Answer:
The correct answer is - 4 and 7 chromosomes in each cell.
Explanation:
Meiosis is the cell division in which one parent cell produces four daughter cells with a half number of the chromosome than parent cells.
According to the question oak cell performed meiosis which is reduction division so the number of cell will be four and 7 chromosome will be present in each daughter oak cell.
Thus, the correct answer is - 4 and 7 number of chromosome in each.
How does the study of the time progression of fossils support the process of evolution?
Answer:
Thanks to the fossil record, direct evidence of the evolution and change of species can be given over the years. The fossil record tells us the natural history of the species in the different geological ages and allows us to see the changes in the distributions of the species, extinction and diversification from comparison and measurement.
The citric acid cycle occurs in the:
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Thylakoid lumen
c. Mitochondrial matrix
d. Across the inner membrane of the mitochondria
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is a slow process which breakdown the food components via oxidation to convert them into energy molecules. The respiration proceeds in four stages: Glycolysis, pyruvate decarboxylation, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain.
All these processes take place in different compartments of the cell-like glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm and citric acid cycle or Kreb cycle takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria. The matrix of the mitochondria provides the necessary environment to proceed the step of the respiration.
Thus, option- C is the correct answer.
Now that you have come up with an equation that describes the relationship between amounts of different nucleotide bases in DNA, can you use it to predict the amounts of all four nucleotide bases when you only know the amount of one type of base? Approximately 21% of the human genome is comprised of nucleotides containing C. Given this information, calculate the percentage of the human genome that is comprised of nucleotides containing G, T, and A.
Answer:
G=21 %
T= 29 %
A= 29 %
Explanation:
Since C only binds to G, you have the same amount of C and G, so G is 21 %.
100 % minus 42 % ( 21 % C plus 21 % G=) equals 58 %.
So the other 58 % is made of T and A. Since T only binds to A , the half of the extra 58 % is T and the other half is A. Therefore 29 % is T and 29 % is A
There are 4 molecules racing to get across a typical cell membrane.
(a) C6H12O6
(b) CO2
(c) Cl -
(d) CH3CH2CH2COOH (a fatty acid).
Predict the order they make it across.
(A) a, b, c, d
(B) b, d, a, c
(C) c, a, b, d
(D) d, c, d, b
(E) b, c, a, d
1. D
2. D
hope this helps
Briefly explain why the heart can be considered to be two pumps side by side. What is the function of each pump?
Answer: There are two pumping systems because the right side receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs, and the left side receives blood from the lungs and pumps it through the body. Thereby there are two pumping systems.
Explanation:
The heart is an organ that pumps blood throughout the body through the circulatory system. Its function is to supply oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and remove carbon dioxide and waste products.
The heart is divided into two separate pumps. The right side of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from the veins and pumps it to the lungs, Over there, the blood picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide, wich is a waste product. On the other hand, the left side receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it throughout the body. This blood enters the top chamber of the right heart, called the right atrium.
So, the right side of the heart receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs. The left side of the heart does the opposite. Thereby there are two pumping systems.
Reliability refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent results each time it is administered
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
Explanation:
Reliability can be define as the consistency in the results or measure. A test is said to be reliable if the results obtained are repeated the same. For example, if a test is designed to observe and measure the trait, then each time the test is administered to the subjects, the results obtain will be approximately the same.
Consider this pathway: epinephrine → G protein-coupled receptor → G protein → adenylyl cyclase → cAMP. Identify the second messenger.
a. cAMP
b. G protein
c. GTP
d. adenylyl cyclase
Answer:
a. cAMP
Explanation:
Secondary messengers are signaling molecules which are present intracellularly and play a great role in amplification of a signal during signal transduction pathway.
cAMP, DAG and IP3 are common secondary messengers in GPCR signalling. GPCR are largest family of cell surface receptors which are associated with various functions like control of blood vessel dialation, interstitial epithelial cells, glycogen breakdown, inflammation, photoisomerization reaction etc.
The second messenger in the given pathway is cAMP.
Explanation:The second messenger in the given pathway is cAMP. In this pathway, epinephrine binds to a G protein-coupled receptor, which activates a G protein. The G protein then activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme that converts ATP into cAMP. Therefore, cAMP acts as the second messenger in this pathway.
Learn more about Second messenger in a pathway here:https://brainly.com/question/30627647
#SPJ3
Explain how the Meselson-Stahl experiment with "heavy" nitrogen showed that DNA replication is semiconservative.
Answer:
1. Bacteria where grow in a medium composed of heavy nitrogen. After several generations the bacteria DNA was composed of heavy nitrogen (heavy nitrogen is an isotope of nitrogen).
2. After several generations had passed, the bacteria were transferred to a nitrogen light medium.
3. As soon as the bacteria were transferred the bacteria DNA was isolated after the first and second generation through centrifugation.
4. Results: after 2 generations half of the DNA was intermediate and half was light; there was not heavy-only DNA. The conclusion was that the new DNA is formed by an "old" strand and a "new" strand producing an intermediate weight.
Each of these practices has greatly reduced the spread of infectious diseases in the developed world except
A) vaccination.
B) antibiotics.
C) reduced population growth.
D) water purification.
Answer:
C) Reduced population growth
Explanation:
Vaccination avoids that an infectious agent causes a disease in a person, so it stops the spread of these diseases. Also, antibiotics kill bacteria responsible for infections in an ill person, therefore, they also end the spread. Water purification eliminates pathogens from the water such as bacteria or fungus, so it helps to prevent infections in a population. Finally, reducing the growth of the population doesn't directly affect the spread of infectious diseases.
_______are a group of very small, pleomorphic bacteria without cell walls, previously thought to be viruses, because they are capable of crossing bacterial filters.
A) Mycoplasma
B) Clostridia
C) Anthrax
D) Spirochetes
Answer:
A) Mycoplasma
Explanation:
This kind of bacteria does not have a cell wall.
This is why it's so difficult to kill them with antibiotics that block cell wall synthesis like penicillin. They do not respond to them.
Atypical pneumonia and some pelvic inflammations are caused by this kind of bacteria.
Cells import useful solids and fluids by ________________.
a. exocytosis
b. dehydration
c. hydrolysis
d. endocytosis
Answer:
The correct answer is option d, that is, endocytosis.
Explanation:
A procedure in which a component gains entry within the cell without getting passed through the cell membrane is termed as endocytosis. In this process, the cell captivates the substances from the external of the cell by engulfing and combining them with its plasma membrane.
The process is further differentiated into three distinct kinds. These are phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Make connections Imagine you want to study one of the human crystallins, proteins present in the lens of the eye (see Figure 1.8). To obtain a sufficient amount of the protein of interest, you decide to clone the gene that codes for it. Assume you know the sequence of this gene. How would you go about this?
Answer:
In order to clone the sequence of the gene for one of the human crystallins found in the eye, there is a need for the application of polymerase chain reaction. In the process, the particular sequence of gene is denatured and then replicated various times to generate various clones of the gene sequence.
By producing various copies of the gene sequence for the human crystallin, that is, desirable, a scientist can examine various distinct characteristics of the protein as there is always more to examine with.
Products of glycolysis include:
a. a total of 2 ATP
b. a net gain of 4 ATP
c. 2 pyruvate molecules
d. all of the above
The products of glycolysis include a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate molecules, so the correct answer is 'all of the above'.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question, 'Products of glycolysis include' is d. all of the above. This is because glycolysis, a pivotal process in cellular respiration, indeed yields these outcomes. First, there is a net gain of 2 ATP, meaning that while four ATP molecules are produced during glycolysis, two are consumed, resulting in an overall gain of 2 ATP. Secondly, 2 pyruvate molecules are produced during the final phase of glycolysis. Therefore, answering all of the above is accurate considering these facts.
Learn more about glycolysis here:https://brainly.com/question/14089531
#SPJ3
The products of glycolysis include a total of 2 ATP, a net gain of 4 ATP, and 2 pyruvate molecules.
Explanation:
The products of glycolysis include:
a total of 2 ATPa net gain of 4 ATP2 pyruvate moleculesTherefore, the correct answer is d. all of the above. Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration and occurs in the cytoplasm of cells. It is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP (although 4 ATP are produced in total, 2 ATP are used during glycolysis).
Learn more about Glycolysis here:https://brainly.com/question/29604117
#SPJ6
Both plant and animal cells have a chloroplast.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Only plants have chloroplast.
This statement is FALSE. Only plant cells contain a chloroplast.
Hope this helps you
- AaronWiseIsBae
Among the characteristics unique to animals is
a.gastrulation c.sexual reproduction
b.multicellularity. d.flagellated sperm
Answer:
a.gastrulation is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The characteristics unique to animals is gastrulation
Gastrulation is a stage early in the embryonic growth in most of the animals, through which simple layered blastula is rearranged into a multi-layered structure called gastrula.
gastrulation results in the formation of three germ layers
endodermmesodermectodermThe embryonic tissue layers are developed and arranged in their proper places during the gastrulation process.
Among the options, gastrulation is the characteristic unique to animals. Other traits like sexual reproduction, multicellularity, and flagellated sperm are also found in non-animal species, while gastrulation is a distinct phase in embryonic development of animals.
Explanation:The characteristics unique to animals are not as straightforward as they may seem. Among the options, the characteristic unique to animals is gastrulation.
Sexual reproduction, multicellularity, and flagellated sperm are not unique to animals as there are non-animal species which also possess these traits. For instance, multicellularity is common in plants and fungi, sexual reproduction occurs in certain fungi and plants as well, and flagellated sperm is found in certain kinds of algae.
Gastrulation, on the other hand, is a phase early in the embryonic development of most animals, during which the single-layered blastula is reorganized into a multilayered structure known as the gastrula. This process, unique to animals, gives rise to what will become the organism's internal body cavities and the arrangement of tissues and organs.
Learn more about Animal Characteristics here:https://brainly.com/question/18324335
#SPJ11
a) What is "extension of Mendelian Genetics"?
b) Contrast incomplete dominance and codominance. Define the phenomenon of epistasis in the context of the concept of gene interaction.
Answer:
A. The extension of Mendelian genetics comprises the codominance, incomplete dominance, polygenic inheritance, multiple alleles, lethal genes, sex lined genes, gene mapping, and others.
B. The phenomenon of incomplete dominance takes place when of both the recessive and dominant forms, no one gets expressed in the F1 generation, however, an intermediate expression is witnessed. For example, crossing red flower with the white one generates pink flowers.
On the other hand, in codominance, both the alleles get expressed, like in the blood group AB. The association of genes results in epistasis, it changes the normal dihybrid phenotypic ratio, that is, 9: 3: 3: 1 to 12: 3: 1. The genes, which suppress the others are called epistatic, while the ones, which get suppressed are known as hypostatic.
____ is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Answer:
Chemical Weathering is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Explanation:
The weathering of rocks by chemicals is called chemical weathering . Rainwater is naturally slightly acidic because carbon dioxide from the air dissolves in it. Minerals in rocks may react with the rainwater, causing the rock to be weathered. Some types of rock are easily weathered by chemicals.
Answer:
Chemical Weathering is a type of weathering where rock is dissolved by an acid
Explanation:
Weathering are of two types- Mechanical and Chemical Weathering. In chemical weathering, the molecular structure of different rocks and soils change through chemical reactions.
For example, in carbonation the carbon dioxide of air and often soil mixes with water. This combination forms a acid named carbonic acid that dissolves rock. It especially dissolves the limestone rock. Through the dissolving of limestone huge caves are formed.
Explain how a testcross can provide evidence for or against linkage.
Answer:
Testcrosses clarify linkage because each phenotypic class of progeny corresponds to each gamete type produced by the dihybrid parent.
Explanation:
A test cross involves the crossing of an individual with another phenotypically recessive individual so as to determine the zygosity of the former by analyses of the proportions of offspring phenotypes.In order to determine linkage, the test cross shows that if the parentals are more than the recombinants, we can say that the two genes such as b and c are genetically linked and therefore, they must be on the same chromosome.Also, the test-crosses help to find out which alleles came from which parent.By setting up testcrosses in which one parent is homozygous for the recessive alleles of both genes,we can analyze the gene combinations received in the gametes from the other, doubly heterozygous parent.Describe the key events of meiosis that explain Mendel's first and second laws.
Answer:
Explained
Explanation:
During Meiosis the Chromosomes line up or assort independently from one another. Therefore, genes located on each chromosomes are also segregate of one another. Therefore, the gene for seed color (G & g) will assort independent of the gene for plant height (T & t) , thus producing 4 different gene combinations of gametes,they are : GT, Gt, gT & gt.
Which of the following reactions occurs during the Calvin cycle?
Choose all answers that apply:
A) Carbon release
B) Carbon fixation
C) RuBP regeneration
D) Carbon reduction
The correct options for the reactions that occur during the Calvin cycle are: B) Carbon fixation and C) RuBP regeneration.
The Calvin cycle in chloroplast stroma involves carbon fixation and RuBP regeneration. Carbon fixation involves adding [tex]CO_2[/tex] to ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). The enzyme RuBisCO helps produce an unstable intermediate that soon converts into two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).
These molecules then generate glucose. RuBP renewal sustains the cycle after carbon fixation. RuBP is constantly available for carbon dioxide fixation. The Calvin cycle helps plants synthesise sugars and other vital biomolecules by converting ambient carbon dioxide into organic compounds. Therefore, he correct option are: : B) Carbon fixation and C) RuBP regeneration.
Learn more about Calvin cycle, here:
https://brainly.com/question/33360156
#SPJ6
The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is
a. oxygen. b. water. c. NAD+. d. pyruvate.
Answer: a. oxygen
Basically what (/the) ETC and oxidative phosphorylation is, is the products of the Krebs cycle being oxidized and oxygen receiving electrons. And when the phosphorylation part of oxidative phosphorylation occurs is when ADP gains its third phosphate group becoming ATP.
Forgive me for this poor response I was trying to be quick and it resulted in this vague and disorganized mess. To properly explain the ETC and oxidative phosphorylation it would be best to start from the beginning and explain all the stages of Aerobic respiration. Then it would be easier to Segway in to this final stage which would definitely take 2-3 descriptive paragraphs to cover.
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is oxygen. This is because oxygen combines with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water at the end of this process.
Explanation:The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is oxygen (option a.)
Here's why it's oxygen: Aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is the process during which ATP (the main energy source for most cellular functions) is produced. This process happens in the mitochondria of our cells, and it's a part of cellular respiration.
In this process, the electron transport chain plays a vital role. Electrons travel down the chain, moving from one protein complex to the next. These electrons ultimately combine with hydrogen ions and oxygen to form water. Thus, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the chain.
Learn more about Aerobic Oxidative Phosphorylation here:https://brainly.com/question/36345114
#SPJ3
Which of these is NOT a requirement or influence on chemical cycling of inorganic nutrients in a natural ecosystem?
a. A reservoir for the elements in the Earth
b. The biotic community and its food chains
c. Human activities
d. The input of geothermal energy
e. An exchange pool from which producers draw their nutrients
Answer:
The correct answer is option d.
Explanation:
Chemical cycling illustrates the systems of concurrent circulation of elements between other states, compounds, and substances, and then return to their original state, which takes place in space, and on many objects in space comprising the Earth.
Chemical cycling of the nutrients (inorganic) is needed to maintain the conservation of nutrients on Earth. The chemical cycling of nutrients in a natural system requires a pool for the elements, the activities done by human beings, the biotic community and its food chains, and an exchange pool from which producers extract their nutrients. All the mentioned factors are associated with affecting a chemical cycling in exception to the input of geothermal energy.
Predict the sex of humans with different complements of X and Y chromosomes.
Answer:
In humans, males sex determination is trigged by a Y linked gene (SYR) female sex determination occurs in XX embryos by default
Explanation:
The sex of the individual is defined through the interaction of genes that are situated in homologous pairs, that is, sex chromosomes (heterosomes or allosomes).
In humans, sex is determined by the XY system. The man has 44 autosomes + XY, being heterogametic: 22 A + 22 A + Y. And women have 44 autosomes + XX, being homogametic: 22 A + X.
Even though male chromosomes are different from female chromosomes, these sex chromosomes are homologous and are similar in meiosis, but there are no partial chromosomes in the male chromosome, so their pairing is partial. In homologous regions, there is pairing between the X and Y chromosomes, and in non-homologous regions, there is no pairing between the X and Y chromosomes.
Man produces two types of sperm, which are composed of equal amounts of X chromosome and Y chromosome, so it is called heterogametic. The woman is considered homogametic, because in the egg she produces there is only one X chromosome. If the egg is fertilized by a sperm that has X chromosome, consequently the zygote will have an X chromosome and a Y, that means the sex of the son will be male. Otherwise, if the egg is fertilized by an X sperm, the zygote will have two X chromosomes, and its sex will be female. This whole process of defining sex occurs in fertilization.
Some of our neurons (cells of our nervous system) have ATP-gated calcium (Ca+2) channels in both their plasma membrane and nuclear envelope. (tricky
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is true.
Explanation:
Some of the neurons possess ATP-gated calcium channels in both their nuclear envelope and plasma membrane. The majority of the ion channels are ligand-gated and stays in their position, which shows that they do not move from one membrane to another.
However, the ATP gated calcium channels have been located in both the nuclear envelopes of some of the neurons and plasma membrane, which signifies that the channel may socialize between the two compartments.
What is meant by the statement "life is diverse?"
A. There are many living organisms on Earth
B. Each living thing is a unique individual.
C. All living things are related to each other.
D. There are many different kinds of living organisms on Earth
E. There are many places to live on Earth.
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
Diversity in simple words means variations. By the given statement "life is diverse", it means that there are various types of life forms on earth. These variations occur in different places under different conditions. The factors that affect diversity are as follows-
(1) Biotic factors
(2) Abiotic factors
(3) Geographical factors
This diversity occurs in three forms and they are as follows-
(a) Ecological diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Genetic diversity
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Why are some bacteria referred to as indicator microorganisms in ascertaining microbial quality control of products?
Answer:
Some bacteria are used as indicators because if they are present in the product, we can say that it is a product with the presence of pathogens that will cause diseases. Some of them are: total coliforms, fecal coliforms and enterococci.
To be a good indicator they must have a correlation with the pathogens and be more abundant than them. Its presence in a food indicates the possible presence simultaneous pathogen microorganisms. For example, E. coli has been used as Index of possible presence of pathogens of enteric origin in water and food
Why would you not expect amylase to digest protein?
Just as in mitosis, cohesin is an important protein that keeps chromatids together during meiosis and is similarly targeted by separate as well. In the context of meiosis, however, there are multiple variants of cohesin with different quaternary structures. Why do you think this is necessary?
Answer:
It is well known that in biological compounds, such as proteins; a small change on its structure modifies its function to send a different signal or even to not have a function at all.
Talking about cohesin, this protein has been implicated in the development of certain types of tumors, because it takes a fundamental role in the cellular division and the 3D structure of the genome. Cohesin SA1, for example, maintains differentiated the TADs and it is essential for the organization of the topological domains of the genome, while the Cohesin SA2 is much more versatile and can regulate the expression of the genes within TADs, it is also capable to bond to some transcription factors creating local loops.
Some mutations on this protein can also be involved in the origin of rare diseases.
List and describe the function of each of the four components of blood.
Answer:
The four components of blood are RBC, WBC, Platelets, and blood plasma.
Explanation:
The major 4 components of blood are RBC, WBC, platelets, and plasma. Plasma is the fluid part of the blood and the remaining 3 are the cellular part.
Plasma is the yellow color liquid. In the plasma, all cellular components float. Plasma constitutes approximately 55% of the total volume of the blood.
The various functions of plasma are - It carries different nutrients from the alimentary canal to the liver and other parts of the body. Simultaneously it carries the CO2 from the different tissues and reaches them to lungs for expiration. It distributes the hormones and vitamins from endocrine glands to different target organs. Plasma also plays a role in the water balance in the body. It supplies water to tissues and receives excess water from them. Thus regulate the water balance in the body.
RBC is the enucleated cellular organelle of blood. The absence of nucleus enables it to carry more oxygen. It is red due to the presence of Hb and carries O2 and CO2 in the form of oxyhemoglobin and carbaminohemoglobin. It also helps in releasing energy through the metabolic process.
WBC is concerned with the immunity of the body. It acts as a defense mechanism of the body. The components of leukocytes such as granulocytes and agranulocytes are phagocytic. They engulf bacteria and viruses. Eosinophils fight against the allergic reaction in the body.
The blood platelets have blood clotting factors. There are 12 blood clotting factors which help in the clotting of blood.
What feature distinguishes male embryo from female at eight weeks of age?
a. males have a Y chromosome
b. males have well developed primary reproductive organs
c. male testes have descended into the scrotum
d. in males, the ovaries have degenerated
e. all of the above
Answer:
A, B & D
Explanation:
It is not possible to distinguish the sex of a fetus below seven (7)weeks. At this stage only observation of chromosomes through karyotype can determine the sex. The male fetus will have an XY sex chromosome pair while females will have an XX chromosome pair. After the eighth weeks internal and external genitalia begins to differentiate. The testes and ovaries (the primary reproductive organs) begin to develop in males and females respectively. In males the paramesonephric ducts regresses while the mesonephric ducts begin to develop into testes. In females the mesonephric ducts regresses while the paramesonephric ducts begin to develop into ovaries.