Harvard biologist E.O. Wilson's research indicates that the planet is losing species at an unprecedented rate of 3 per hour, which is 100 to 1,000 times the natural background rate. This biodiversity crisis could lead to the loss of half of today's species within the century, highlighting the urgency of addressing this global issue.
Explanation:E.O. Wilson, a renowned Harvard biologist, has provided us with alarming insights into the current state of species extinction. His research indicates that we are losing species at an incredibly rapid rate, 3 species per hour and potentially 140,000 species per year. This rate is 100 to 1,000 times the historical average. These extinctions are permanent, leading to a significant decline in biodiversity.
In 2002, Wilson predicted that if the current rates of extinction continue, we might lose up to 50% of today's plant and animal species within this century. This prediction highlights the urgency and potential consequences of this biodiversity crisis. Considering that the natural background extinction rate is only about one per million species per year, the accelerated rate at which we are losing species is of grave concern for conservationists and scientists alike.
It is important to note that the extinction of species has far-reaching effects. It impacts ecosystem function, the potential for medical and technological advancements, and the overall health of our planet. Addressing this issue is crucial for maintaining the integrity of Earth's ecosystems and the resources they provide to humanity.
In which kind of solution is the concentration of solutes the same inside and outside of the cell?
Explanation: if im correct it should be isotonic solution because isotonic is when two solutions have the same osmotic pressure across a semipermeable membrane which allows for free movement of water across the membrane without changing the concentration of solutes on either side.
Hope this helps
Answer:
A.) isotonic
Explanation:
yes.
In ecosystems, plants transform light energy from the sun into chemical energy when they make sugar. This sugar can then be consumed by other organisms to be used as building blocks for other molecules such as proteins and fats. Or it can be transformed into other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy when the organism moves.
Answer:
Energy cannot be destroyed but moves from one state to another
Explanation:
In an ecosystem the dependence on energy is one of the main driving forces. Most animals and plants are always growing, changing location and moving and all these functions require energy. The energy after transformation from the sun, is referred to as biomass and the transfer of energy from one organism to another is called a food web.
The answer is:
D. Matter and energy can change forms and locations in ecosystems.
Final answer:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria transform solar energy into chemical energy stored as glucose. This sugar is then used by various organisms for energy and as building blocks for other molecules. (First option)
Explanation:
In ecosystems, plants transform light energy from the sun into chemical energy when they make sugar through a process called photosynthesis. This sugar, essentially glucose, serves as a vital source of energy for the plant. It can also be consumed by other organisms, such as animals and humans, fulfilling their energy requirements and enabling them to convert it into other forms like kinetic energy, which is used for movement.
Photosynthesis is a critical biological process where photoautotrophs, including plants, algae, and certain bacteria, absorb sunlight and use it to combine water and carbon dioxide into glucose. This energy-rich compound not only serves as a building block for other molecules such as proteins and fats but also acts as an energy source for themselves and other organisms that consume them.
Moreover, photosynthesis is indispensable for life on Earth as it provides most of the energy needed by living organisms and contributes to the atmospheric oxygen that aerobic beings require for respiration. The energy stored in the molecular bonds of glucose and other carbohydrates is a result of energy conversion that has been ongoing since ancient times, with fossil fuels being ancient stores of such energy.
Experiments by Charles Yanofsky in the 1950s and 1960s helped characterize the nature of tryptophan synthesis in E.coli. In one of Yanofsky's experiments, he identified glycine (gly) as the wild-type amino acid in position 211 of tryptophan synthetase, the product of the trpA gene. He identified two independent missense mutants with defective tryptophan synthetase at these positions that resulted from base-pair substitutions. One mutant encoded arginine (arg) and another encoded glutamic acid (glu). At position 235, wild-type tryptophan synthetase contains serine (ser), but a base-pair substitution mutant encodes leucine (leu). At position 243, the wild-type polypeptide contains glutamine, and a base-pair substitution mutant encodes a stop codon.
The most likely wild-type codon for position 235 is AGT/C. Identify the most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 235 and 243.
Answer:
Charles yanofsky established gene sequence and protein sequences are collinear in bacteria. He explains changes in DNA sequence can capable to produce changes in protein sequence at corresponding positions of bacteria.
The most likely wild-type codon for position 235 is AGT/C
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 211 is GGA/G
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 235 is UCA/G
The most likely wild-type codon(s) for position 243 is CAA/G
Under starvation conditions cells deaminate amino acids to produce carbon skeletons that enter the glycolytic pathway and the citric acid cycle to generate ATP. Nucleotides, on the other hand, are not broken down to yield energy. Select the statements that describe how cells metabolize nucleotides. a.Free bases released from nucleotide degradation are often reused for nucleotide synthesis. b.Nucleotides are hydrolyzed into ribose and nitrogenous bases. c.Purines are further metabolized to uric acid and pyrimidine degradation produces urea. d.Free bases from hydrolysis of nucleotides are further degraded into their amino acid precursors, glycine and aspartate. e.Although nucleotides can be hydrolyzed to release purine or pyrimidine bases, most organisms lack the enzymes to further degrade the free bases. Instead, free purine and pyrimidine bases are secreted into the bloodstream. During de novo synthesis of nucleotides, free bases released from degradation of nucleotides are attached to ribose.
Cells metabolize nucleotides by often reusing the free bases via salvage pathways, hydrolyzing nucleotides into ribose and nitrogenous bases, and breaking down purines into uric acid and pyrimidines into components that lead to urea.
Under starvation conditions, cells deaminate amino acids to produce carbon skeletons that enter the glycolytic pathway and the citric acid cycle to generate ATP. However, nucleotides, unlike amino acids, are not typically broken down for energy yield. The reasons behind this involve how cells metabolize nucleotides.
a. Free bases released from nucleotide degradation are often reused for nucleotide synthesis, a process known as the salvage pathway.
b. Nucleotides are hydrolyzed into ribose and nitrogenous bases, and the breakdown of purine nucleotides can lead to products such as uric acid.
c. During pyrimidine catabolism, uracil, and thymine can be further degraded into molecules that eventually lead to urea.
Notably, the multi-component structure of nucleotides (base, sugar, phosphate) allows for the reuse of these components. The phosphate is recycled into the phosphate pool of the cell, while the bases might undergo salvage or be built into nucleic acids.
Regarding the options given in the question, options a, b, and c accurately describe the metabolic fate of nucleotides, while options d and e are incorrect as cells do use enzymes capable of further degrading free bases, and free bases are often not secreted but salvaged.
Cancer cells exhibit a variety of differences from normal cells in cell adhesion, cell junctions, and cell effects on the extracellular matrix, some of which facilitate metastasis. Explain three changes found in some cancer cells related to these aspects of cell structure and function.
Answer:
In cancer, cells loss their adhesion because protein expression involved in this process is dysregulated
Studies suggest that cell junctions are critical for cancer progression and metastasis
Finally, cancer cells modify the extracellular matrix since this matrix may act as a barrier for the migration of cancer cells
Corn smut and wheat rust are crop diseases caused by_____fungi.
Answer:
Club Fungi
Explanation:
Club Fungi: with a simple or branched often club-shaped sporophore.
Answer:
Club fungi
Explanation:
Club Fungi: with a simple or branched often club-shaped sporophore.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the differences between a genomic and cDNA library? Select one: a. A genomic library is prepared from total genomic DNA, whereas a cDNA library is prepared from mRNA. b. Genomic libraries contain much more sequence information and are much larger than cDNA libraries. c. Genomic libraries contain coding and noncoding (regulatory, intron, etc.) sequences, whereas cDNA libraries contain only coding sequences along with their associated 5? and 3? untranslated regions. d. cDNA libraries are generated with the use of reverse transcriptase, whereas genomic libraries are not. e. Genomic libraries contain fewer restriction enzyme sites, whereas cDNA libraries contain many morE.
Answer:
Genomic libraries contain fewer restriction enzyme sites, whereas cDNA libraries contain many more
Explanation:
The comparison between genomic and cDNA libraries is indistinct to the number of restriction-enzyme sites. A genomic library contains a set of DNA clones from an organism, while a cDNA library is composed by DNA fragments which are complementary to the mRNA
Primary succession occurs A. After a disturbance that removes an entire community leaving a sterile environment B. After a disturbance that disrupts a community but leaves a seed bank in the soil C. Right before the secondary succession D. After a severe drought in southwest US which kills all trees and crops
Answer:
Primary succession is one of two types of biological and ecological succession of plant life, occurring in an environment in which new substrate devoid of vegetation and other organisms usually lacking soil, such as a lava flow or area left from retreated glacier, is deposited.
What is the relationship between mutation, the cell cycle, and cancer? Select all statements that apply.
A healthy radish plant growing in a greenhouse is covered with a screen box that blocks sunlight. After 10 days, the mass of the plants has ___________ because the rate of cellular respiration is _________ the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
A healthy radish plant growing in a greenhouse is covered with a screen box that blocks sunlight. After 10 days, the mass of the plants has decreased because the rate of cellular respiration is higher than the rate of photosynthesis.
Explanation:
If a healthy plant would be covered with a screen box for a period of 10 days, the rate of photosynthesis would be decreased significantly. We know that a plant essentialy needs sunlight to perform photosynthesis. Further, when the photosynthesis is already stopped, the cellular respiration would continue and the plant would loss most of its water content. Ultimately, after a few days, the plant biomass would start decreasing as well. The period of 10 days is sufficient enough to see the loss of plant biomass and decrease in photosynthesis rate. Normally, results are evident after 24 hours.
Immune privileged sites, such as the brain, the eye, and the testis, are often the targets of autoimmune attack. Thus, once effector T cells are generated that have specificity for autoantigens expressed in these tissues, the effector cells can gain entry to the tissue and cause tissue damage. However, under normal circumstances, the priming and differentiation of effector cells specific for antigens found in the brain, for example, is generally prevented. This is because ‘immune privileged’ sites:
Answer:
express the cytokine, TGF-beta
Explanation:
An autoimmune disease is a condition in which your immune system attacks your body mistakenly. The immune system protects our body against germs including bacteria and viruses. It sends out an army of fighter cells to attack them.
Immune privileged sites, such as the brain, the eye, and the testis, are often the targets of autoimmune attack but the priming and differentiation of effector cells specific for antigens found in the brain, for example, is generally prevented as immune-privileged sites express the cytokine, TGF-beta.
Suppose a researcher introduces a mutation into the glucosidase domain of the mammalian glycogen debranching enzyme. The mutation inhibits the activity of the glucosidase but does not affect the other functions of the enzyme. The researcher then introduces the mutated enzyme into mammalian cells that do not express wild type glycogen debranching enzyme. Predict the effect of the mutation on glycogen metabolism. a. linear glycogen chains with minimal branching b. glycogen molecules with branches containing five or more glucose residues c. glycogen molecules with branches containing a single glucose residue d. glycogen molecules with branches containing four glucose residues
Answer:
c. glycogen molecules with branches containing a single glucose residue
Explanation:
The mutation inhibits the activity of the glucosidase but does not affect the other functions of the enzyme. The researcher then introduces the mutated enzyme into mammalian cells that do not express wild type glycogen debranching enzyme because glycogen molecules with branches containing a single glucose residue (single glucose molecule linked by alpha 1,6 linkage due to mutation in glucosidase activity of debranching enzyme).
Final answer:
Option c is the correct answer. The mutation in the glucosidase domain of the glycogen debranching enzyme leads to glycogen molecules with branches containing a single glucose residue, due to the inability to remove these residues at the branch points.
Explanation:
The question is relating to the effects of a mutation in the glucosidase domain of a mammalian glycogen debranching enzyme, specifically how this mutation affects glycogen metabolism when the mutated enzyme is introduced into mammalian cells. The glycogen debranching enzyme plays a critical role in glycogen breakdown, mainly by transferring a trisaccharide from an alpha-1,6 branch onto an adjacent alpha-1,4 branch and then hydrolyzing the remaining single glucose residue at the alpha-1,6 branch point. Since the mutation inhibits the glucosidase activity but does not affect other functions, this means the enzyme cannot properly process the remaining single glucose at the branch point.
The correct option is (c) glycogen molecules with branches containing a single glucose residue. This is because, with the inhibition of glucosidase activity, the debranching enzyme can no longer remove the single glucose residues at the branch points, leading to the accumulation of these residues in the glycogen structure.
Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
a. tRNA.
b. DNA polymerase.
c. nucleotides.
d. RNA polymerase.
e. None of the answers are correct;
f. all of these are supplied by the host animal
Answer:
B- DNA polymerase
Explanation:
In an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host supplies tRNA, nucleotides and RNA polymerase but with all this being supplied, then; we need to understand that DNA Virus has a large sum of plant viruses. What am simply trying to explain to us is that, this can bring about tumors, they usually occur not presently active infections in a host while Herpesviridae is one of the big DNA Viruses group that bring about disease in animal.
Explain why individuals are not typically heterozygous with respect to mitochondrial genes
It should be noted that mitochondrial genes aren't typically heterozygous because the DNA are inherited exclusively from the mothers.
Mitochondrial genes typically contain genome and they instruct cells to produce subunits of the enzyme.
Individuals are not typically heterozygous with respect to mitochondrial genes. Mutation can only lead to a state of heteroplasmy.
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what genotype does a person with AB have
Answer:
if talking about AB blood type then a person with blood type AB has the genotype AB.
Explanation:
The nucleus ______________________ during prophase II. In Metaphase II the chromosomes line up single file down the __________________ of the cell. In ___________________ the sister chromatids split up.
Answer:
The nucleus is dissolved during prophase II. In metaphase II the chromosomes line up single file down the metaphase plate of the cell. In anaphase II, the sister chromatids split up.
Explanation:
After meiosis I, meiosis II happens, which is like mitosis in the fact that sister chromatids are separated and migrate towards different daughter cells, resulting in four daughter cells with an haploid number of chromosomes.
The cell division process in which the chromosome number and the ploidy reduce after division is called meiosis. It exclusively occurs in the reproductive cells of organisms.
The blanks are condensed, metaphase plate and anaphase II.
The steps of meiosis II can be explained as:Prophase II - It is the first step of meiosis II in which the genetic material condenses and the nuclear membrane dissolves. It is a similar process to that of mitosis.Metaphase II - the second step of meiosis in which the chromosomes line up at the middle of the cell at the metaphase plate for equal separation.Anaphase II - the sister chromatids of the chromosomes separate and move towards the opposite poles to form two equal cells.Therefore the correct blanks are condensed, metaphase plate and anaphase II.
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What condition causes storms to occur
• freezing of water droplets
• Sudden change in air pressure
• Condensation of water vapor
• rapid heating of upper atmosphere
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Storms are formed when the movement of cold and warm air currents creates extreme air pressure difference.
The condition that cause storms to arise is the sudden change in the air pressure.
What is air pressure?Air pressure should be impacted by the air molecules' weight. Also, the small air molecules contain some kind of weight and more air molecules that are made up of the atmosphere layers.
In the case when the storms should be created at the time of moving of cold and warm air so the current should develop the difference of extreme air pressure.
Therefore, the first option is correct.
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please answer quick Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas. It traps the heat in the atmosphere. Humans have used fossil fuels for only the last few hundred years. When burned, fossil fuels release CO2 into the atmosphere. Why do you think our fossil fuel use is a concern for environmental scientists?
Answer:
Because its destroying our Ozone layer, we will die of UV light overdose
Explanation:
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels increases the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. A high level of CO2 throws the carbon cycle out of balance. With more CO2 in the atmosphere, the temperature on Earth increases.
Explanation:
edmentum sample answer change it up a bit so you don't get caught
How does earths magnetic field provide evidence for seafloor spreading
Answer: A ;)
Explanation: DON'T WORRY BOUT IT SWEET HEART
The Earth's magnetic field provides the evidence for seafloor spreading by creating a pattern of alternating rock stripes on both sides of a mid-ocean ridge. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Seafloor spreading?
Seafloor spreading is a process which occurs at the mid-ocean ridges where the new oceanic crust is formed by the volcanic activity and afterwards this gradually moves away from the ridge of the ocean.
During a seafloor spreading, a rift in the ocean can spill out the partially melted subducted rock present in the ocean. However, when the magma cools down, there is a change in the magnetic variation of rocks which were formed by the series of volcano that has occurred underwater.
The variation of rocks shows younger rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridge in the process.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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#SPJ5
Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
How does Earth’s magnetic field provide evidence for seafloor spreading?
a. It creates a pattern of alternating rock stripes on both sides of a mid-ocean ridge.
b. It allows scientists to determine the age of drilling samples.
c. It causes magma to harden quickly underwater.
d. It shows that younger rocks are located deeper underwater than older rocks.
2. Which statement best describes the process of evolution? *
Answer:
Hi will, I think you forgot to include the actual statements you needed help deciphering between for the best description of the evolutionary process.
Explanation:
The chemical equation below summarizes cellular respiration.
602 + C6H1206 = 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
The energy that is released by cellular respiration is in the form of
dark energy.
solar energy.
nuclear energy.
chemical energy.
O
Answer:
The correct answer is chemical energy.
Explanation:
The phenomenon by which the chemical energy present in the molecules of food gets discharged and is captivated partially in the form of ATP or energy is known as cellular respiration. The nutrients, that is, proteins, carbohydrates, or fats can all be utilized as fuels in the process of cellular respiration, however, to examine or illustrate the process, glucose is most commonly used.
Glucose, that is, the six-carbon sugar in the process of glycolysis gets dissociated into two molecules of a three-carbon compound known as pyruvate. In the process, two molecules of ATP along with two molecules of NADH are gained. For the process of cellular respiration, the glucose needed is generated by plants by the process called photosynthesis.
A natural disaster wipes out most of a population. The allele frequencies of the surviving population may not be the same as the allele frequencies of the original population. This form of genetic drift is called
Answer:
Bottleneck effect
Explanation:
In bottle neck effect, the amount of genetic variation of a population reduces in lieu to its inability to adapt to new selection pressure such as climatic change, natural disaster etc. thereby reducing the size of the population by at least one generation.
For example –
The genetic variation of Northern elephant seals is caused by the human inflicted bottleneck i.e excessive hunting
You are performing an in vitro experiment in which you will expose a material you are considering for a medical device to synovial fluid, which contains the proteins albumin, transferrin, and IgM at concentrations of 5, 0.5, and 0.05 mg/ml, respectively. Each of these components has a particular affinity for your material, with IgM being the highest and albumin being the lowest.
Explanation:
Due to the Vroman effect, albumin will initially attach and eventually be replaced by the IgM, which has a higher affinity for the material
The higher concentration of the albumin results in a greater initial surface concentration via diffusion, but it will eventually be displaced by the proteins with greater surface affinity (first the transferrin, and finally the IgM)
If more addition of albumin occurs, which has less affinity for the material surface, will have minimal effect if IgM is already adsorbed to material surface
Four genes (A, B, C, D) are known to be located on the same chromosome. A series of crosses was completed to determine the recombination frequencies: A-B 50% A-C 18% A-D 31% B-C 39% B-D 50% C-D 49% Based on these numbers, what is the map distance between A and B
Answer:
50 cM or more far apart .Explanation:
1. The largest possible map distance is 50, it represents that two genes are found at opposite ends of a chromosome or are 50 cM apart from each other or they are found on different chromosomes .
2. Genes found at opposite ends of a chromosome behave as if they are on different chromosomes.
3. As given A-B 50%, means that recombination frequency is 50%.
The recombination frequency(RF), 50% means that either two genes are located on different chromosomes inheriting independently or when they are widely separated on the same chromosome with far distance.
4. As given here, four genes named A, B, C, and D are known to be located on the same chromosome. so A-B are 50 cM or more far apart from each other.
2. Which statement best describes the process of evolution?*
1p
a. Populations can survive in different locations on earth
b. Environmental conditions limit the number of species on Earth
O
c. Populations grow when resources are abundant
d. The traits of a species can change over time
Answer
. Populations grow when resources are abundant
The statement that best describes the process of evolution is that traits of a species can change over time.
What is evolution?Evolution refers to the transformation of living organisms into different forms due to a change in genetic composition by the accumulation of changes over successive generations.
Natural selection leads to the evolutionary process in organisms, which can cause the traits of a species to change over time.
Therefore, the statement that best describes the process of evolution is that traits of a species can change over time.
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Which one of the following proteins would be least likely to pass through a Golgi apparatus?
a. Ribosomal proteins
b. Lysosomal enzymes
c. Cell surface proteins
d. Secreted proteins
e. ER proteins
Answer: (a) Ribosomal proteins
Explanation:
The proteins are modified by adding or removing sugars. Several proteins that passes through golgi apparatus includes lysosomal enzymes, cell surface protein, secreted proteins, and ER proteins.
The proteins pass through the endomembrane system and are dispatched in transport vesicles from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus which travel via cytoplasm and fuses with the plasma membrane releasing the protein to the outside of the cell. When they pass through the Golgi, proteins are altered and sorted for transport inside the cell to their eventual destinations. Proteins like lysosomal enzymes, cell surface protein, secreted proteins, and ER proteins move through Golgi apparatus.
Ribosomal proteins are least likey to pass through golgi apparatus and bind different amino acids together to form polypeptides, and export them to the cytoplasm.
Hence, the correct option is (a) Ribosomal proteins.
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials? fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated fiber fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber
Answer:
The correct Answer is "Fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber"
Explanation:
Muscle has a pair of stages - reduction and moderation. Reduction is trailed by a obstinate section once no reduction will occur upon inspiration. This can be the section once the sr ca2+ ATPases are vigorous and are driving the calcium back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Once this the forces decrease. If the inspiration are common enough to remove the relief amount, then it's known as a amalgamate tetanus. The quicker the sr ca2+ drives effort, the smaller are the biological time and therefore the faster amalgamate tetanus would be extended.
When treated with a drug that speeds up SR Ca2+-ATPase, skeletal muscle fibers reach fused tetanus more quickly due to faster calcium ion re-sequestration, allowing for rapid relaxation and preparation for successive contractions.
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane-permeable drug that accelerates the action of the SR Ca2+-ATPase, the contraction would differ after multiple and frequent action potentials because fused tetanus would be reached sooner than in an untreated fiber. The SR Ca2+-ATPase is responsible for pumping calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), which helps in ending the muscle contraction and allowing the muscle to relax. If the action of this pump is sped up, calcium ions are cleared from the sarcoplasm more quickly, resulting in a faster relaxation phase.
In a rapid succession of action potentials, this accelerated relaxation allows the muscle fiber to be ready for the next contraction more promptly. Therefore, when stimuli are frequent and consecutive, the muscle can achieve fused tetanus – a state of continuous, maximal contraction – at a faster rate as the calcium ions needed for contraction are rapidly re-sequestered, allowing for a quick and efficient response to successive stimuli. However, the maximal tension generated would not be increased beyond the capability of an untreated muscle fiber since this is dependent on other factors such as muscle fiber type and cross-sectional area.
Wind and solar power are both examples of
Answer:
Technologies like solar and wind power are becoming more common across the globe, and are both examples of renewable energy sources.
According to embryology, why do fish and birds have a common ancestor?
They both have embryos with gill slits and tails.
They both have embryos with traits that eventually disappear.
They both have embryos that develop into adults.
They both have embryos that form from a fertilized egg.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
What are the medical uses of Interferon beta-1a?
Answer:
nterferon beta-1a is used to treat relapsing multiple sclerosis (MS) in adults. interferon beta-1a will not cure MS, it will only decrease the frequency of relapse symptoms. Interferon beta-1a may also be used for purposes not listed in this medication guide.