Oak Inc. has the following information regarding its assets: Book Value Estimated Undiscounted Cash Flows Fair Value Equipment $ 48,000 $ 43,000 $ 40,000 Building $ 81,000 $ 83,000 $ 78,000 Patent $ 43,000 $ 47,000 $ 45,000 What amount of loss should be recorded due to asset impairments

Answer:

The price of the stock will be $76.97

Explanation:

We first need to determine the constant growth rate on dividends.

Growth rate (g) = (D1 - D0) / D0  

Growth rate (g) = (2.08 - 2.00) / 2   =  0.04 or 4%

To calculate the price of a stock today whose dividends are growing at a constant rate, we use the constant growth model of DDM. The price of the stock today under this model is,

P0 = D1 / ( r - g )

Where,

Thus, to calculate the price of the stock today at t=10, we will use the dividend expected in Year 11 or D11.

D11 = D0 * (1+g)^11

Where P10 is the price 10 years from today.

P10 = 2 * (1+0.04)^11 / (0.08 - 0.04)

P10 = $76.97

Answer: Please refer to Explanation

Explanation:

a) Due to the laws of supply and demand, new discoveries of Iron ore that have been discovered had the impact of reducing the price of Iron Ore. Iron Ore is a major component of Steel so it means Steel becomes cheaper to make. As a result of this, more steel will be produced. This would shift the short run AGGREGATE SUPPLY curve to the RIGHT.

b) The actions of the FED will result in the Short run AGGREGATE DEMAND CURVE shifting to the right. This is because interest rates are lower so people and businesses will borrow more for consumption and investment. Hence increasing Aggregate Demand.

c) Higher nominal wages will have to effect of increasing the labour cost for suppliers and producers. This would mean that input costs for Production will increase. This will have the impact of SHIFTING the short run AGGREGATE SUPPLY curve to the LEFT because the suppliers will supply less as it would be more expensive to produce more.

d) The AGGREGATE DEMAND CURVE is plotted against price. If prices drop, there will be a DOWNWARD movement ALONG the shortrun Aggregate Supply Curve as will buy more and invest more. I included a graph to demonstrate this.

Answer:

Requirement 1

J1

Raw materials $210,000 (debit)

Trade Payable $210,000 (credit)

J2

Work -In- Progress - Direct materials $178,000  (debit)

Work -In- Progress - Indirect materials $12,000 (debit)

Raw materials $190,000

J2

Work -In- Progress - Direct labor $90,000 (debit)

Work -In- Progress - Indirect labor  $110,000 (debit)

Wages and Salaries Payable $200,000(credit)

J4

Work -In- Progress - Depreciation $40,000 (debit)

Accumulated Depreciation - factory equipment $40,000 (credit)

J5

Overheads $70,000 (debit)

Payable $70,000 (credit)

J6

Work -In- Progress $240,000 (debit)

Overheads $240,000 (credit)

J7

Finished Goods $520,000 (debit)

Work - In - Progress $520,000 (credit)

Requirement 2

Manufacturing Overhead Account

Debit :

Payable $70,000

Under-Applied Overheads $170,000

Credit:

Work-in-Progress $240,000

Work in Process Account

Debit :

Work in Process Beginning $42,000

Raw materials $190,000

Wages and Salaries Payable $200,000

Accumulated Depreciation - factory equipment $40,000

Credit:

Finished Goods $520,000

Work in Process Ending $42,000

Explanation:

Prepare the journals as appropriate.

Answer:

The restaurant's profit per meal= consumers WTP for per meal - ATC per meal = $13 - $10 = $3

Given that restaurants sells 240 meals per day at this price the profit is

= $3 * 240 = $720    

A) The size of the firms profit is $ 720.

B) As it can be seen that firm is making profit so there will be an entry into the industry since the other firms will try to capture some of the economic profit.

Also, the entry of other firms will reduce the demand for the restaurant which will lead the demand curve to shift to the left.

C) Now, the allocative efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals. In the long-run, restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meal and the marginal cost of 180th meal is $9.

Thus, the size of the economic profits in the long run is always zero in monopolistic competitive market.

D) The dead-weight loss for the firm is exactly equal to $40 because the difference between the Marginal Benefit as given by the demand curve i.e., $11 and the Marginal Cost as given by the MC curve is $9, so the difference is equal to $2 ($11 - $9) for all the units between 180th and 200th.

Thus, the dead-weight loss is = $2 * (200-180)

= $2 * 20

= $40

Hence the dead-weight loss is $40.

The monopolistically competitive restaurant makes a profit of $720 which signals potential entry of more restaurants to the market. In the long-run equilibrium, if the restaurant charges $11 per meal and the marginal cost of the meal is $9, the company would make an economic profit of $360. The Deadweight loss to society if this firm is producing less than the allocatively efficient quantity will be exactly $40.

a. In the case of the monopolistically competitive restaurant, the firm's total cost per meal is $10, while the price at which consumers are willing to pay is $13. Therefore, the profit per meal is the difference between the price and the cost, which is $3. Total profit is then $3 multiplied by the number of meals served, or $3 x 240 = $720, so this restaurant firm is making a profit of $720.

b. As the restaurant is making a profit, this is a signal for entry in the long run, implying that more restaurants will open up and start providing meals to customers. This competition will push prices down and move the restaurant's demand curve left, as it won't be able to command such high prices with more competition.

c. If in the long-run equilibrium this restaurant serves 180 meals at $11 and the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9, then profit per meal is $2. The entire economic profit of the firm in this case will be $2 x 180 = $360.

d. Assuming the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 200 meals, but the company only produces 180 meals, the difference in production is 20 meals. If the price charged is $11 and the marginal cost is $9, then the total deadweight loss is $2 X 20 = $40. Therefore, the deadweight loss for this firm is exactly $40, not less or greater.

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To determine the price of the bonds, multiply the quoted prices by their respective par values.

To determine the price of the bonds, we need to multiply the quoted prices by their respective par values. For the Treasury note, we multiply 97.844 by $1,000 to get $97,844. For the corporate bond, we multiply 103.25 by $1,000 to get $103,250. For the municipal bond, we multiply 101.90 by $5,000 to get $509,500.

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Final answer:

To find the cash flow from disposal, calculate the tax savings resulting from the depreciation of the machine and subtract it from the selling price. The cash flow from disposal is $2,033.37.

Explanation:

To find the cash flow from disposal, we need to calculate the tax savings resulting from the depreciation of the machine.

Step 1: Calculate the depreciation expense for each year:

Step 2: Calculate the total depreciation over the four years: $3,000 + $3,840 + $2,099.52 + $893.62 = $9,833.14

Step 3: Calculate the tax savings using the tax rate of 20%: $9,833.14 * 0.20 = $1,966.63

Step 4: Calculate the cash flow from disposal by subtracting the tax savings from the selling price: $4,000 - $1,966.63 = $2,033.37

Final answer:

The cash flow from disposal of the machine sold by Eastern Inc. at the end of four years for $4,000, after accounting for MACRS depreciation and a 20% tax rate, is $3,718.40.

Explanation:

To calculate the cash flow from disposal of a machine under MACRS, we need to establish the book value of the machine at the time of sale and the total gain or loss on the sale. Eastern Inc. bought the machine for $15,000 and is selling it at the end of four years for $4,000. Under the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS), the fixed depreciation percentages for the first four years are 20%, 32%, 19.20%, and 11.52%, respectively.

The book value of the machine at the end of four years is the original cost minus the accumulated depreciation: $15,000 - $12,408 = $2,592.

The sale of the machine for $4,000 results in a gain of $4,000 - $2,592 = $1,408. Because this is a sale of business property, the gain is taxable. Eastern's tax rate is 20%, so the tax on the gain is 0.20 x $1,408 = $281.60. The cash flow from disposal is the sale price minus the tax owed: $4,000 - $281.60 = $3,718.40.

Final answer:

One noted disadvantage of profit-sharing plans is the necessity for employees to trust that management will accurately and transparently disclose the company's financial and profit information.

Explanation:

The disadvantage of profit sharing plans often noted is that employees must trust that management will accurately disclose financial and profit information. With profit and earnings distributed among employees, there's a direct correlation between the success of the business and benefits for employees—which can lead to improved productivity. However, the transparency necessary in financial disclosures does require trust in management's reporting.

As for the specific disadvantage choices provided, taxes on profit sharing plans are not necessarily heavier than on regular income, employers can receive tax benefits for contributing to retirement accounts of employees (though this depends on the jurisdiction and specific plan details), and employees can often access their profit sharing funds before three years in certain circumstances, such as financial hardship or plan rules.

Complete Question:(in order)

Michelle's Monopoly Mutant Turtle (MMMT) has the exclusive right to sell Mutant t-shirts in the United States. The demand for these t-shirts is

[tex]Q = \frac{22,500}{P^2}[/tex]

The firm's short-run cost is

SRTC = 1641 + 4Q,

and its long-run cost is

RTC-7Q

What quantity should MMMT sell to maximize profit in the short run?

MMMT should sell 351.56 units. (Enter a numeric response rounded to two decimal places,)

What price should MMMT charge in the short run?

MMMT should charge a price of $ 7.95. Enter a numeric response rounded to two decimal places)

How much profit does it make?

Profit equals $-234.740. (Enter a numeric response rounded to three decimal

Would it be better off shutting down in the short run?

The firm would be better off producing in the short run.

What quantity should MMMT sell in the long run?

MMMT should sell 114.80 units. (Enter a numeric response rounded to two decimal placos)

What price should MMMT charge in the long run?

MMMT should charge a price of $    (Enter a numeric response rounded to two decimal places)

Answer:

From the given parameters

the demand for these t-shirts is

[tex]Q = \frac{22500}{P^2}[/tex]

The firms short run cost is SRTC = 1641 + 4Q

Long run cost is  LRTC = 7Q

[tex]=> Q = \frac{22500}{P^2}=> P^2 = \frac{22500}{Q}\\=> P = \sqrt{\frac{22500}{Q}} = \frac{150}{\sqrt{Q}} = 150(Q)^{1/2}\\[/tex]

Thus revenue on the product of price and quantity becomes

[tex]PQ = 150Q^{-1/2}Q = 150Q{1-1/2} = 150Q^{1/2}[/tex]

Check the attached files for additional solution

Answer: a) 16.39%

b) 11.11%

c) 10%

d)7.25%

Explanation:

In calculating the nominal rate of return on a perpetual stock, the following formula is used,

rp = Dp/Vp.

Where,

r = rate of return,

D= dividend;

V = current market price of preferred stock

Dividend is 10% of Par

Dividend = 10% * 100

Dividend = $10

a) $61

= 10/61

= 0.16393442623

= 16.39%

b) $90

= 10/90

= 11.11%

c) $100

= 10/100

= 10%

d) $138

= 10/138

= 0.07246376811

= 7.25%

If you need any clarification do comment. Cheers.

The nominal rate of return on a perpetual preferred stock is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the current market price, then multiplying by 100. This is calculated separately for each current market price ($61, $90, $100, and $138) to get respective returns.

The nominal rate of return on a perpetual preferred stock is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the current market price of the stock, then multiplying by 100 to get the rate in percentage terms. In this case, the annual dividend is 10% of the $100 par value, which is $10.

For (a) When the current market price is $61, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $61) * 100 = 16.39%. (b) When the market price is $90, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $90) * 100 = 11.11%. (c) When the market price is $100, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $100) * 100 = 10%. (d) When the market price is $138, the nominal rate of return would be ($10 / $138) * 100 = 7.25%.

Please note, the market price and dividend rate can heavily influence the rate of return on investment in stock.

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Answer and Explanation:

a. The journal entries are shown below:

Cash Dr $2,040,000        (40,000 shares × $51)

      To Preferred stock  $2,000,000      (40,000 shares × $50)

      To Paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock  $40,000

(Being the issuance of preferred stock is recorded)

Since the cash is increased so it would be debited along with it the stockholder equity is also increased so preferred stock is credited and the remaining balance is transferred to the paid in capital

Cash Dr $3,360,000        (60,000 shares × $56)

      To Preferred stock  $3,000,000      (60,000 shares × $50)

      To Paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock  $360,000

(Being the issuance of preferred stock is recorded)

Since the cash is increased so it would be debited along with it the stockholder equity is also increased so preferred stock is credited and the remaining balance is transferred to the paid in capital

b. The posting is as follows

                                        Preferred Stock

 Date           Debit             Date                Credit

                                                   1-Feb           $2,000,000

                                                   1-Jul           $3,000,000

                       Paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock

Date           Debit            Date                 Credit

                                                  1-Feb               $40,000

                                                  1-Jul                $360,000

c. As we know that the stockholder equity comprises of common stock, preferred stock, retained earning, treasury stock, etc

So, the presentation of the accounts is

Preferred stock, $50 par value, 100000 outstanding and issued - $5,000,000

Paid in capital in excess of par - Preferred stock - $400,000

These amount are a sum of preferred stock and paid in capital in excess of par

Final answer:

Journal entries for Penland Corporation's preferred stock issuance record cash inflows and the value of the stock at par, along with additional paid-in capital representing the premium over the par value. T-accounts reflect these transactions in stockholders' equity. The preferred stock would be presented in the equity section of the balance sheet, showing both the par value and the premium.

Explanation:

The student's question relates to journalizing and posting the preferred stock transactions for Penland Corporation and discussing the statement presentation of the preferred stock accounts.

Journal Entries:

(To record issuance of 40,000 shares of preferred stock at $51)

July 1 - Cash $3,360,000

(To record issuance of 60,000 shares of preferred stock at $56)

T-Accounts for Stockholders' Equity

Account                                                               -             Credit

Preferred Stock                                                            $5,000,000

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par, Preferred                    $400,000

The statement presentation of the preferred stock would show the par value times the number of shares issued, with an additional line item for the 'Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par' representing the premium over the par value paid by investors. The total stockholders' equity would include these amounts as part of the total equity.

Answer:

67,800 ounces

Explanation:

The amount of units produced by the manufacturer in a period is called equivalent units of production. It is calculated for the unit under process. We use the percentage of completion to calculate this. It includes the completed units and partially completed units.

In respect of Material

Units completed = 64,600 ounces

Partially completed = 3,200 (80% completed)

Equivalent Units  = Unit completed and transferred to Finished goods + Units in Work in Process x Completion percentage

Because the material is added at the beginning so all the units are considered as Equivalent units

Equivalent Units  = 64,600 + 3,200= 67,800 ounces

Answer:

The total equivalent units for direct materials if materials are added at the beginning of the process =

63,900

Explanation:

Since the direct materials are added at the beginning of the process, it simply means they are 100% complete

• Units started and completed=

(64,600-3,900) * 100%

= 60,700 * 100%

= 60,700

• Ending work in progress =

3,200 * 100%

= 3,200

Total equivalent units for direct materials if the materials are added at the beginning of the process=

60,700 + 3200

= 63,900

Answer:

$6,600

Explanation:

The units-of-production depreciation expense = (miles driven in year 2 / total estimated miles) × (cost of asset - Salvage value)

(20,000 / 100,000) x ($41,000 - $8,000)

0.2 x $33,000 = $6,600

I hope my answer helps you

Answer:

Output per Worker will fall. Then, Net Investment will increase & steady state will be resumed.

Explanation:

As per Solows model : Output or income per worker depends on capital stock per worker.

Output per worker is directly related to capital per worker : more capital per worker implies more output per worker & vice versa. So, output per worker curve is upward sloping, dependent on capital per worker. However, output per worker rises at a diminishing rate with capital per worker. So, it is a swamp shaped curve.

Solow model steady state is where : constant proportion of this 'income per worker' saved & invested = constant depreciation of the existing capital stock.

Disaster or war reducing capital per worker : reduces the output per worker also [as they are directly related]. This denotes the state before the steady state. Here, saving (gross investment) per worker is more than depreciation of the existing capital stock. So, there will be net addition to capital stock. Capital stock & output per worker would increase, proceeding towards steady rate.

Answer:

= $1,000,000  

Explanation:

Given that:

Because interest and proceeds from the bonds have been included in the cost of debt service, so to find the exact change, we must minus two of this expenses. Because the cost of debt increases more than the total of other items, so it will increase in the net position

So the formula to find out the net change position as following:

= Expenditures for debt service - Interest - proceeds of bonds

= $12,000,000 -  $7,000,000  - $4,000,000

= $1,000,000  

Hope it will find you well.

Answer:

price variance  $14,040 U

quantity variance  $ 5,650  F

rate variance          $  10,700  U

efficiency variance  $ 26,800 U

Explanation:

Missing information attached:

Purchase of Aluminium:

66 ending + 3,530 used - 46 beginning = 3,510

DIRECT MATERIALS VARIANCES

[tex](standard\:cost-actual\:cost) \times actual \: quantity= DM \: price \: variance[/tex]

std cost         $25.00

actual cost  $29.00

quantity             3,510 (purchase)

difference  $(4.00)

price variance  $(14,040.00)

[tex](standard\:quantity-actual\:quantity) \times standard \: cost = DM \: quantity \: variance[/tex]

std quantity             3756.00 (939 units x 4 pounds per unit)

actual quantity     3530.00

std cost                       $25.00

difference               226.00

quantity variance  $5,650.00

DIRECT LABOR VARIANCES

[tex](standard\:rate-actual\:rate) \times actual \: hours = DL \: rate \: variance[/tex]

std rate          $40.00

actual rate  $42.00

actual hours 5,350

difference  $(2.00)

rate variance  $(10,700.00)

[tex](standard\:hours-actual\:hours) \times standard \: rate = DL \: efficiency \: variance[/tex]

std  hours 4680.00

actual hours 5350.00

std rate  $40.00

difference -670.00

efficiency variance  $(26,800.00)

The variances for Schmidt Machinery Company are as follows: Purchase-price variance for aluminum is $3,510 unfavorable, usage variance for aluminum is $6,420 favorable, direct labor rate variance is $10,700 unfavorable, and direct labor efficiency variance is $26,800 unfavorable.

Solution

Answer:

Explanation:

1. Determine the total compensation cost pertaining to the stock option plan:-

Estimated fair value per option $2

X Option granted                        40 million

Total compensation                 $ 80 million

Answer:

Option D is correct one.

Debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $11,920

Explanation:

Allowance for doubtful accounts $11,920 Debit  

Accounts Receivables $11,920  Credit

Answer:

if price increases above $68 or decreases below $52, a profit is realized

Explanation:

At expiration, the break even if the stock price is equal to Call is :

-$60 + (-$5) + $3 = $68 (break even)

Put: -$3+ $60 + (-$5) = $52 (break even)

Therefore At expiration, your break even if the stock price is equal to:

if price increases above $68 or decreases below $52, a profit is realized.

Answer and Explanation:

First Link Services granted

1. Total compensation

$4.4 million × $5

=$ 22 million

2.

Dr Compensation Expenses 11 million

Cr Paid in capital restricted stock 11 million

Dr Paid in capital restricted stock 22 million

Cr Common stock 4.4 millon

Cr Paid in capital excess of 17.6 million

Answer:

7%

Explanation:

Data provided as per the question

Risk free rate = 0.4

Beta = 0.7

The computation of alpha of the stock is shown below:-

Expected return = Risk free rate + (Beta × Market rate of return)

Expected return = 0.4 + (0.7 × Market rate of return)

= 0.7

or 7%

Therefore for computing the alpha of the stock, we have applied the above formula.

Final answer:

In the regression equation for a stock's excess return, the alpha or the y-intercept is 0.4, signifying the stock's expected excess return when market excess return is zero. The R-square of 0.12 tells us that 12 percent of the stock's return variation is explained by the market's return variation.

Explanation:

The alpha of a stock, in a regression of the stock's excess return on the market excess return, represents the intercept of the regression equation. Given the regression equation E[Ri | RM] = 0.4 + 0.7*RM, the alpha of the stock is 0.4. This value indicates the expected excess return of the stock when the market excess return is zero. The value of alpha can provide insight into the stock's performance independent of the market's movements.

The R-square value of 0.12 or 12 percent indicates that only this percentage of the stock's excess return variation is explained by the market's excess return variation. Thus, the majority, that is, 88 percent (1 - R-square), of the variation in the stock's excess return is not explained by the market's excess return within this model.

Answer:

quantity supplied of labor at the sailboat factory will increase.

Explanation:

If it happens that the sailboat manufacturer increases the hourly wage paid to his employees, then the more employees will rush to the sailboat thereby increasing the quantity supplied of labor at the sailboat factory.

Answer:

A,D,E,F &G

Explanation:

IRR is the discount rate at which the Net Present value of a project becomes zero and over this rate the Net present value become negative. All the Projects with IRR Less than the relevant WACC will not be acceptable.

WACC

High = 12%

Average = 10%

Low = 8%

Compare all of the above WACC with each of the relevant WACC to find whether a project is acceptable or not.

Project Level of Risk IRR    Relevant WACC     Acceptable

A             Low ​       9.50%                8%                    Yes

B           Average   ​8.50%                10%                  No

C           Average   ​7.50%                10%                  No

D           Low          ​9.50%                8%                  Yes

E           High         ​14.50%                12%                  Yes

F           High         ​17.50%                12%                  Yes

G           Average  ​11.50%                10%                  Yes

Answer:

Equilibrium quantity will increase; Equilibrium price is ambiguous.

Explanation:

If the government removes a tax on the production of beer then as a result the producers of beer will increase their production level and this will increase the supply of beer in an economy. Therefore, there is a rightward shift in the supply curve of beer.

Simultaneously, the students are ready to party in the new quarter which indicates that the demand for beer increases. This will shift the demand curve for beer rightwards.

As a result of these shift in the demand curve and in the supply curve of beer, the equilibrium quantity of beer increases and the effect on equilibrium price of beer is ambiguous because that will be dependent upon the magnitude of the shift in the demand and supply curve.

Answer:

The correct option is C.

Explanation:

Foreign exchange gain or loss is the gain or loss made on transactions based on the movement in the exchange rates.

Answer:

In Barton and Barton Company's general journal, entry required include:

Debit Retained Earnings Account with $8.2 million

Credit Opening Inventory with $8.2 million

Being reversal of overstated inventory due to change from FIFO to Average cost method.

Explanation:

The debit entry to the Retained Earnings Account will reduce the balance by $8.2 million.  The effect of overstating the closing inventory is overstatement of the net income because the cost of sales was understated as a result of the inventory overstatement.

The credit entry to the Opening Inventory reduces the balance to the new balance based on the average cost method of $23.8 million.

The FIFO cost method or First-In, First-Out method is an inventory costing method that assumes that goods that were bought first were the ones to be sold first.  The inventory cost is therefore valued with the most recent quantity and cost price.

On the other hand, the Average Cost Method, also called the Weighted Average Cost Method, calculates the inventory cost by adding all the period's inventory and dividing it by the quantity for the period.  This gives an average cost which is in turn used to multiply the quantity of inventory at the end of the period to obtain the inventory cost.

Both methods are estimates that produce different results and affect the reported net income differently.  There is always the need for consistency in choosing the method to apply so that reported net income is not unduly distorted.

Answer:

$9,760

Explanation:

For computing the depreciation expense first we have to find out the depreciation rate which is shown below:

The computation of the depreciation per miles under the units-of-production method is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)

= ($138,000 - $16,000) ÷ (1,000,000 miles)

= ($122,000) ÷ (1,000,000 miles)

= $0.122 per miles

Now for the first year, it would be

= Miles driven in first year × depreciation per miles

= 80,000 miles × $0.122 per miles

= $9,760

Answer:

Explanation:

Revenue ($6.40 × 8,500) = $54,400

Cleaning supplies ($0.80 × 8,500) = $6,800

Electricity ($1,300 + ($0.15 × 8,500)) = $2,575

Maintenance ($0.20 × 8,500) = $1,700

Wages and salaries ($5,000 + ($0.30 × 8,500)) = $7,550

Administrative expenses ($4,000 + ($0.10 × 8,500)) = $4,850

Answer:

$5,600

Explanation:

AGI after casualties = AGI before casualties - Loss from damage to rental property + Personal casualty gain + Personal casualty loss = $30,000 - $6,000 + $4,000 - $4,000 = $24,000

AGI limit on casualty loss = $24,000 × 10% = $2,400

Itemized deductions = Casualty Loss - AGI limit on casualty loss + Loss from theft of bonds = $5,000  -$2,400 +  $3,000  = $5,600

Answer:

This statement is True

Explanation:

Benchmarking by definition involves evaluating services, workflow and other best practices of an organizations so that other companies of similar profile and size can learn from them. This is used in analysis and comparison to that of a similar company for the purpose of organizational improvement. In hotel industry, it can be in form of continuously measuring operational performance in revenues & occupancy rates, customer service excellence and employee incentive programs.

Answer:

Net increase in cash position is $18,960

From operations $128,160

From investing activities -$83,200

From Finance activities -$26,000

Explanation:

The income statement has been uploaded for your benefit.

The schedules attached tagged "workings" explains how we arrived at each change in cash flow by line item.

The cash flow statement is one of the most important forms of the financial statement being prepared at the end of the financial period to record the inflow and outflow of the cash by various business activities. It can be prepared either by direct or indirect method.

It bifurcates the transactions into three activities: Operating activity, investing activity, and financing activity.

The cash flow statement by the direct method is attached below in the image.

To know more about cash flow statements, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/2693044