Pablo Management has ten part-time employees, each of whom earns $135 per day. They are paid on Fridays for work completed Monday through Friday of the same week. Near year-end, the ten employees worked Monday, December 31, and Wednesday through Friday, January 2, 3, and 4. New Year's Day. (January 1) was an unpaid holiday.
A) Prepare the adjusting entry that would be recorded on Monday, Dec 31.
B) Prepare the journal entry that would be made to record payment of the eployees' wages on Friday Jan 4.

Answers

Answer 1

Final answer:

The adjusting entry on December 31st for Pablo Management would be a debit to Wage Expense for $1,350 and a credit to Wages Payable for $1,350 to account for one day's wages. The journal entry on January 4th would include a debit to Wage Expense for $4,050 and Wages Payable for $1,350, with a credit to Cash for $5,400 to cover the wages for the four days worked, excluding the unpaid holiday.

Explanation:

To answer the student's question regarding the adjusting and journal entries to be made for Pablo Management's employee wages, we must consider the following:

Adjusting Entry on December 31

An adjusting entry is recorded to recognize expenses incurred but not yet paid. Since the employees worked on Monday, December 31st, but not on New Year's Day, we record the wages for one day.

The adjusting entry on December 31 would be:


 Debit Wage Expense: $135 × 10 employees = $1,350
 Credit Wages Payable: $1,350

This reflects the expense incurred for the day worked in December.

Journal Entry on January 4

The journal entry to record the payment of the employees' wages on Friday, January 4th, must account for the four days worked in the week after excluding the unpaid holiday on January 1st.


 Debit Wages Payable: $1,350
 Debit Wage Expense: $135 × 10 employees × 3 days = $4,050
 Credit Cash: $1,350 + $4,050 = $5,400

The total wages paid on January 4 account for both the payable recognized on December 31 and the wages earned from January 2 to January 4.


Related Questions

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of very large organizations? Select one: a. They can become increasingly bureaucratic. b. Levels are added to keep spans of control from becoming too small. c. Jobs are more specialized. d. Rules, procedures and paperwork are introduced. e. All of the above ARE characteristic of larger organizations.

Answers

Answer:

Adding up of levels to keep spans of control from becoming too small is not a characteristic of a very large organization.

Explanation:

Span of control is also known as management ratio. It refers to the number of subordinates working under a superior. In a large organization number of employees is also high, so the span of control generally tend to be large not small. Levels are added to make them small and effective. A large organization can become bureaucratic. The jobs here can also be specialized with skilled workers performing their specialized works. A lot of procedures and paperwork is involved as every task is performed officially according to a set procedure. All these options will not be correct answer.

Bloom Company management predicts that it will incur fixed costs of $160,000 and earn pretax income of $164,000 in the next period. Its expected contribution margin ratio is 25%.Required: 1. Compute the amount of total dollar sales.2. Compute the amount of total variable costs.

Answers

Answer:

SALES IN DOLLAR $1,296,000VARIABLE COST IN DOLLAR $972,000

Explanation:

The process would be to use formulas of the variable costing method to solve for each term:

We are going to use the operating income formula

contribution margin - fixed cost = operating income

Replace with the know values:

contribution margin - 160,000 =  164,000

now solve for the unknow value

contribution = 164,000 + 160,000 = 324,000

Next step we use the contribution margin ratio formula to get the sales:

contribution margin/sales = contribution ratio

Replace with the know values:

324,000/sales = 0.25

now solve for the unknow value:

sales = 324,000/0.25 = 1,296,000

Lastly we use the contribution margin formula to solve for variable cost:

sales - variable cost = contribution margin

Replace with the know values:

1,296,000 - variable cost = 324,000

now solve for the unknow value:

variable cost= 1,296,000 - 324,000 = 972,000

Final answer:

Total dollar sales is calculated to be $1,296,000 and total variable costs is calculated to be $972,000.

Explanation:

The first part of the question asks for the total dollar sales. To find this, we use the formula for contribution margin: Contribution Margin Ratio = (Sales - Variable Costs) / Sales. Rearranging this formula, you get Sales = (Fixed Costs + Pretax income) / Contribution Margin Ratio. Plugging the provided values into the formula, we get Sales = ($160,000 + $164,000) / 0.25 = $1,296,000.

The second part asks for the total variable costs. Recall that the Contribution Margin Ratio is also equal to 1 - (Variable Costs / Sales). Rearrange this to get Variable Costs = Sales - (Sales × Contribution Ratio), and substituting the given values, it gives us Variable Costs = $1,296,000 - ($1,296,000 × 0.25) = $972,000.

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What adjustments would need to be made in the Operating Section of the statement of cash flows prepared under the indirect method to account for the changes in the Accounts Payable and Accrued Expenses account balances for Google?

Answers

Explanation:

You will have to compare the Accounts payable of the current and previous year, and check the diference.

If the current year Account Payable is higher then the previous year, this means Google didn't pay as much, so it "save" cash for that diference so the diference will be positive.

If the opposite ocours, then Google pay more than previous year, so the diference will be posted as negatinve in the cash flow statment.

Accrued Expenses for this account, when doing the comparrison, if current is higher this means Google didn't pay as much expenses as it should be, so it save cash, the diference will be posted as positive.

If the actual is smaller, then Google pay more and the diference is posted as negtive.

Resuming, compare current with previous for each account,

when current is higher then adjustment is positive (save cash) when previous is higher then adjustment is negative(use cash)

In 2017, Aaron transferred property worth $75,000 and services worth $25,000 to the BJ Corporation. In exchange, he received stock in BJ valued at $100,000. Immediately after the exchange, Aaron owned 80% of the only class of outstanding stock. Which of the following is true with regard to Aaron’s treatment of this transaction in 2017? A.Ordinary income of $25,000. B. Short-term capital gain of $25,000. C. Short-term capital gain of $100,000. D. No income until the stock is sold.

Answers

Answer:

A.Ordinary income of $25,000

Shares BJ 100,000

Property 75,000

Services fees 25,000

Explanation:

We adquire the company by performing this services, we can recognize them.

You must recognize ordinary income of $25,000 for services rendered to the corporation.

BJ will consider the 25,000 as compensation paid.

Final answer:

Aaron must recognize ordinary income of $25,000 for the services he provided to the BJ Corporation in exchange for stock, as services exchanged for stock are taxed as ordinary income.

Explanation:

The student asks for the correct taxation treatment for Aaron who transferred property and services for stock in BJ Corporation. The options given are ordinary income, short-term capital gain, and no income until the stock is sold.

Under the tax law, when services are exchanged for stock, the value of those services is treated as ordinary income to the person performing the services. Since Aaron provided services worth $25,000, this is the amount that would be recognized as ordinary income. The transfer of property for stock, where no liabilities are assumed by the corporation and where the transferor has control of the corporation immediately after the exchange, is generally not considered a taxable event. Therefore, Aaron would not recognize a capital gain on the transfer of the property until the stock received in exchange is sold.

Following these guidelines, the correct answer is that Aaron must recognize ordinary income of $25,000 for the services provided in exchange for the stock in 2017. This is because the transfer of property in exchange for stock generally does not trigger immediate taxation if certain conditions regarding control and liabilities are met, which seem to be the case here as Aaron owned 80% of the stock immediately after the exchange.

Acton Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its most recent year of operations. Estimated manufacturing overhead $132,440 Estimated machine-hours 2,800 Actual manufacturing overhead $128,600 Actual machine-hours 2,750 The estimates of the manufacturing overhead and of machine-hours were made at the beginning of the year for the purpose of computing the company's predetermined overhead rate for the year. The overhead for the year was:

Answers

Answer:

The overhead for the year was $130,075

Explanation:

GIVEN INFORMATION -

                                                    ESTIMATED                              ACTUAL

Manufacturing overhead            $132,440                                   $128,600

Machine hours                             2800                                           2750

Here for calculating the overhead for the year we will use the following formula =      

\frac{Estimated Manufacturing Overhead}{Estiamted Machine Hours}\times Actual Machine Hours

= \frac{\$132,440}{2800}\times 2750

\$47.3\times 2750 = \$130,075

Therefore the overhead for the year was $130,075

                                   

Answer:

The overhead for the year was: $130,075.

Explanation:

We have the following formula to determine overhead for the year:

+ Overhead for the year = Predetermined overhead rate ($ per machine hour) x Actual machine hours;

in which:

+ Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead  / Estimated machine-hours = 132,440 / 2,800 = $47.3/machine hour.

+ Actual machine hours is given at 2,750 hours.

=> Overhead for the year = Predetermined overhead rate ($ per machine hour) x Actual machine hours = 47.3 x 2,750 = $130,075.

So, the answer is $130,075.

Which of the following is true of performance management? Select one: a. It focuses on analyzing employee performance by grouping them into predefined frequencies of performance ratings. b. It is a more specific process when compared to performance appraisal. c. It emphasizes instances of poor performance by employees. d. It is the ultimate goal of all performance-appraisal activities. e. It plays a role as part of the larger performance-appraisal process.

Answers

Answer: The following is true of performance management:  It focuses on analyzing employee performance by grouping them into predefined frequencies of performance ratings.

Performance management are predefined activities that check whether the short term and long term goals are achieved in an effective and cost-effective manner. It also focus on the performance of an organization, a sector, an worker, or the activity.

Therefore, the correct option is (a.)

Final answer:

Performance management is a broad process within an organization with the aim to better employee performance and competence. It comprises the process of performance appraisal, with the latter's ultimate goal being effective performance management. It plays a critical role in a firm's human resources strategy, central to employee motivation, development, and retention.

Explanation:

Performance management is an expansive process within an organization that aims at improving employee performance as well as enhancing their competence levels. It includes the process of performance appraisal but is not limited to it - the ultimate goal of all performance appraisal activities is to achieve effective performance management. Therefore, d. It is the ultimate goal of all performance-appraisal activities is the most accurate statement.

Performance appraisal is typically carried out multiple times a year, often involving a formal face-to-face meeting between the employee and their supervisor. This meeting provides a platform for communication about the employee’s performance, which could be praise for their excellent performance or concerns about aspects of their work needing improvement.

Overall, it is important to note that performance management is a critical aspect of an organization's human resources strategy, crucial to the motivation, development and retention of employees. It is a more comprehensive, ongoing process that consists of various performance appraisal activities, including feedback sessions, trainings, reward systems and progress monitoring.

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Suppose that global warming might raise sea levels such that much of Bangladesh would be flooded soon after the year 2050. The government of Bangladesh is considering two options for addressing this issue. Option 1 is to pay $8 billion today (year 2016) to reduce emissions. Option 2 is to build up levies in 34 years (year 2050) which is estimated to cost $25 billion at that time. Should government act now or later if the discount rate is 3%?

What is the present value of reducing emissions in year 2016? (Express your answer as an integer.)
What is the present value of building up levies in 34 years? (Include two digits after the decimal point.)
Should government act now or later, under these assumptions, and based on economic grounds?

Answers

To make this decision, the government of Bangladesh needs to make a cost-benefit analysis between the two options.

The present value shows the cost of reducing emissions in the year 2016: $ 8bi

The value of the future rate should be calculated by financial mathematics, by the compound interest formula for the future value. Let's find out how much the present value in 2016 $ 8bi will be worth in 2050.

Future value = Present Value (1 + i) ^ n

Where: i = interest rate = 3% per annum

n = number of periods = 34

Future Value = 8,000,000,000 (1 +0.03) ^ 34

Future value = 21,855,242,364

Therefore, comparing both costs for the year 2050

2016: $ 21bi

2050: $ 25bi

The government should invest now because it will cost US $ 4 billion.

Equipment was acquired on January 1, 2015, at a cost of $90,000. The equipment was originally estimated to have a salvage value of $5,000 and an estimated life of 10 years. Depreciation has been recorded through December 31, 2018, using the straight-line method. On January 1, 2019, the estimated salvage value was revised to $6,000 and the useful life was revised to a total of 8 years. Determine the depreciation expense for 2019.

Answers

Answer:

The depreciation expense for the year 2019 is $6250

Explanation:

Firstly the straight line depreciation method is one of the most commonly used depreciation method by the companies where the depreciation expenses for a full accounting period is calculated by subtracting the total cost of the asset by the salvage value of the asset over its useful estimated life.

FORMULA FOR STRAIGHT LINE DEPRECIATION METHOD =

\frac{COST OF THE ASSET - SALVAGE VALUE}{USEFUL LIFE YEAR}

In this question the first step to do is to calculate the depreciation expenses for the asset from year 2015 to 2018, where cost of asset = $90,000

                                                                          salvage value = $5,000

                                                                          useful life year = 10

Calculating the depreciation expense for 1 year =

\frac{\$90,000 - \$5,000}{10} = \$8500

But we have to calculate the value for 4 years between 2015 - 2018

so, $8500 x 4 = $34,000

Now in 2019 the salvage value is revised and it is equal to $6,000, and useful life is 8 years.

So here we will subtract the $34,000 from total cost of the asset $90,000, and take out depreciation expenses for the year 2019 as,

Firstly the cost of the asset for the year 2019 would be $90,000 - $34,000,

which is equal to $56,000 and now putting this value in the formula,

\frac{\$56,000 - \$6,000}{8} = \$6250

Therefore the depreciation expense for the year 2019 is $6250

On January 1, 2018, Green Corporation purchased 34% of the outstanding voting common stock of Gold Company for $300,850. The book value of the acquired shares was $275,200. The excess of cost over book value is attributable to an intangible asset on Gold's books that was undervalued and had a remaining useful life of five years. For the year ended December 31, 2018, Gold reported net income of $125,150 and paid cash dividends of $25,450. What is the carrying value of Green's investment in Gold at December 31, 2018?

Answers

Answer:

Total Green's Investment 329,607.8

Explanation:

Book Value 275,200

Goodwill 25,650

First we calculate the goodwill, which will be amortize over 5 years

[tex]\frac{goodwill}{useful \: life}  = amortization \: per \: year[/tex]

Amortization of Goodwill 25,650/5 = 5,130

Goodwill at December 31th 20,520

Next we use proportional equity to adjust the Green's book value Our proportion is 34%

Book Value 275,200

+ 34% of net income 125,120 = 42,540.8

-34% of cash dividends 25,450 = (8,653)

Book Value at December 31th 309,087.8

Book Value at December 31th 309,087.8

Goodwill at December 31th 20,520

Total Green's Investment 329,607.8

Weber Company purchases $50,000 of raw materials on account, and it incurs $60,000 of factory labor costs. Supporting records show that (a) the Assembly Department used $24,000 of raw materials and $35,000 of the factory labor, and (b) the Finishing Department used the remainder. Manufacturing overhead is assigned to departments on the basis of 160% of labor costs. Journalize the assignment of overhead to the Assembly and Finishing Departments. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually.)

Answers

Answer:

WIP assembly 56,000 debit

WIP Finishing 40,000 debit

Factory Overhead 96,000 credit

Explanation:

Assembly

DM 24000

DL 35000

FO 35,000 x 160% = 56,000

Finishing

26000

25000

FO 25,000 x 160% = 40,000

Final answer:

The manufacturing overhead of Weber Company, which is based on 160% of labor costs, is calculated for the Assembly Department and the Finishing Department. It results in $56,000 of overhead for the Assembly Department and $40,000 of overhead for the Finishing Department based on their respective labor costs.

Explanation:

Weber Company is using two types of resources in its manufacturing process, which are raw materials and factory labor. These resources are allocated between the Assembly Department (AD) and the Finishing Department (FD). To calculate the manufacturing overhead which is based on 160% of labor costs, it is required to multiply the labor cost in each department by 1.6.

For the AD, the overhead will be $35,000 x 1.6 = $56,000.For the FD, the labor cost will be the total labor cost minus the AD's labor cost (i.e., $60,000-$35,000) which equals $25,000, so the overhead will be $25,000 x 1.6 = $40,000.

In conclusion, the overhead for the AD is $56,000 and for the FD is $40,000.

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What is the primary difference between income and​ wealth? A. Income is earned by​ households; wealth is gained by inheritance. B. Income is a flow​ variable; wealth is a stock variable. C. Income reveals net​ worth; wealth is a stock variable. D. Income is the value of what a household owns minus its​ debt; wealth is a measure of net worth.

Answers

Answer: the correct ianswer is B. Income is a flow variable; wealth is a stock variable.

Explanation:

A stock is measured at one specific time, and represents a quantity existing at that point in time (say, December 31, 2004), which may have accumulated in the past. A flow variable is measured over an interval of time. Therefore, a flow would be measured per unit of time (say a year).

Mango Company applies overhead based on direct labor costs. For the current year, Mango Company estimated total overhead costs to be $300,000, and direct labor costs to be $150,000. Actual overhead costs for the year totaled $330,000, and actual direct labor costs totaled $170,000. At year-end, Factory Overhead account is:

Answers

Final answer:

Mango Company has an overapplied Factory Overhead balance of $10,000 at year-end due to the application of a predetermined overhead rate based on the actual direct labor costs.

Explanation:

The student's question relates to the calculation of the Factory Overhead account balance at year-end for Mango Company. Mango Company applies overhead based on direct labor costs. The estimated overhead costs were $300,000, while the actual overhead costs were $330,000. Direct labor costs were estimated to be $150,000, but the actual costs ended up being $170,000.

To find out the year-end balance of the Factory Overhead account, we need to calculate the applied overhead based on actual labor costs and compare it with the actual overhead costs incurred. The predetermined overhead rate is calculated as estimated overhead costs divided by estimated direct labor costs, which is $300,000 / $150,000 = 2. So, for every dollar of direct labor cost, Mango Company applies $2 in overhead costs.

Using this predetermined overhead rate, the applied overhead for the actual direct labor costs ($170,000) is 2 × $170,000 = $340,000. Since the actual overhead costs were $330,000, this results in a year-end Factory Overhead account with an overapplied balance of $340,000 - $330,000 = $10,000.

Astro Co. sold 20,600 units of its only product and incurred a $55,028 loss (ignoring taxes) for the current year as shown here. During a planning session for year 2018’s activities, the production manager notes that variable costs can be reduced 50% by installing a machine that automates several operations. To obtain these savings, the company must increase its annual fixed costs by $156,000. The maximum output capacity of the company is 40,000 units per year. ASTRO COMPANY Contribution Margin Income Statement For Year Ended December 31, 2017 Sales $ 784,860 Variable costs 627,888 Contribution margin 156,972 Fixed costs 212,000 Net loss $ (55,028 ) Prepare a forecasted contribution margin income statement for 2018 that shows the expected results with the machine installed. Assume that the unit selling price and the number of units sold will not change, and no income taxes will be due.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Contribution : Contribution tells the availability of funds.  It is computed by taking a difference  of sales and variable cost.

The equation to compute net income is shown below:

Sales - Variable cost = Contribution ;

Contribution - Fixed expense = Net income

For computing the foretasted contribution for 2018, the following information is need to be considered which is shown below.  

1. As for variable cost, 50% should be recognized i.e 627,888 × 50% = $313,944

2. The fixed cost is increased by $156,000. So the revised fixed cost = 212,000 + $156,000 = $368,000

3. Other things remain same.

The calculation attachment is given below:

Alpha Company uses a process cost system. During 2017, Alpha had no beginning work in process inventory. During 2017, Alpha started 700 units. Alpha had 200 units in work in process at the end of 2017. These units were 50% complete with respect to materials. Use this information to determine the equivalent units for direct materials. (Round & enter final answers to nearest whole number of units)

Answers

Answer:

The equivalent units for direct materials is 800 units

Explanation:

The following information is giving in the question which is shown below:

1. Starting units = 700 units

2. Ending Work in progress = 200 units

3.Material = 50% of Ending WIP

                 = 100 units

By using these information, the equivalent units for direct materials is shown below:

= Starting units + units of Material

= 700 + 100

= 800 units

Thus, the equivalent units for direct materials is 800 units.

Panther Co. had a quality-assurance warranty liability of $356,000 at the beginning of 2018 and $311,000 at the end of 2018. Warranty expense is based on 3% of sales, which were $58 million for the year. What were the warranty expenditures for 2018?

Answers

Answer:

warranty expenditures for 2018: $ 1,785,000

Explanation:

warranty expected 3% of sales

58,000,000 x 3% = 1,740,000

Beginning - warrant expenditures + expected liab = ending warrant liability

We post our givens in the formula and solve for expenditures:

356,000 - X + 1,740,000 = 311,000

1,740,000 + 356,000 - 311,000 = expenditures

1,785,000 = expenditures

​A firm that is first to the market with a new product frequently discovers that there are design flaws or problems with the product that were not anticipated. For​ example, the ballpoint pens made by the Reynolds International Pen Company often leaked. What effect do these problems have on the innovating​ firm, and how do these unexpected problems open up possibilities for other firms to enter the​ market?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:they can bring the sales down

Hello there!Answer: It will make the innovation firm not look good and other firms would enter the market without having problems with their product(s).

Since the firm is the first people to the market, the only thing people could buy from in the market is from the only firm in the market.

If the only firm ion the market has flaws in their products, then people would not buy their product(s), due to the fact that they have problems in their problems. These problems would make the firm not look so good to customers/consumers. Since they're the first, they would be making a "first impression" to it's consumers, and they didn't make a good first impression.

This would allow other firms to enter the market with products that don't have any problems/flaws. If other firms join the market and make products that don't have any problems, then people would choose them over the first firm, due to the fact that the other firms don't have problems with their products. This also allows firms to see what the problem was in the first firm in order to not make the same mistake, specifically by making solutions to those problems in their own products.

I hope this helps!Best regards,MasterInvestor

When Coca-Cola carries a different price depending on whether the consumer purchases it in a fine restaurant, a fast-food restaurant, or a vending machine, then this form of price discrimination is known as ________ pricing.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is Channel pricing.

Explanation:

In the industry, the Channel Pricing is used with the purpose of setting the prices depending on the means of delivery of goods or services. Coca-cola used the channel pricing to offer different prices depending on the location the people usually buy the products.

Final answer:

Coca-Cola's different pricing in various settings is an example of product differentiation pricing, which is part of a broader strategy within monopolistic competition where firms have some power to set prices based on product differentiation.

Explanation:

When Coca-Cola carries a different price depending on whether the consumer purchases it in a fine restaurant, a fast-food restaurant, or a vending machine, then this form of price discrimination is known as product differentiation pricing. This strategy involves setting different prices for the same product in different venues to reflect varying consumer preferences, costs of selling, and perceived value. For instance, a consumer might be willing to pay more for a Coca-Cola at a fine restaurant due to the ambience and service quality, while expecting to pay less from a vending machine.

The pricing strategy is not only about differences in venues but also capitalizes on monopolistic competition. This arises where you have a market filled with goods that are similar but differentiated from one another in some way, such as by brand, quality, or location. These differences allow firms to have some degree of market power to set prices above marginal cost. However, the market remains competitive due to the variety of choices available to consumers.

Unemployment occurs:
A. for a variety of reasons.B. regionally when businesses or factories close.C. nationally when a recession hits.D. All of these are true.

Answers

Answer:

option D) is correct

Explanation:

The reason for unemployment are variable and there can be many reasons for unemployment.

Unemployment results from closing of factories and business breakdown as many workers or the firm employers are rendered jobless with nothing to do.

When there is recession nationally, then unemployment rates increase as the nation or the economy suffers from a breakdown, and is not able to serve its people. Due to recession everything suffers as a result of economy contraction - GDP drops, income drops, retail, sales and hence employment, everything suffers.

Therefore, all the mentioned points are true

A well-known conglomerate that manufactures a multitude of noncompeting consumer products instituted a corporatewide initiative to encourage the managers of its many divisions to share consumer demographic information. However, since the initiative was implemented, the CEO has noticed that less information is available than ever. Why do you think the CEO’s plan backfired?

Answers

Answer: Because of misperception by the managers.

Explanation:  Every target group in case of business studies has many of its subsets and the managers of the conglomerate did not took this into consideration. They gave only the demographic information of consumers and failed to provide other relevant information necessary to support it.

Final answer:

The CEO's plan likely faltered because of cultural differences across divisions, increased management complexity and information overload problems, and a shift towards formalized information structures as the firm grew.

Explanation:

It seems that the CEO's plan for encouraging the sharing of consumer demographic information backfired due to a combination of factors related to the complexities inherent in managing a large, diverse conglomerate. First, there's a challenge in synchronizing different business cultures. A manufacturer of consumer goods may have a vastly different culture from a tech startup, making it difficult to standardize the flow of information.

Furthermore, management complexity increases disproportionately as more layers of communication are added within a conglomerate. This often leads to information overload, where sharing becomes inefficient, and critical information fails to reach the intended recipients in a timely manner. Thus, the initiative may have inadvertently created a counterproductive environment where managers are less inclined to share information than before.

Lastly, as a firm grows and information about its products and financials becomes more widely available, managers may rely less on personal relationships and more on formal structures for sharing information. This shift can reduce the immediate perceived need to share information actively among divisions, especially if managers do not see a direct benefit to their specific operations.

In 2010, the co-chairmen of President Obama’s deficit reduction commission proposed curtailing or eliminating many tax deductions such as the one for mortgage interest. Economists who favor the proposal argue that it would (i) correct a misallocation of resources because too much of the economy’s capital stock is tied up in residential housing and too little is invested in corporate capital. (ii) cut both spending and taxes. (iii) encourage private philanthropy.

Answers

Answer:

(i) correct a misallocation of resources because too much of the economy’s capital stock is tied up in residential housing and too little is invested in corporate capital.

Explanation:

Among the options, the only one that makes sense is the first one. Cutting deductions from a sector - such as real estate - means that the government will be raising tax revenue - fiscal policy. In fact, historically the mortgage industry is a beneficiary of tax deductions.

The fiscal budget is limited and is allocated in sectors where the government deems it necessary. Therefore, withdrawing the tax deduction of the mortgage industry is a way of reallocating these resources to other areas, such as to stimulate some productive sector of the private sector.

Elston Company compiled the following financial information as of December 31, 2017: Service revenue $700,000 Common stock 180,000 Equipment 240,000 Operating expenses 750,000 Cash 210,000 Dividends 60,000 Supplies 30,000 Accounts payable 120,000 Accounts receivable 90,000 Retained earnings, 1/1/17 450,000
Elston's retained earnings on December 31, 2017 are:

Answers

Answer:

Elston's retained earnings on December 31, 2017 are:  340,000

Explanation:

We are asked for ending Retained Earnings that is Calculate as follows:

[tex]$$Beginning Retained Earnings$$$+/- Net Income or Net Loss$$$- Dividends$$$Equals Ending Retained Earning[/tex]

So our first step would be to know net income:

[tex]$$Net Income = Revenue - Expenses[/tex]

Revenue = 700,000 Expenses = 750,000

Net Loss = 50,000

Now, along with the other givens. We are able to calculate the Ending Retained Earnings

Dividends = 60,000

Beginning Retained Earnings = 450,000

[tex]450,000 - 50,000 - 60,000 = 340,000[/tex]

The ending RE is 340,000

Final answer:

Elston Company's retained earnings as of December 31, 2017, are calculated by subtracting the net loss and dividends from the beginning retained earnings, which totals $340,000.

Explanation:

The subject of the question is to calculate the retained earnings of the Elston Company as of December 31, 2017. To determine the retained earnings, we need to consider the company's net income or loss and dividends. We begin with the retained earnings at the start of the year (Retained earnings, 1/1/17) and then adjust for the net income (or loss) and the dividends paid during the year.

The formula to calculate the ending retained earnings is:

Retained earnings, end of year = Retained earnings, beginning of year + Net Income (or Loss) - Dividends

In Elston's case:

Retained earnings, beginning of year (1/1/17): $450,000Net Income: Service revenue ($700,000) - Operating expenses ($750,000) = -$50,000 (net loss)Dividends: $60,000

So the retained earnings at the end of 2017 would be:

$450,000 (beginning retained earnings) - $50,000 (net loss) - $60,000 (dividends) = $340,000 (retained earnings, end of year).

The fact that the marginal product falls as the number of workers increases illustrates a property calleda. diminishing marginal product. b. supply and demand. c. labor theory. d. utility maximization.

Answers

Answer: The fact that the marginal product falls as the number of workers increases illustrates a property called "a. diminishing marginal product".

Explanation:  The law of diminishing returns is an economic concept according to which increasing the amount of a productive factor in the production of the good or service in question, causes the production yield to be lower as we increase this factor. As long as all other factors are maintained at a constant level (ceteris paribus).

Our company originally issued 1,000 shares of $1 par value common stock for $9 per share. We repurchased 200 shares of the stock as treasury stock for $10 per share. On September 5, we sold 100 shares of treasury stock for $12 per share. What account(s) and amount(s) would we credit when we record the journal entry for the September 5 transaction? (a) cash, $2,000 (b) treasury stock, $2,000 (c) treasury stock, $18,000 (d) cash, $18,000.

Answers

Answer:

D.cahs $18,000

Explanation:

cash $18,000

$2,000, account(s) and amount(s) would we credit when we record the journal entry for the September 5 transaction. So, the journal entry is Cash $2,000…dr.

Treasury Stock $2,000…. Cr.

In this instance, we sold 100 shares of treasury stock at a price of $12 each, resulting in total profits of $1,200 ($12 x 100 shares). The initial cost of the repurchased treasury stock was $10 per share, making the whole price $2,000 ($10 x 200 shares).

We would credit the cash account with the $2,000 received in order to record the sale. The treasury stock account is likewise credited, but only for $2,000 because that is how much the stock originally cost.

When selling treasury stock, the difference between the cash received and the stock's cost will be recorded as a gain or loss.

Journal entry is:

Cash $2,000Treasury Stock $2,000

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Plastics, Inc. and Joe's Canoe Shack both operate businesses located on the river. Plastics, Inc. dumps pollution into the river, which results in fewer canoe rentals for Joe. The marginal cost of cleaning up the pollution is $12,000 for Plastics, Inc. Joe estimates a reduction in pollution will lead to a marginal benefit of $20,000.
1. If Joe owns the rights to the river, which of the following is the most likely outcome? a. Plastics will pay Joe $15000 to pollute. b. Joe will pay Plastics $15000 not to pollute. c. Joe will enforce his property rights and not allow Plastics to pollute. d. Plastics will use its property rights to continue polluting.
2. If Plastics, Inc. owns the rights to the river, which of the following is the most likely outcome? a. Plastics will pay Joe $15000 to pollute. b. Joe will pay Plastics $15000 not to pollute. c. Joe will enforce his property rights and not allow Plastics to pollute. d. Plastics will use its property rights to continue polluting.

Answers

Answer:

1.- If Joe owns the rights to the river will enforce his property rights and not allow Plastics to pollute and clean the pollution. Plastic is breaking his rights on the river

In this scenario Joe has benefit for 20,000

and Plastic losses for 12,000

2.- If Plastic own the rights to the river Joe will pay Plastics $15,000 to not pollute. This will make Plastic earn money for cleaning the river and Joe gain 5,000 incremental benefit

Explanation:

(A) Joe has legal claims, so It will used before any economic options

(B) Joe doesn't have legal claims, but It notices that a good offer make both parties win.

Plastic will receive 15,000 dollars to clean the river, which has cost of 12,000 realizing a net gain of 3,000

While Joe estimated a marginal benefit of 5,000 after paying to Plastic to clean the river, (20,000 benefit - 15,000 cost)

Notice: the option for escenario (B) is also stands on (A) but because Joe has the legal rights on the river, it will try to make Plastic paid the pollution on the river and take the benefit completely for his own.

Final answer:

The most likely outcomes are that Joe will enforce his property rights against pollution if he owns the river, and Plastics, Inc. will continue polluting if they hold the rights. The exact financial settlements depend on negotiations based on marginal costs and benefits.

Explanation:

When considering property rights and environmental externalities, such as pollution, economic outcomes depend on who holds the rights. In the case where Joe owns the rights to the river, the most likely outcome is that he would enforce his rights and not allow Plastics, Inc. to pollute (c), since the marginal benefit to him from a cleaner river is greater than the marginal cost of cleaning up to Plastics, Inc.

In contrast, if Plastics, Inc. owns the rights to the river, they will likely use their property rights to continue polluting (d). However, there exists the possibility for negotiation where Joe could offer to pay Plastics, Inc. less than his marginal benefit of $20,000 to reduce pollution, ideally at a point where it exceeds Plastics' marginal cost of $12,000. This could result in a mutually beneficial agreement where pollution is reduced for a payment somewhere between these two values.

At 12 weeks‘ gestation, a client who is Rh negative expels the total products of conception. What is the nursing action after it has been determined that she has not been previously sensitized?

Answers

Answer:

In most cases, your blood will not mix with your babies until delivery.  

It takes a while to make antibodies that can affect the baby, so during the first pregnancy the baby should not be affected.  If you are Rh-negative and are not sensitized.  Your doctor may have the blood test repeated between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.  If the test still shows that you still have not been sensitized, you probably will not need another antibody test until delivery.  

Explanation:

The nursing action that needs to be taken once it is decided that the client has not been formerly sensitized through red blood cells that are Rh-positive would be:

- Administering Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours.

The regime of offering "Rho(D) Immune Globulin" in the period of 72 hours would be the most appropriate nursing action post determination of the fact that the client has not been priorly crippled to Rh-positive blood cells. This will assist in preventing the kind from any future threats that might arise due to this negative evacuation of Rh-negative blood cells. Now, the immune globulin would neutralize any of the probable side effects and make the gestation entirely safe and secure.

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Paid-in-capital in excess of par represents the amount of proceeds a. from the original sale of common stock b. in excess of the par value from the original sale of common stock c. at the current market value of the common stock d. at the curent book value of the common stock

Answers

Answer:

b. in excess of the par value from the original sale of common stock

Explanation:

The additional paid-in is the difference between the par value of a share and the value on which they are issued.

For example:

10,000 par value $5 issued at $8.60

[tex]$$issued - par value = additional paid-in[/tex]  

8.60 - 5 = 3.60 paid-in per share

10,000 shares * $3.6 = $36,000 total paid-in

Final answer:

Paid-in-capital in excess of par value is the amount received from the original sale of common stock that is above the designated par value of the shares. This additional capital becomes part of the company's equity and is recorded separately from the base par value on the balance sheet.

Explanation:

Paid-in-capital in excess of par represents b. in excess of the par value from the original sale of common stock. This occurs when a company issues stock at a price higher than its par value, which is the nominal or face value designated per share of stock in the corporate charter. The par value is typically a very low amount, like $0.01 per share, and the excess over this amount that's paid by investors becomes 'additional paid-in capital' or 'paid-in capital in excess of par' on the company's balance sheet.

For example, if a company with a par value of $0.01 per share issues 1 million shares at $10 per share, the company receives $10 million in total. However, only $10,000 is recorded as par value (1 million shares x $0.01), and the remaining $9,990,000 is recorded as paid-in capital in excess of par.

Yellow Enterprises reported the following ($ in 000s) as of December 31, 2018. All accounts have normal balances. Deficit (debit balance in retained earnings) $ 3,000 Common stock 2,700 Paid-in capital-treasury stock 1,300 Treasury stock at cost 260 Paid-in capital—excess of par 31,500 During 2019 ($ in 000s), net income was $10,300; 25% of the treasury stock was resold for $540; cash dividends declared were $800; cash dividends paid were $430. What ($ in 000s) was shareholders' equity as of December 31, 2018?

Answers

Answer:

The shareholders equity as of 31 December, 2018 is $32,240

Explanation:

Here for calculating the shareholders equity we will first have to find the total paid in capital of the Yellow enterprises and after that we will subtract the deficit balance that is remained in the retained earnings account, by doing this we will get the total paid in capital and retained earnings. Now we just have to subtract the treasury stock from the total paid in capital and retained earnings to get the remaining balance , which would be the shareholders equity of the Yellow enterprises.

so first step would be taking out total paid in capital =

                         common stock

                                   +

                         paid in capital(excess of par)

                                   +

                        paid in capital treasury stock

=       2700 + 31,500 + 1300

Total paid in capital = $35,500

Next step is to subtract deficit balance in retained earnings from this to get the total paid in capital and retained earnings =

   total paid in capital - deficit balance in retained earnings

Total paid in capital and retained earnings = $35,500 - $3000

                                                                        = $32,500

Now the last step for taking out shareholders equity we will subtract the treasury stock from the total paid in capital and retained earnings,

Shareholders equity = total paid in capital and retained earnings

                                                          -

                                              treasury stock at cost

                                   = $32,500 - $260

                                    = $32,240

Final answer:

Shareholders' equity for Yellow Enterprises as of December 31, 2018, was calculated to be $32,240 (in 000s), after combining all equity components and subtracting the deficit.

Explanation:

To calculate the shareholders' equity of Yellow Enterprises as of December 31, 2018, we need to sum up all the shareholders' equity components except the Deficit, because it is a deduction in the equity.

Shareholders' equity components are:


 Common stock: $2,700
 Paid-in capital-treasury stock: $1,300
 Treasury stock at cost: -$260 (since it is a contra equity account, it diminishes shareholders' equity)
 Paid-in capital—excess of par: $31,500

Calculating these:

Shareholders' Equity = Common stock + Paid-in capital-treasury stock + Paid-in capital—excess of par - Treasury stock at cost

Shareholders' Equity = $2,700 + $1,300 + $31,500 - $260

Shareholders' Equity = $35,240

To this, we must subtract the deficit (debit balance in retained earnings):

Shareholders' Equity = $35,240 - $3,000

Shareholders' Equity = $32,240

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Bradford Services Inc. (BSI) is considering a project that has a cost of $10 million and an expected life of 3 years. There is a 30 percent probability of good conditions, in which case the project will provide a cash flow of $9 million at the end of each year for 3 years. There is a 40 percent probability of medium conditions, in which case the annual cash flows will be $4 million, and there is a 30 percent probability of bad conditions and a cash flow of $1 million per year. BSI uses a 12 percent cost of capital to evaluate projects like this. Find the project's expected cash flows and NPV.

Answers

Final answer:

The project's expected cash flows are $4.6 million and its NPV is $3.80 million.

Explanation:

To calculate the project's expected cash flows, we need to calculate the expected cash flow for each condition and then multiply it by the probability of that condition occurring. For the good conditions, the cash flow is $9 million for 3 years, so the expected cash flow is $9 million times 0.30, which equals $2.7 million. For the medium conditions, the cash flow is $4 million for 3 years, so the expected cash flow is $4 million times 0.40, which equals $1.6 million. For the bad conditions, the cash flow is $1 million for 3 years, so the expected cash flow is $1 million times 0.30, which equals $0.3 million. Adding up these expected cash flows, we get $2.7 million + $1.6 million + $0.3 million = $4.6 million.

To calculate the project's NPV (Net Present Value), we need to discount the expected cash flows back to their present value. Using a 12% cost of capital, we can discount each year's cash flow individually. The present value of $2.7 million at a 12% discount rate for 3 years is $2.7 million / (1 + 0.12) + $2.7 million / (1 + 0.12)² + $2.7 million / (1 + 0.12)³ = $2.17 million. By the same calculation, the present value of $1.6 million is $1.43 million, and the present value of $0.3 million is $0.20 million. Adding up these present values, we get $2.17 million + $1.43 million + $0.20 million = $3.80 million. Therefore, the project's expected cash flows are $4.6 million and its NPV is $3.80 million.

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When you graduate from college, your mother plans to give you a gift of $70,000 to start you on your way. However, to determine what you learned in business school, your mother presents you with four options on how to receive the gift. Which of the four options presented by your mother will yield the greatest present value to you? A. A lump sum of $70,000 after grad school​ (2 years) assuming a 7​% discount rate. B. A lump sum of $70,000 after grad school​ (2 years) assuming a 2% discount rate. C. A lump sum of $70,000 today. D $35,000 per year for the next 2 years using a 2​% discount rate.

Answers

Answer:

C. A lump sum of $70,000 today.

Explanation:

C.- Because the if the cash is received today then you will don't have to discounted at all.

The other option puts the 70,00 in the future, so the present value will always be lower than 70,000 today under normal condition.

Final answer:

The mother's gift option that yields the greatest present value is Option C, the immediate lump sum of $70,000, since it does not need to be discounted and retains its full value.

Explanation:

To determine which option presented by the mother yields the greatest present value, we need to account for the time value of money. The present value (PV) is the current value of future sums of money at a specific discount rate. The discount rate is a percentage that represents the time value of money and the risk of the investment.

Option A is to receive $70,000 after 2 years at a 7% discount rate. The present value is calculated: PV = $70,000 / (1 + 0.07)^2 = $61,320.56.

Option B is also to receive $70,000 after 2 years, but at a 2% discount rate. The present value is calculated: PV = $70,000 / (1 + 0.02)^2 = $67,645.92.

Option C, which is $70,000 today, has no need for discounting as it's already in present terms, so PV = $70,000.

Option D is $35,000 per year for the next 2 years using a 2% discount rate. The present value is calculated as the sum of the PV of two payments: PV = $35,000 / (1 + 0.02) + $35,000 / (1 + 0.02)^2 = $34,313.73 + $33,641.89 = $67,955.62.

Comparing these options, we can see that Option C, which is the immediate lump sum of $70,000, has the highest present value and is therefore the best choice financially.

Sweet Charity Company produces boxes of candy products by the gross (candy canes and lollipops). During September, sales in units were projected to be 20,000 and production was projected to be 14,000 units. Direct labor rate is $8.50 per hour, and each unit takes 0.75 hours of direct labor to make. What is the total cost of direct labor for September?

Answers

Final answer:

The total direct labor cost for Sweet Charity Company in September is calculated to be $89,250, based on projected production of 14,000 units, each requiring 0.75 hours of labor at $8.50 per hour.

Explanation:

The total cost of direct labor for September for the Sweet Charity Company can be calculated by multiplying the number of units produced by the time it takes to make each unit and then by the direct labor rate. According to the given information, the production was projected to be 14,000 units, with each unit taking 0.75 hours of direct labor. The direct labor rate is $8.50 per hour.

To find the total direct labor hours required for production, we multiply the number of units (14,000) by the hours per unit (0.75 hours):

14,000 units × 0.75 hours/unit = 10,500 hours

Next, to calculate the total cost of direct labor, we multiply the total labor hours by the direct labor hourly rate:

10,500 hours × $8.50/hour = $89,250

Therefore, the total labor cost for Sweet Charity Company in September is $89,250.

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