Answer:
C) The main predator of these fish is another species of fish on which alligators also prey
Explanation:
The only reasonable explanation as to why the species of fish experiences decline in number despite the fishing being the same, and the number of alligators that preyed on the fish going down, is another species of fish which preyed upon the fishes that are fished, but the alligators were also preying on them. Since the alligators have been mostly removed from the ecosystem, the fish that preyed on the other fishes experienced significant increase in its numbers, and since it feeds upon the other fish, that resulted in constant decline in the population of those fishes. The decline in number will only stop when the carrying capacity is reached for the predatory fish in the ecosystem.
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A) DNA → mRNA.
B) mRNA → cDNA.
C) mRNA → protein.
D) DNA → DNA.
E) tRNA → mRNA.
Answer:
mRNA → cDNA
Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase enzyme is generally used by the retrovirus for their genome replication. This enzyme was discovered by Howard tenim.
Reverse transcriptase enzyme generates the complementary DNA from the mRNA template by the process of reverse transcription. The presence of RNase H, RNA-dependent DNA polymerase and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity enable the enzyme to convert the mRNA into DNA.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Answer:
(B) mRNA → cDNA.
Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase can be defined as an enzyme, which makes cDNA (complementary DNA) by using mRNA as a template. These enzymes are also known as RNA dependent DNA synthase as they make DNA by using information present in RNA.
These enzymes are used by eukaryotes (as telomerase) to replicate chromosome ends or telomeres, by retrotransposon, and by some viruses, such as retroviruses to replicate their genetic material.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Which process does the plant need energy to perform?
A. Release of oxygen into the atmosphere
B. Transpiration of water
C. Absorbing water into the root hairs
D. Pulling nutrients into the root hairs
The plant needs to release oxygen into the atmosphere to produce energy by a process called photosynthesis.
What is photosynthesis?Photosynthesis is a group of chemical reactions by which plant cells can produce energy and biomass by absorbing the energy of the sun (solar radiation).
The plant makes photosynthesis by absorbing CO2 and releasing oxygen, and they also need water and sunlight to perform this process.
Oxygen can be considered as a product of photosynthetic reactions that use other organisms as reactant during cellular respiration, while the other photosynthetic product is glucose, which serves as a source of energy.
In conclusion, the plant needs to release oxygen into the atmosphere to produce energy by a process called photosynthesis.
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The process that the plant needs energy to perform is pulling nutrients into the root hairs. Therefore, option D is correct
- Active Transport: Bringing nutrients into root hairs requires energy because it involves active transport, which moves molecules or ions against their concentration gradient.
- ATP: The energy for active transport comes from adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is produced through cellular respiration in plant cells.
- Root Function: Nutrient uptake by roots is crucial for plant growth, development, and overall health, as nutrients are necessary for various metabolic processes and structural components.
- Absorption of Water: While water absorption into root hairs is vital for plant survival, it typically occurs through passive transport processes like osmosis, which do not require additional energy.
- Transpiration: The transpiration of water, or the loss of water vapor from plant surfaces, does not directly require energy from the plant, as it happens passively through evaporation driven by environmental factors such as temperature and humidity.
Which of the following might be an investigation of microclimate?A) the effect of ambient temperature on the onset of caribou migrationB) the seasonal population fluctuation of nurse sharks in coral reef communitiesC) competitive interactions among various species of songbirds during spring migrationD) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Answer:
D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow
Explanation:
Microclimate is the climate only in a small area within a bigger area. Or the climate of a specific section that is different from its surrounding areas.
The example above, is considered a study on microcliimate because the study is limited to only the "zone" where a forest transitions into a meadow and it does not consider the climate of the surroundings of that zone.
The other options are more broad, but the last one is more specific in terms of the location.
The investigation of microclimate relating to how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in a forest-to-meadow transition zone aligns with the study of microclimates and their impact on local ecosystems.
Explanation:In the context of microclimate investigations, which are smaller localized climates within larger ones, the most appropriate answer would be D) how sunlight intensity affects plant community composition in the zone where a forest transitions into a meadow. This investigation directly looks at the impact of an abiotic factor, sunlight intensity, on the biotic community composition at a specific location with unique microclimate conditions. It aligns with the concept of biogeography, which studies the geographic distribution of living things in relation to abiotic factors, like temperature and sunlight.
Microclimate studies often examine precise conditions and their effects on the local flora and fauna. In this scenario, the transition zone between forest and meadow creates a unique microclimate where sunlight intensity varies and can significantly affect which plants can thrive, thereby influencing the local ecosystem. Understanding such dynamics can help ecologists grasp the interplay of abiotic and biotic factors, which is crucial when considering the changes in species distribution and interactions due to macro-environment shifts, such as climate change.
How do nerve signals pass through a synapse?
by depolarization
by acetylcholine
by chemical transmitters
by axon connections
Answer:
By axon connections.
Hope you got your answer.
A doctor is concerned that Martha has dysfunction involving the axons of her brain. Which neuroimaging technique would BEST be able to detect this problem?
A) positron emission tomography (PET)
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) computed tomography (CT) scan
D) diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
Answer:
B. diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
What is the correct sequence of steps in cellular respiration
Answer:
Cellular respiration takes in food and uses it to create ATP, a chemical which the cell uses for energy. Usually, this process uses oxygen, and is called aerobic respiration. It has four stages known as glycolysis, Link reaction, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain.
Eras are divided into periods, which can be further divided into _____
it can be further divided into epoch
Answer:
The answer we seek is "epochs."
Explanation:
Hello!
Let's solve this!
The ages are stages in which it is divided chronologically into geology.
These ages are divided into periods.
For their part, periods are divided into epochs.
For example:
Era: Cenozoic
Period: Paleogene
epoch: eocene
Therefore we conclude that the answer we seek is "epochs."
The cell respiration pathway that occurs in the mitochondria is
Answer:
The path of cellular respiration that occurs in the mitochondria is aerobic.
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration is what uses oxygen to extract energy from glucose. It is carried out inside cells, in organelles called mitochondria, through which chemical energy is obtained from the breakdown of organic molecules.
To obtain glucose energy, a process occurs in which the carbon is oxidized and when it reaches the mitochondria it mixes with the water making a chemical compound called glucositisa ( pathway responsible for oxidizing glucose to obtain energy for the cell) in which the oxygen from the air is the oxidant used.
Aerobic respiration is a process consisting of chemical reactions that are grouped into 3 stages, taking into account the place of the cell in which each one develops.
1) Glucolisis: It is carried out in the cytoplasm.
2) Krebs Cycle: It is produced in the mitochondria matrix.
3) Respiratory Chain: Occurs in mitochondrial ridges.
The primary cell respiration pathway in the mitochondria is the Krebs cycle, which generates ATP, NADH, and FADH2 from the oxidation of acetyl-CoA. These products are then used in the Electron Transport Chain, also in the mitochondria, to create more ATP.
Explanation:The cell respiration pathway that occurs in the mitochondria is the Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle or TCA cycle. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm where glucose is converted into pyruvate. The pyruvate then enters the mitochondria where it is used in the Krebs cycle. This cycle oxidizes acetyl-CoA into carbon dioxide and produces ATP, NADH, and FADH2. These electron carriers (NADH and FADH2) are then used in the Electron Transport Chain (also in the mitochondria) to produce more ATP, which is the energy currency of the cell.
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A polytypic species is:(A) one that has no phenotypic variability has never been observed in nature (B) is one composed of local populations that differ from one another with regard to the expression of no more than three traits
(C) is one that has no phenotypic variability.
(D) is composed of widely dispersed populations.
(E) has never been observed in nature.
Answer:
(D) is composed of widely dispersed populations.
Explanation:
A polytypic species is the one that is composed of various local populations. These local populations differ from each other with respect to one or more genetic traits. Each of the local populations that make a polytypic species exhibit genetic variations among its individuals.
For example, individuals from the local population of human exhibit variations for genetic traits such as skin color, hair color, etc.
Bone formation begins when ____________ secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called ____________ . Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when ____________ crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the ____________ fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including ____________ (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and ____________ (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.
Answer:
Bone formation begins when osteoblats secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers. The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification.
Bone formation is a process initiated by osteoblasts, which secrete an organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. This structure is then mineralized with the formation and deposit of hydroxyapatite crystals, which require the presence of collagen fibers. The process is aided by vitamins D and C, as well as the essential minerals calcium and phosphorus.
Explanation:Bone formation begins when osteoblasts secrete the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid. Calcification, or mineralization, then occurs when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix. These crystals form when calcium and phosphate ions reach critical levels and precipitate out of solution and deposit in and around the collagen fibers.
The entire process of bone formation requires a number of substances, including vitamin D (which enhances calcium absorption from the GI tract) and vitamin C (which is required for collagen formation), as well as calcium and phosphorus for calcification. Once entrapped in the matrix, the osteoblasts become osteocytes, the cells of mature bone.
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What is the most important distinction between the membrane transporters known as channel proteins and those known as carrier proteins?
Answer:
Channel proteins form hydrophilic channels to passively transport substances down the concentration gradient.
Carrier proteins bind to substances to transport them actively against the concentration gradient. They do not form channels.
Explanation:
Channel proteins are the membrane proteins that serve in transport of small polar molecules and/or ions by making a hydrophilic pore across the membrane. These molecules diffusion through the pore and exhibit facilitated diffusion.
Carrier proteins are the membrane proteins that transport the substances across the membrane by binding to them. They do not form the hydrophilic channels. Carrier proteins serve in the active transport of molecules against the concentration gradient.
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
Answer: promoting the rapid resynthesis of ATP, by the action of creatine kinase.
Explanation:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the main form of chemical energy, its hydrolysis remaining highly exergonic. The maintenance of cellular homeostasis mechanisms, that adjust the generation processes of ATP, responds to the energy demand.
Creatine phosphate (CrP) was discovered in 1927 in the muscle tissue. Free creatine (Cr) is generated from the breakage of (CrP) during muscle contraction. Since the PCr / CK (Creatine kinase) system has a high rate of ATP generation, it is particularly important in situations of high metabolic demand, such as high-intensity physical exercise, when the ATP utilization rate exceeds its generation capacity by other metabolic pathways.
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
Explanation:Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by providing a quick source of energy during high-intensity, short-duration activities.
When the muscle requires energy, creatine phosphate transfers its phosphate group to ADP, converting it back into ATP, which can be used by the muscle for contraction.
This process allows the muscle to continue contracting even when the supply of ATP is depleted.
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Jim is 78 years old and has been experiencing muscle tremors and rigidity. His hand shakes when he tries to pick up objects, and he has started walking with a shuffle. From which is Jim most likely suffering?
Answer:
Jim, probably suffering from Parkinson's disease.
Explanation:
Parkinson's is a progressive disease of the neurological system that primarily affects the brain. This is one of the main and most common nervous disorders of the elderly and is characterized mainly by impairing motor coordination and causing tremors and difficulties to walk and move. There are no ways to prevent Parkinson's, but there are several treatments to reduce the symptoms of the disease.
Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
Answer:
peptide bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure
Explanation:
The primary structure of a protein is the amino acids sequence of a protein or polypeptide chain, is the linear sequence of the protein . The amino acids are joined by peptide bond or amide bonds, this is the reason of the name polypeptide.
Carboxylic acid and an amino group form the peptide bond by the loss of a water molecule. The peptide bond is a covalent bond. It forms a relatively rigid unit. It´s synthesis is an enzymatically process carried out and controlled by the ribosome.
The characters of the peptide bond have influence on the flexibility and stability of polypeptide
The primary structure of a protein is formed by the covalent bonds, known as peptide bonds, between amino acid residues.
Explanation:The primary structure of a protein is formed by the covalent bonds, known as peptide bonds, between amino acid residues. These bonds link the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of the next amino acid in the chain. The primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids that make up the protein.
Example: If we have a polypeptide chain with the amino acid sequence 'Gly-Ala-Ser-Pro', the primary structure would be 'Gly-Ala-Ser-Pro'.
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Which of the following events does NOT take place in the light reactions?
A) Transfer of electrons to the reaction center of photosystem I
B) Conversion of 3PG to G3P
C) Generation of NADPH from NADP+
D) Splitting of water, releasing an electron
E) Generation of ATP from ADP + Pi
Answer:
B) Conversion of 3PG to G3P
Explanation:
Conversion of 3PG (3 phosphoglycerate) or 3 phosphoglyceric acid is a reduction reaction step of the Calvin cycle, it does not take place during light reaction of the photosynthesis. The 3PG is converted into molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) using ATP and NADPH. Generation of NADPH from NADP+, Photolysis or splitting of splitting of water that releases an electron and synthesis of ATP from ADP + Pi occurs during light reactions.
Answer:Conversion of 3PG to G3P
Explanation:
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is ___________.
Answer:
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a male sex cell or sperm. Autosomes are the non-sex chromosomes, and humans have 22 pairs. The presence of a Y chromosome indicates the cell is male.
Explanation:A human cell that contains 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is classified as a sperm cell. This particular chromosome configuration represents the typical makeup of a male sex cell or gamete.
An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the sex chromosomes. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. The Y chromosome is one of two types of sex chromosomes.
The presence of the Y chromosome indicates male genetic sex. Therefore, a human cell with 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a sperm cell that is specific to males.
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A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of
Answer:
amoeba
Explanation:
it is unicellular organismy
A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of Phagocytosis. This process involves a type of white blood cell called a neutrophil, engulfing and subsequently destroying invading microorganisms, forming a critical part of our body's non-specific immunity.
Explanation:A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of Phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a process in which large particles such as cells or microorganisms are ingested by a cell. For instance, when microorganisms invade the body, a type of white blood cell known as a neutrophil removes these invaders through this process.
The neutrophil surrounds and engulfs the microorganism which is ultimately destroyed by the neutrophil. This process was first observed in starfish in the 1880s by Nobel Prize-winning zoologist Ilya Metchnikoff and he established a connection to white blood cells in humans and other animals. This observation suggested that instead of spreading pathogens as previously believed, white blood cells or phagocytes provide a robust defense mechanism against a wide variety of microbes, hence forming a critical part of innate non-specific immunity.
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Match each description or example with the type of evidence it provides to support the idea that living organisms evolve. 1. The skeletons of mammals that existed 150 million years ago are different from the skeletons of mammals that exist today. 2. The front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales all have a similar bone structure. 3. All vertebrates contain the protein hemoglobin, but the structure of the hemoglobin molecule varies from one species to the next.
The skeletons of mammals that existed 150 million years ago are different from the skeletons of mammals that exist today, showing anatomical evidence of evolution. The similar bone structure in the front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales suggests a common ancestor and provides homologous structures as evidence of evolution. The variation in the structure of the hemoglobin molecule among different vertebrate species provides molecular evidence of evolution.
Explanation:The first example provides anatomical evidence of evolution. The difference in skeleton structure between mammals that existed 150 million years ago and mammals today suggests that living organisms have evolved over time.
The second example provides homologous structures as evidence of evolution. The similar bone structure in the front limbs of humans, bats, birds, and whales indicates a common ancestor and evolutionary relationship.
The third example provides molecular evidence of evolution. The variation in the structure of the hemoglobin molecule among different vertebrate species supports the idea of evolution.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the sun’s radiation
PLEASE HELP!!!
Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?
1. Eukaryotic cells are smaller than prokaryotic cells.
2. Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
3. Eukaryotic cells have more cell walls than prokaryotic cells.
4. Eukaryotic cells have less DNA than prokaryotic cells.
Correct answer will get a reward!
Answer:
3.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells due to their structural simplicity and smaller size. They lack complex organelles which makes their reproduction process, binary fission, faster and more straightforward than eukaryotic cell division.
Explanation:Prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells primarily due to their structural simplicity. This is best reflected in option 2: Eukaryotic cells are more structurally complex than prokaryotic cells. Because prokaryotic cells lack complex organelles such as a nucleus or mitochondria, their cellular processes, including reproduction, can take place more rapidly. Their reproduction method, known as binary fission, is faster and more straightforward than the cell division (mitosis) used by eukaryotic cells. The small size and simplicity of the prokaryotic cells means they require less time and energy to reproduce. So your answer to 'Why do prokaryotic cells usually reproduce more quickly than eukaryotic cells?' would be the structural simplicity and smaller size of prokaryotic cells.
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Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has __________. Select one: a. spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid b. osteons; trabeculae c. trabeculae; osteons d. osteocytes; no osteocytes
Answer:
b. osteons; trabeculae
Explanation:
Compact bone has osteons, whereas spongy bone has trabeculae.
Compact bone is characterized by osteons which provide support and strength, while spongy bone is characterized by trabeculae that help resist stress and reduce weight of the bone.
Explanation:Compact bone has osteons, whereas spongy bone has trabeculae. Osteons, also known as Haversian systems, are the basic structural unit of the compact bone, tightly packed together enabling them to provide support and strength. On the other hand, trabeculae are thin, vertebral structures that make up spongy bone, named for their sponge-like appearance. Their structure helps the bone to resist stress and reduce weight.
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Which of the following statements about innate immunity is true?
It involves the activity of B and T cells.
Innate immunity is present at birth. Innate immunity involves specific recognition of microorganisms via a memory response.
The innate immune response does not have a mechanism for detecting invading microorganisms.
It is activated only in response to tissue damage or a signal from an infected cell.
Answer:
Innate immunity is present at birth.
Explanation:
The immune system is divided into two categories such as innate immunity and adaptive immunity. The innate immunity is present in an individual during birth. It does not depend on prior contact with microorganisms or immunization. It is present at birth and changes throughout the life of the individual. There are different barriers of innate immunity such as skin, mucous, lysozymes (present in the tears). This type of response is rapid and not specific. It has no memory. The cells of innate immunity are the phagocytic cell, dendritic cells.
The true statement regarding innate immunity is that it is present from birth, does not specifically recognize microorganisms via a memory response, and is not solely activated by tissue damage or signals from infected cells.
Explanation:The statement that innate immunity is present at birth is true. Innate immunity is a form of immune defense that is evolutionarily older and present in the body from the point of birth.
The other statements are false: Innate immunity that does not involve the specific recognition of microorganisms via a memory response. This is a feature of the adaptive immune system, which involves B and T cells. Furthermore, the innate immune system does possess mechanisms for detecting invading microorganisms through pattern recognition receptors that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns. Lastly, while tissue damage or a signal from an infected cell can activate the innate immune response, it can also be activated by other factors such as the recognition of a foreign substance or pathogen.
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Which statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is true?
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
b. The binge eating/purging type of bulimia nervosa is different from anorexia nervosa in that it involves both low weight and amenorrhea.
Answer:
a. Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder.
The correct statement is option (a), signifying that anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa might represent phases of the same eating disorder, as about half of those with anorexia nervosa develop bulimia nervosa.
Explanation:The statement about anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa that is true is option (a). Approximately half of those with anorexia nervosa go on to develop bulimia nervosa, indicating that the two disorders may not be distinct but may represent phases of the same eating disorder. This reflects a continuum in eating disorders where a person's condition can evolve from one disorder to another. Unlike bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa typically involves maintaining a body weight that's well below average through starvation and/or excessive exercise, often accompanied by a distorted body image. Meanwhile, bulimia nervosa involves repeated episodes of binge eating followed by purging, which can result in serious health complications like electrolyte imbalances, although individuals with bulimia may maintain a normal weight.
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A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could her parents have?
a. Rr and RR
b. Rr and rr
c. RR and RR
d. RR and rr
To have a child with attached earlobes (rr), both parents must contribute a recessive allele. The only possible genotypes for the parents that can produce such a combination are one parent with Rr (heterozygous) and the other with rr (homozygous recessive).
If a female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype, we can determine the possible genotypes of her parents. Having free-hanging earlobes is an autosomal dominant trait, while attached earlobes are a recessive trait. Since the female has attached earlobes, her genotype must be rr. Each parent must contribute one recessive allele for the trait to be expressed, so each parent must have at least one r allele.
Based on the choices provided:
a. Rr and RR - Not possible because the RR genotype would not give the recessive allele.b. Rr and rr - Possible because both parents would contribute a recessive r allele to the child.c. RR and RR - Impossible because both parents would only contribute dominant alleles.d. RR and rr - Not possible because the RR genotype would not give the recessive allele.Therefore, the correct genotypes for the parents of a female born with attached earlobes are (b) Rr and rr.
Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
A) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
B) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
C) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
D) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied.
Answer:
D) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied.
Explanation:
When we do a monohybrid cross, we look at one characteristic at a time. When you do dihybrid cross, you are looking at characteristics.
Monohybrid cross example:
If black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b) what is the probability of black fur in an offspring between two dogs heterozygous for the trait?
Bb x Bb
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
So the probability of black fur is 75%.
Dihybrid example:
If black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b) and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s) what is the probability of white fur and long hair in an offspring between two dogs heterozygous for both traits?
BbSs x BbSs
BS bS Bs bs
BS BBSS BbSS BBSs BbSs
bS BbSS bbSS BbSs bbSs
Bs BBSs BbSs BBss Bbss
bs BbSs bbSs Bbss bbss
The answer would be 1:16 = 6.25%
In primary production ________. (A) there is a net gain in organic carbon by organisms(B) carbon dioxide is released into the water(C) oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs(D) oxygen is utilized by plants(E) proteins are made by animals
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Primary productivity can be defined as the phenomenon in which the plants make food by the help of process photosynthesis and plants itself use the carbohydrates produced by them.
The oxygen that is produced as a by product from the plants is more than it is consumed by the animals.
There is a gain in the organic carbon by the organism as the amount of organic matter increases as we go up.
Hence, the correct answer is option A
In primary production, there's a net gain in organic carbon by organisms, which convert inorganic carbon into organic compounds through photosynthesis. Moreover, the oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs, and oxygen is indeed utilized by plants during cellular respiration.
Explanation:In primary production, (A) there is a net gain in organic carbon by organisms. This means that organisms, specifically autotrophs or primary producers, convert inorganic carbon from carbon dioxide into organic compounds through the process of photosynthesis. This process is a vital part of the carbon cycle, connecting all living organisms on Earth.
(C) Oxygen utilized by animals is less than the oxygen consumed by autotrophs is also true. Oxygen, which is released by autotrophs during photosynthesis, is utilized by animals and other heterotrophs for respiration. The autotrophs consume more oxygen in the process of photosynthesis than what is used by animals.
(D) Oxygen is utilized by plants is accurate as well. During cellular respiration, plants utilize oxygen to break down glucose and produce ATP (energy). It's important to note that plants use oxygen during cellular respiration but produce more of it during photosynthesis, contributing to an overall increase of oxygen in the atmosphere.
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Which structure is the site of photosynthesis within a plant?
A. Roots B. Leaves C. Xylem D. Stomata
The correct answer is option D. Stomata.
What are pores and functions?Stomata are small pores on the surface of leaves and stems that regulate the flow of gas in and out of the leaves. Therefore, it regulates the whole plant. They adapt to local and global changes on all time scales, from minutes to thousands of years.
The stomata are composed of a special pair of epidermal cells called guard cells. Stomata regulate gas exchange between plants and the environment and control water loss by resizing the pores of the stomata.
Photosynthesis uses sunlight and carbon dioxide to make food, releasing the oxygen we breathe as a by-product. Because this evolutionary innovation is central to plant identity, almost all land plants use the same pores, called stomata, to take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
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At the end of meiosis 2 how many cells are there
Answer:
4
Explanation:
Meiosis II starts with two haploid parent cells and ends with four haploid daughter cells, maintaining the number of chromosomes in each cell. Homologous pairs of cells are present in meiosis I and separate into chromosomes before meiosis II
What four things do forensic scientists primarily do in order to reconstruct a crime and find the person who committed it?
Tear up, burn, destroy and hide evidence
Distribute, memorize, repeat and care for evidence
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Disregard, ignore, undermine and object to evidence
Answer:
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Explanation:
The application of science which is used to investigate crime scenes in order to find the correct evidence using different technologies is called forensic science. It plays a very important role in criminal justice and uses various discipline of subjects such as chemistry, physics, biology, computers. etc to find the main suspects in suspense of evidence.
The forensic scientist arrives at the crime scene to look for the evidence and then collect them and take it to the laboratory for further analysis of the evidence with respect to crime scene. So the primary thing that the forensic scientist do to reconstruct a crime and find the culprit is to
find, collect, label and analyse the evidence.
Answer:
Find, collect, label and analyze evidence
Explanation:
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The health care provider prescribes daily fasting blood glucose levels for a client with diabetes mellitus. The goal of treatment is that the client will have glucose levels within which range?
Answer: 70 to 105 mg/dL of blood glucose
Explanation:
The healthcare provider is asking the patient of diabetes to check the glucose level daily when the patient has not eaten anything.
The patients is suffering from diabetes mellitus and the normal blood glucose level should be in between 70 to 105 mg/dL under fasting conditions.
Below and above this level the blood glucose level will be abnormal and leads to diabetes.