosine bonds and they have high temperature. The second strand 5'-ACGGCTACG-3' contains more GC content and hence have high melting temperature.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Which of the following is not one of Chargoff's rules?
a. The amount of A, T, G, and C in DNA varies from species to species, but not within species
b. In each species, the amount of A = T and the amount of G = C
c. In every species, the amount of purines (A+G) equals the amount of pyrimidines (T+C)
d. In every species, DNA is a simple repeating polymer made up of the same four nucleotides.
Answer:
The answer is:
d. In every species, DNA is a simple repeating polymer made up of the same four nucleotides.
Explanation:
Chargaff’s rules are based in the quantitative relationship of the nucleotides (adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine) that form part of the double strand of DNA.
One of the rules states that the amount of adenine (A) is the same as thymine (T), and that the amount of guanine (G) is the same as cytosine (C). A=T, G=C
Being said in another way: the total amount of purine bases it’s the same as the total amount of pyrimidine bases. (A + G= C + T).
The second rule states that the composition of DNA (the amount of nucleotides) is different from one species to other, but nor within species.
The nurse is caring for a client after insertion of an implanted insulin pump. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
a. " I should expect to gain less weight with this pump."
b. " I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat".
c. "This will help me to have better control of my blood sugar ".
d. "This pump delivers a continuous infusion of insulin throughout the day ".
Answer:
" I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat".
Explanation:
Insulin pumps are devices that deliver insulin to the body through a thin tube which is called an infusion set. The insulin pump delivers insulin into the body throughout the day and hence, for people who struggle with high blood sugar levels, it helps replace the need for insulin injections. The statement " I need to make sure I still give my insulin before I eat" indicates that the client needs further instructions as the client is not very clear with the fact that the pump continuously delivers the insulin in the body and he is thinking of taking insulin before his meals which is not required.Imagine that you caught a female albino mouse in your kitchen and decided to keep it for a pet. A few months later, while vacationing in Guam, you caught a male albino mouse and decided to take it home for some interesting genetic experiments. You wonder whether the two mice are both albino due to mutations in the same gene. What could you do to find out the answer to this question? Assume that both mutations are recessive.
Answer:
You can cross them. If all offspring are albinos, then both mutations are in the same gene, if not, then mutations are in different genes.
Explanation:
Traits are controlled by genes, which are composed by at least two alleles. Alleles, or mutations, can be dominant, or recessive. To observe a dominant trait, you need at least one dominant allele in the gene, while to observe the recessive trait you need both alleles in the gene to be recessive.
If mutations are in the same gene:
When you cross homozygous dominant individuals, all the offspring will be wild type (non-mutated). When you cross heterozygous individuals, 3/4 of the offspring will be wild type (non-mutated), and 1/4 will express the recessive mutation. Finally, when you cross homozygous recessive individuals, all the offspring will express the recessive mutation.
If mutations are in different genes, then these proportions of the offspring do not apply because alleles do not interact.
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs during
a. The electron transport chain
b. Formation of NADH
c. Formation of FADH2
d. Formation of CoA from acetyl CoA
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
Oxidative phosphorylation is a process which leads to the formation of ATP molecule. During oxidative phosphorylation, the transfer of electrons from reducing equivalents like NADH and FADH₂ formed during cellular respiration to oxygen leads to the formation of ATP.
Since oxidative phosphorylation involves the transfer of electrons from these equivalents through the electron transport chain which takes place in the inner membrane space of mitochondria. Therefore, oxidative phosphorylation and electron transport chain are interlinked.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
why does the x axis of a dose-response curve use log units?
Applying logarithm to the x axis of the dose response curve is a math trick that will linearize the middle zone of the curve and will allow you to visualize better the EC50 of the drug. Also the numbers on the x axis are easier to write since they are larger when you apply the logarithm to the concentrations.
What are the stages of labor and delivery?
A. Contractions and delivery
B. Dilation and delivery
C. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta
D. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby
E. Labor and delivery
The correct answer is C. Dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta
Explanation:
Labor and delivery is divided into three main stages: the first stage includes the latent phase in which cervical dilation begins (3 to 5 cm) along with mild contractions and the active phase in which strong contractions occur along with complete or almost complete dilation; the second phase is the fetus expulsion or delivery in which the cervix is fully dilated and the baby is born; and the third stage is the delivery or expulsion of the placenta that occurs as the placenta separates from the uterus and is expulsed through mild contractions. Thus, stages of labor and delivery are dilation, strong contractions, and delivery of the baby and the placenta.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
L&D is divided up into 3 parts.
1st is when the cervix dilates from 1cm to 10 cm. Can last from anywhere from 10 hours to a couple days.
2nd is shorter and is the pushing phase. Can last anywhere from 5 minutes to 3 hours.
3rd is the expulsion of the placenta. Can last from 10 minutes to 1 hour.
The two major theories of the origin of flight are the Top-down (arboreal) theory and the Bottom-up (terrestial) theory. However, there is a hybrid theory known as the WAIR theory. Which of these best describes that theory?
a. Wings were used to support gliding from tree to tree and eventually transitioned into a flapping motion
b. Wings were used to help predatory runners to keep their balance or add lift while leaping to catch prey
c. Wings were used to generate lift to takeoff during flapping flight
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
e. Wings were used to generate propulsion while swimming in the water
Answer:
d. Wings were used in a flapping motion to help climb up steep inclined slopes such as trees
Explanation:
According to Top-down ( arboreal ) theory, feathered bird/dinosaur were tree dwelling species. They leaped in between trees to catch prey or avoid predators. They evolved flight mechanism to be able to glide better. According to Bottom-up ( terrestrial ) theory, feathered bird/ dinosaur were ground dwelling species. They used feathers to be able to sprint better and maintain balance while doing so. They also got lift with the help of feathers before running.
Both of these theories either considered origin of flight as a mechanism formed from tree dwelling species or by ground dwelling species. WAIR theory or Wing Assisted Incline Running theory had components from both of them. According to it, birds could run along steep or inclined slopes using wings, so they neither had to be completely tree dwelling or completely ground dwelling. Wings propelled them up the slopes and also conserved their energy.
Huntington disease is a rare fatal, degenerative neurological disease in which individuals start to show symptoms, on average, in their 40s. It is caused by a dominant allele. Joe, a man in his 20s, just learned that his father has Huntington disease. a. What is the probability that Joe will also develop the disease? b. Joe and his new wife have been eager to start a family. What is the probability that their first child will eventually develop the disease?
Answer:
a. 50% b. 25%
Explanation:
If you have a dominant disease, you will always have it if you have the gen.
Joe's father has it.
If his father was heterozygous dominant, he has two genes for the same trait and could have the other gen recessive.
In this case, you have a 50% chance of joe having the disease.
If his wife did not have the disease, and joe has it, the chances of their child to have it is 25%
To know that, you can draw the possibilities.
Joe's father: Aa (A is the dominant, sick gen)
Joe's mother: aa
Aa x aa = Aa Aa aa aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
Joe's possibilities: Aa or aa
Joe's wife: aa
Possibilities of offspring:
Aa x aa = 50% having it Aa 50% not having it aa.
aa x aa = 100% not having the disease.
Their child has 1/4 posibilities to have it
Joe has a 50% chance of having inherited Huntington's disease from his father, and if Joe carries the allele, there is also a 50% chance that he will pass the allele on to his child, potentially resulting in the child developing the disease.
Explanation:Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning only one copy of the defective allele is enough to cause the disease. If a person has the disease, they carry at least one copy of the mutated allele.
a. Given Joe's father has Huntington's disease, and assuming his mother does not carry the gene (since it's not indicated that she has the disease or is a carrier), Joe has a 50% probability of having inherited the disease-causing allele from his father.
b. If Joe inherited the Huntington allele, there's a 50% chance that he would pass this allele on to any of his children. Therefore, the probability that Joe and his wife's first child will eventually develop the disease is also 50%, provided Joe carries the allele. If Joe does not have the allele, then their child cannot inherit the disease from him.
What is tolerance? How is it critical to the normal functioning of the immune system
Answer:
The inhibition of an immune response in contradiction of a specific antigen is termed as tolerance. For example, the immune system is usually lenient of self-antigens, so it does not generally attack the tissues, cells, and organs of one’s own body.
It plays a critical role in the immune system as if immunological self-tolerance is mislaid, the body develops autoimmunity against its own cells and tissues that turn out to be the source of the autoimmune disorder.
Which of the following is not true of a codon?
a. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon.
b. It never codes for more than one amino acid.
c. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule.
d. It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
Answer:
It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule. (Ans. C)
Explanation:
Codon or genetic code, the sequence of nucleotides in DNA and RNA which determines the amino acid sequence of the proteins. The linear sequence of nucleotides present in DNA has the information for protein sequence, proteins are not directly synthesized from DNA, an mRNA molecule is synthesized from DNA and complete the formation of proteins.
RNA is composed of 4 nucleotides adenine, cytosine, uracil and guanine. Three nucleotides constitute a unite which is called Codon, which helping to codes the amino acids. Example AUG is a codon that specifies the amino acid methionine. It is found at the starting of every mRNA and indicates the start of a protein.
There are 64 codons, 3 of them are not coding for an amino acid but indicate the end of the protein, the remaining 61 codons specify the 20 amino acids which help in makeup the proteins.
The statement that is not true of a codon is that it extends from one end of a tRNA molecule. Codons are on mRNA and correspond with anticodons on tRNA, which carry the appropriate amino acids.
Explanation:The statement c. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule is not true of a codon. A codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in DNA or RNA that either codes for a specific amino acid or signals a stop to protein synthesis. The function of tRNA is to 'read' the codons and carry the appropriate amino acids to the site of protein synthesis, but the codon itself does not extend from one end of a tRNA molecule. Codons are on mRNA and the corresponding 3-nucleotide sequences on tRNA are called anticodons.
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What is the probability that a family of five children will
consistof a blue, a brown, a blue, a blue and a brown -eyed child
in thisorder. Assume the parents are those in problem 1.
Revised below:
1) Two brown eyed parents are each heterozygous for a recessiveblue
eyed gene.
There is a 1/512 probability or roughly 0.2% chance of having this specific eye color order in five children.
1. Parental Genotypes:
Both parents are Bb, where B represents the dominant brown-eyed gene and b represents the recessive blue-eyed gene. Since they're heterozygous, each parent has a 50% chance of passing on either B or b to their children.
2. Offspring Possibilities:
For each child, there's a 50% chance of inheriting B from either parent and a 50% chance of inheriting b. This results in four possible genotypes for each child: BB (brown eyes), Bb (brown eyes but carrying the blue-eyed gene), bB (brown eyes but carrying the blue-eyed gene), and bb (blue eyes).
3. Specific Order Probability:
We want a specific sequence of eye colors: blue, brown, blue, blue, brown. Let's calculate the probability of each color happening independently in this order:
First child: Blue eyes (bb) – probability of both parents passing the b gene = (1/2) * (1/2) = 1/4
Second child: Brown eyes (Bb or BB) – probability of at least one parent passing the B gene = 1 - (1/4) = 3/4
Third child: Blue eyes (bb) – same as first child = 1/4
Fourth child: Blue eyes (bb) – same as first child = 1/4
Fifth child: Brown eyes (Bb or BB) – same as second child = 3/4
4. Multiplying Probabilities:
To get the overall probability of this specific order, we need to multiply the individual probabilities:
(1/4) * (3/4) * (1/4) * (1/4) * (3/4) = 1/512
5. The Answer:
So, the probability of having a family with the specific eye color order you described is 1/512 or roughly 0.2%. This means it's quite unlikely to happen, but not impossible!
The antibiotic rifampin inhibits the bacterial RNA polymerase, preventing it from binding to the promoter region. This inhibits ___________
a. translation
b. transcription
c. transposition
d. transduction
e. transformation
Answer:
b. transcription
Explanation:
Transcription is the process by RNA is synthesized from DNA. It is carried out by RNA Polymerase enzyme which uses DNA as template. It builds new RNA strand in 5' to 3' direction from the template strand. A gene to be transcribed has a promoter region in front of it. RNA Polymerase is required to bind to this region to begin transcription. Once it binds to this region, the two DNA strands separate locally starting the process of transcription.
Rifampin inhibits RNA transcription by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA Polymerase. It binds to the beta sub unit of RNA Polymerase which does not allow it to properly bind to the promoter region thus halting transcription process.
Discuss the meaning and significance of the fact that the
genetic code is degenerate.
Answer:
When a single amino acid is encoded by more than one codon.
Explanation:
Degeneracy is when a single amino acid is encoded by more than one codon. This pehonomenon was first described by Lagerkvist where there are more codons than amino acids that could be encoded.