Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree is an imaginary diagram which is used to represent the evolutionary relationship among organism.
It is a form of hypothesis not a definite fact, that the branching of trees reflect how the organism have evolved from the common ancestors.
It shows how two organisms are related to one another and it shows that two organism that have similar characters share more recent common ancestors.
Answer:
E) Combination of Linnean classification and DNA
Explanation:
The Linnean classification gives us a map and a orientation on where to go in the branches of families. The DNA give us the relationships between relatives
A(n) ______ occurs when two or more atoms or molecules combine to make new molecules with different properties. chemical reaction response nucleic acids
Answer: Chemical reaction
Explanation:
Please help. (Question in linked image)
Answer:
The first option that is marked is correct.
Explanation:
Ionic bond is much stronger than the hydrogen bonding thus
it would require a large amount of energy to separate them for replication or transcription.
A person with a genotype of HbSS has sickle cell disease. A person with a genotype of HbAS allele carries the sickle cell trait. A person with a genotype of HbAA does not have sickle cell disease and does not carry the trait. The Punnett square shows the genotype of two people carrying the sickle cell trait. What are the chances that their offspring will have sickle cell anemia?
Answer:
There is a 25% chance that the offspring will have sickle cell anemia (SS)
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disease, where red blood cells can take the shape of a crescent (sickle), and this change allows the red blood cells to be more easily destroyed, causing anemia. Sickle cell anemia is caused by defective hemoglobin (Hb), which is the oxygen carrying protein in blood cells. Hemoglobin is made up of four peptide chains, each bound to a heme group. Different hemoglobins have different combinations of these chains. Hemoglobin A (HbA) is the primary hemoglobin affected in sickle cell, because their beta-globin chains end up misshapen because of a genetic mutation in the beta-globin gene. Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disease, so there needs to be a mutation in both copies of the beta-globin gene in order to get the disease. If a person has just one copy of the mutated gene and the other copy is normal for the gene, then they are a sickle cell carrier.
So first of all, this looks like a dihybrid cross, but it is not because we are dealing with one pair of alleles (gene that causes sickle cell), so we will actually be doing a monohybrid cross.
So let’s go through the alleles step by step:
Hb = hemoglobin (constant, all red blood cells have hemoglobin, we are looking at the mutation in the beta globin gene of the hemoglobin which will be the allele we focus on)
SS = sickle cell (mutated beta globin gene (S) x 2)
AA = normal beta globin gene (A) x 2 (no sickle cell)
AS = carrier (one sickle cell gene + one normal gene)
HbAS x HbAS
Carrier x carrier
PARENTS A S
A AA AS
S AS SS
25% chance that the offspring will have a normal (does not have sickle cell anemia) genotype (AA)
50 % chance that the offspring will be carriers (AS)
25% chance that the offspring will have sickle cell anemia (SS)
Answer:
b
Explanation:
When bacteria are inoculated into a new sterile nutrient broth, their numbers don't begin to increase immediately. Instead, there is a lag phase that may last for an hour or even several days. Why don't bacterial numbers increase immediately?
Answer:The correct reason is that the bacteria must amend themselves to the content of the nutrient in the novel medium, has to produce essential amino acids, growth factors, and other enzymes in order to survive.
In the field of microbiology, to inoculate means basically to present or insert one substance into another. For example, one could inoculate a culture of bacteria with some kind of chemical constituent, or it can be said that one introduces the chemical compound into the culture of the bacteria.
Explanation:
How does the skeletal system work with the muscular system
Answer:
Muscles connect to your skeleton and they contract and move the skeleton along.
Explanation:
Your skeletal system is made up of cartilage and calcified bone that work together. They help the process of movement happen in a smoother manner. The calcified bones of your skeleton also work with the circulatory system.
Answer:
The bones of the skeletal system serve to protect the body's organs, support the weight of the body, and give the body shape. The muscles of the muscular system attach to these bones, pulling on them to allow for movement of the body.
Explanation:
i hope this helped you have a nice day
A spider plant sends out runners that have buds. When planted, the bud grows into a mature plant. The resulting plant has one parent and is genetically ___________ to the parent(s).
different
similar
identical
A spider plant sends out runners that have buds. When planted, the bud grows into a mature plant. The resulting plant has one parent and is genetically identical to the parent.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Reproduction is of two types one is sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction. The asexual reproduction mostly involves only one parent and therefore the off spring that is born is genetically identical with the parent.
whereas in sexual reproduction that involves 2 parents the off spring born contains a genetic makeup that is a combination of 2 parents and thereby not genetically identical.
Using broad-spectrum weed killers on weeds that are competing with crops for sunlight, water, and nutrients presents a difficulty: how to keep the crop from being killed along with the weeds. For at least some food crops, specially treated seed that produces plants resistant to weed killers is under development. This resistance wears off as the plants mature. Therefore, the special seed treatment will be especially useful for plants that _____________ .Which of the following most logically completes the argument below?(A) produce their crop over an extended period of time, as summer squash does.(B) produce large seeds that are easy to treat individually, as corn and beans do.(C) provide, as they approach maturity, shade dense enough to keep weeds from growing.(D) are typically grown in large tracts devoted to a single crop.(E) are cultivated specifically for the seed they produce rather than for their leaves or roots.
Answer:
(C) provide, as they approach maturity, shade dense enough to keep weeds from growing.
Explanation:
According to the given information, the treated seeds produce the plants with resistance to weed killers. The young plants from these seeds are protected against the weed killers due to the resistance in them.
If these plants mature into the ones with a prominent canopy so as to produce dense shade around them, the weeds would not grow around these plants as sunlight is not available to support their growth and development.
Therefore, there would not be any need to use the weed killers for these mature plants as they themselves produce a micro-environment to prevent the growth of weeds around them.
Why is pseudoscience not considered real science
A. It cannot answer all of a scientists questions
B. It relies on evidence based on personal experiences or beliefs
C. It cannot distinguish between the right or wrong way to apply knowledge
D. It relies on frequent communication within the community of researchers
Answer:
The correct answer is B. It relies on evidence based on personal experiences or beliefs .
Explanation:
Pseudoscience is false science which includes religious and personal beliefs, theories and some practices which some people consider that it is scientific but in reality can not be proved by science.
Pseudoscience originates due to lack of literacy in science among people. Even in schools and our culture pseudoscience is very widely spread. Believing in Paranormal activities is one of the most well known example of pseudoscience.
The most important cause of pseudoscience is social and cultural effects, lack of knowledge, personal experience or beliefs, errors in mass media to make news sensational.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. It relies on evidence based on personal experiences or beliefs.
Pseudoscience is not considered real science for several reasons, and all of the options mentioned (A, B, C, and D) contribute to this distinction. Let's go through each of them.
A. While no scientific field can claim to have answered all possible questions, genuine science is based on the scientific method, a systematic approach to investigating the natural world through observation, experimentation, and analysis. Pseudoscience often lacks this rigorous methodology and, as a result, may fail to provide satisfactory answers to scientific inquiries.
B. In contrast to real science, which relies on empirical evidence obtained through controlled experiments and observations, pseudoscience often depends on anecdotes, personal experiences, or unverified claims. These subjective forms of evidence are unreliable and not suitable for drawing valid scientific conclusions.
C. Real science is self-correcting and follows a process of peer review and scrutiny, which helps to identify and correct errors or biases in research. Pseudoscience tends to lack this rigorous evaluation, and as a result, it may promote ideas that are unproven, unsupported, or even debunked by genuine scientific research.
D This statement seems to be incorrectly associated with pseudoscience. Genuine science does rely on frequent communication within the scientific community through academic journals, conferences, and collaborations. It is essential for researchers to share their findings, subject them to scrutiny, and build upon existing knowledge. However, pseudoscience does not follow the same standards of peer review and communication, which further distinguishes it from real science.
In summary, pseudoscience lacks the essential characteristics and methodologies of real science, making it unreliable and not considered a valid scientific endeavor. Genuine science relies on empirical evidence, rigorous methodologies, the scientific method, and the willingness to subject ideas to critical evaluation and verification by the scientific community.
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Scientists developed a new margarine containing plant ingredients they think will lower blood cholesterol levels in people who use the margarine. They want to test this by comparing the cholesterol levels of people who use the new margarine for a while to cholesterol levels of a group of people who use regular margarine. This is an example of what type of research design?a. Intervention studyb. Epidemiological study
Answer: a. Intervention study
Explanation:
In an interventional research study the participants receive an intervention as they are given a new item or commodity to use and the results of use are evaluated on the basis of change made by the commodity on the participant. Such studies are used for the purpose of clinical trails.
The given research design is the example of interventional study. As the margarine is a new commodity the ingredients of which are claimed to lower down the blood cholesterol levels which can tested by comparing the cholesterol levels in people.
You're discussing a forensic crime scene show your roommate, who insists that fingerprints are left behind due to the sebum on our fingertips. What do you tell him?
Answer:
Fingerprints are left behind due to the sweat on our fingertips as well as sebum that sticks to or fingertips from our face and hair.
Explanation:
The ridges along the finger tips contain pores connecting to sweat glands. The sweat gland which is found in greater number in hands and feet is the eccrine gland. The sweat contains water in major amount and also contains lipids. Sebaceous glands on our face and hair secrete sebum.
When we touch our face and hair sebum sticks to the fingertips and the oily residue made by sweat and sebum coats our fingers. It is the residue and not just sebum on our fingertips that leaves a fingerprint when we touch a surface.
Your friend Melissa has suffered from diabetes for her entire life. She regularly tests her blood to make sure her sugar levels are not too high or low. Which gland in her endocrine system is responsible for regulating her blood sugar?
Answer:
Pancreas
Explanation:
The pancreas manufactures by the islets that manufactures glucagon, is in charge of produce insuline that is responsible for synthesizing glucose
What is the role of mRNA during translation? A. It links the correct amino acids together. B. It provides the code for the protein. C. It breaks apart the tRNA molecules. D. It translates from amino acids to nucleic acids.
Answer:
B. It provides the code for the protein
Explanation:
Remember that mRNA stands for Messenger RNA.
The role of mRNA during translation is it provides the code for the protein. (Option B).
What happens during translation?During translation, the role of mRNA (messenger RNA) is to provide the genetic code that determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
The genetic code is carried in the form of codons, which are three-nucleotide sequences on the mRNA molecule. Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid or a termination signal.
The ribosomes, the molecular machines responsible for protein synthesis, read the mRNA sequence and use it as a template to assemble the correct sequence of amino acids in the growing polypeptide chain.
This process continues until a stop codon is reached, signaling the termination of protein synthesis.
So option B is the correct answer.
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The following five questions are related to the following experiment.
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to "drive" using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette (without nicotine). You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. Your hypothesis is that nicotine will increase the likelihood of being involved in a collision.
1.) In this study, the independent variable is:
2.) In this study, the dependent variable is:
3.) In this study, the participants who smoke a cigarette without nicotine comprise the _____________________ group.
4.) In this study, the participants who smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) comprise the ______________________ group.
5.) A confounding variable related to this experiment could be:
Answer:
1) The independent variable is nicotine consumption.
2) The dependent variable is 'Involvement in a collision'. In this case the values the variable could take would be binary. For example 'were involved in a collision' and 'weren't involved in a collision'.
3) In this study, the participants who smoke a cigarette without nicotine comprise the __control___________________ group.
4.) In this study, the participants who smoke a real cigarette (with nicotine) comprise the ___experimental___________________ group.
5.) A confounding variable related to this experiment could be:
Confounding variables are any other variable that also has an effect on your dependent variable. They are like extra independent variables that are having a hidden effect on your dependent variables.
In this case, there are many examples of confounding variables that could have an effect on the dependent variable:
For example:
Subject's eyesight
Subject's age
Subjects's driving experience,
and so on
Which of the following is a determinant of a strong organizational culture? a. A rapidly changing management team b. No shared experiences c. A large management team d. Corporate success
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "Corporate success".
Explanation:
A strong organizational culture refers to a strong adherence of values and beliefs among a group of people that work together towards the success of everyone in the organization. Sometimes is not clear how to know if a strong organizational culture is present in a company, but corporate success is a determinant factor that inferres it. A corporation could only achieve a healthy working environment and successful business results if every member in the team works within a strong organizational culture.
Final answer:
d) Corporate success is a determinant of a strong organizational culture, as it aligns with shared beliefs and values that contribute to a competitive advantage. However, success can also lead to resistance to change, making adaptability a challenge for successful organizations.
Explanation:
One determinant of a strong organizational culture is corporate success. Organizations with strong cultures often derive competitive advantages from those cultures. A strong organizational culture is characterized by widely shared beliefs, values that align with the company's strategy and environment, and practices that reflect those beliefs. Indeed, studies have found a relationship between organizational cultures and company performance, including success indicators such as revenues and market share. Moreover, a strong culture serves as an effective control mechanism for managing employee behaviors, which is often more potent than written rules and regulations.
However, while a strong culture is advantageous, changing this culture can be quite challenging. If an organization is experiencing consistent success, there might be resistance to change due to overconfidence and inertia. Successful companies that are open to change have practices in place that prevent this stagnation, such as rotating management to provide fresh perspectives. Without such practices, organizations may struggle to adapt to changes in the market and technology, as exemplified by the Polaroid Corporation's failure in the face of digital photography advances.
Ultimately, the alignment of an organization's culture with its corporate strategy and environmental demands can be its greatest strength or a serious limitation. Therefore, corporate success is a determinant of a strong organizational culture, but it should be managed carefully to maintain the adaptability and flexibility essential for long-term success.
In humans, polydactyly (more than 5 fingers and toes on each hand and foot), is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. What is the phenotype of an individual who is heterozygous for the mutant allele?
A. Wild-type
B. 5 fingers/toes on each hand/foot
C. More than 5 fingers/toes on each hand/foot
D. 5 long and 1 short fingers/toes on each hand/foot
E. Both A and B are correct.
Answer:
C. More than 5 fingers/toes on each hand/foot
Explanation:
According to the given information, polydactyly is an autosomal dominant trait which means that the phenotype would be expressed in both homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant genotype.
The given genotype is heterozygous dominant. The individuals with heterozygous dominant genotype would exhibit the polydactyly and would have more than 5 fingers and toes on each hand and foot.
__________ is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.
Answer:
Sickle cell anemia
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.
a) Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.. This causes blockages and various health issues. Thalassemia, polycythemia, and leukopenia are different blood disorders.
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. This mutation occurs in the hemoglobin-beta gene on chromosome 11. The abnormal hemoglobin, referred to as hemoglobin S, causes red blood cells (RBCs) to change shape under low-oxygen conditions, forming stiff rods inside the RBCs. This deformation makes the cells assume a sickle shape, leading to blockages in blood vessels and resulting in various health complications.
Thalassemia: A genetic disorder caused by abnormal hemoglobin production, leading to reduced oxygen transport but without changing the shape of RBCs. Polycythemia: A condition characterized by an increased number of RBCs, which can lead to thicker blood and potentially cause clotting issues.Leukopenia: A decrease in the number of white blood cells (WBCs), which weakens the immune system and increases infection risk.complete question:
__________ is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.
sickle
cell anemia
thalassemia
polycythemia
Leukopenia
The Nobel prize was awarded to Kari Mullis for discovering a process to amplify DNA in a test tube without any cells involved. This type of process is known as a/an ___________ reaction/process.
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction, or PCR, is a technique to make many copies of a specific DNA region in vitro (in a test tube rather than an organism).
Question is in the image.
Answer:
Flask B would be the control group
Explanation:
The purpose of the control group is to have something to compare your results to.
In both flask A and C, you are mixing amylase with amylose. The hypothesis is that amylase promotes hydrolysis. Well, how do you prove this without having a flask that has no amylase in it?
Interactions between the herbaceous plant Lithophragma parviflorum (also known as the woodland star) and the moth Greya politella serve as a good example of mosaic coevolution in nature. The moth lays its eggs into developing flowers of the woodland star, but the plant pays a cost for this because moth larvae eat some of the woodland star's seeds. In addition, this moth is the sole pollinator of the woodland star's flowers in some geographic locations, while in other locations, the woodland star has additional pollinators. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding mosaic coevolution in this example?
a. The moth Greya politella is completely reliant on the woodland star as its host, but the woodland star is not always reliant on the moth as its sole pollinator.
b. In all studied locations, the woodland star rarely aborted flower capsules that contained moth eggs, compared to capsules that had no moth eggs
c. In populations where alternative pollinators were present, the woodland star selectively aborted flower capsules that contained moth eggs because the costs of having the moth pollinator outweighed the benefits, and selection favored an antagonistic response
d. In cases where the moth was the sole pollinator for the plant, the woodland star rarely aborted flower capsules that contained moth eggs because the benefits of having the moth pollinator outweighed the costs, and selection favored mutualism
Answer:
b. In all studied locations, the woodland star rarely aborted flower capsules that contained moth eggs, compared to capsules that had no moth eggs
Explanation:
According to the given information, the moth is the sole pollinator of the woodland star in some locations while the same plant species have alternative pollinators. This means that the plant is not completely dependent on the moth species while the moth is completely dependent on the woodland star as its host.
In the presence of alternative pollinators, the woodland star plants have evolved the mechanisms to abort the flower capsule having the eggs of the moth. This is because the larvae of moth adversely affect its host by feeding on the seeds. So, when the alternative pollinators are available, the plant would not allow the eggs of the moth to develop into the harmful larvae.
On the other hand, in the regions where the given moth species is the only pollinator of woodland star flowers, the plant bears the cost of pollination by not aborting the flower capsules with the eggs of the pollinator.
Option (b) is NOT true about mosaic coevolution in the example provided; it inaccurately claims woodland stars rarely abort flower capsules with moth eggs in all studied locations, which contradicts the variable responses expected in mosaic coevolution based on alternative pollinators' presence.
The statement that is NOT true regarding mosaic coevolution in the example of the interaction between the herbaceous plant Lithophragma parviflorum (woodland star) and the moth Greya politella is option (b). This statement suggests that woodland stars rarely aborted flower capsules that contained moth eggs compared to capsules without moth eggs in all studied locations, which contradicts the concept of mosaic coevolution where the plant's response to the moth's egg-laying would vary depending on the presence or absence of other pollinators. In the scenario described, the woodland star has developed different responses in populations where there are alternative pollinators compared to where the moth is the sole pollinator.
In populations with alternative pollinators, the woodland star showed a tendency to selectively abort flower capsules with moth eggs, as explained in option (c). Here the costs of the relationship with the moth (the moth larvae eating the seeds) outweighed the benefits (pollination), leading to a more antagonistic interaction. Conversely, in populations where the moth was the sole pollinator, option (d) explains that the woodland star rarely aborted capsules with moth eggs, emphasizing a mutualistic relationship where the benefits of pollination outweigh the costs of seed predation.
Moths as pollinators, like the corn earworm moth and the Gaura plant, generally have a symbiotic relationship where both the moth and the plant benefit. However, the intricacies of coevolution can lead to variations in these relationships across different environments, leading to what is known as mosaic coevolution, as observed in the woodland star and the Greya politella moth.
Researchers compared similar proteins from related organisms in different habitats. They found
that the proteins from organisms living in harsh environments had a greater number of cysteine
amino acids than did proteins from organisms not living in harsh environments. The structure of
cysteine is shown. Bonds can form between the sulfur atom of different cysteine amino acids (S-S bonds)
Which of the following best describes the effect of a greater number of cysteine amino acids on the
stability of the proteins?
Answer:
The change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of protein.
Explanation:
Disulfide bond:
This is the bond in which sulfur of one amino acid forms a covalent bond with the sulfur of another amino acid.
Proteins contain normally two amino acids which have sulfur in their structure these are Methionine and cysteine
Disulfide bridges formation:
The disulfide bridges are formed by the oxidation of cysteine with the sulfhydryl groups. These bridges are important in the stabilization of the protein tertiary structure. These disulfide bridges are also responsible for bringing the hydrogen bonds closer in two parts of a chain.
Best Choice:
The change leads to increased protein stability because of an increased number of S-S bonds in the tertiary structure of a protein.
Describe how water is important to plants in terms of hydrolysis and dehydration
Water is crucial for plants as it is involved in dehydration synthesis, where it is a byproduct, and hydrolysis, where it breaks bonds between molecules.
Dehydration synthesis involves the formation of new bonds between molecules and requires energy, creating water as a byproduct. Conversely, hydrolysis reactions use water to break bonds between molecules, releasing energy in the process.
During photosynthesis, water molecules are split in a process known as photolysis. This step is critical as it generates the hydrogen necessary for the synthesis of glucose, which plants use as an energy source. Meanwhile, the oxygen produced during photolysis is released into the atmosphere, contributing to the oxygen we breathe.
Moreover, water is essential in maintaining plant turgor, which gives the plant structure and enables growth. Water also serves as a medium for transporting vital minerals and nutrients from the roots throughout the plant, further demonstrating its key role in plant physiology. Lastly, through the process of transpiration, excess water vapor is released, which not only aids in nutrient transport but also helps to regulate temperature within the plant.
The most abundant class of phospholipid in animal cell membranes, with a hydrophobic tail composed of two fatty acyl chains, esterified to the two hydroxyl groups in glycerol phosphate and a polar head group attached to the phosphate group, is called: Phosphoglyceride. Cholesterol. Glycolipid. Liposome. Phosphoglyceride and liposome.
Answer:
Phosphoglyceride.
Explanation:
The cell membrane or plasma membrane is made up of lipid bilayer and proteins may be inserted or spans the membrane bilayer. The carbohydrate moieties are also present in association with lipids and proteins.
The phosphoglycerides are the most class of phospholipid present in plasma membrane. The phosphoglycerides consists of lipid bilayer linked with the hydroxyl group and the phosphate group is attached with the polar head group. The phosphate group attaches with the third carbon atom of the glycerol.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
In terms of your heartbeat, digestion, and glandular functioning, your body is pretty much a well-oiled machine that works even when you are asleep. This is possible due to your __________ nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for control and regulation of unconscious body functions. It is constantly working even if we don't realize it, unlike the somatic nervous system, which is associated to voluntary actions such as movement via skeletal muscles.
You are caring for a 21dashyeardashold female pregnant female in her third trimester who fell down a flight of steps. You currently have her fully immobilized. During transport, she keeps complaining of dizziness. In what position should you place her to minimize this?a) Supine with the legs elevatedb) Supine.c) Supine with the backboard tilted to the leftd) Sitting up
Answer:
Supine with the backboard tilted to the left.
Explanation:
Pregnancy period is also known as gestation period, the development of the offspring inside the womb. The pregnancy is divided into the different trimester periods.
A pregnant female has fallen down a flight of steps. The lady should be supine with the back board must be tilted to the left as this position reduces her dizziness. This position helps the female to relax and provide protection to both the mother and the offspring. More oxygen will be available to the female.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Peter and Rosemary Grant observed a small group of the large ground finches that colonized Daphne Major in the Galápagos Islands. Within a few years, the descendants of the colonists had evolved beaks that were much larger than those in the original source population. What factors did the Grants think influenced this evolution?
Answer:
1) Founder effect and genetic drift: Small colonizing population did not represent the original gene pool of the source population and was more likely to undergo genetic drift.
2) Natural selection
Explanation:
Evolution of the population of the finches with larger beaks might have occurred due to one of the following mechanisms:
a) Founder effect and genetic drift: Since the size of the colonizing population was small, it did not carry all the genes and their alleles present in the gene pool of the original population. The small population size made it more likely to evolve by any chance event.
b) Natural selection: The availability of different food types in the new habitat led to the natural selection of the larger beaks as the finches with larger beaks might have been able to better exploit the available food resources.
The Grants observed that a drought led to natural selection favoring finches with larger beaks on Daphne Major, as these birds were better able to eat the remaining hard seeds, leading to an increase in average beak size in the population over time.
Explanation:Peter and Rosemary Grant observed the role of natural selection in the evolution of beak size among the large ground finches on Daphne Major in the Galápagos Islands. They noted that during a drought period, food scarcity led to a decline in small, soft seeds, while large, hard seeds remained somewhat available. Consequently, finches with larger beaks, which were more efficient at eating the available hard seeds, had a higher survival rate. Following the drought, the Grants documented an increase in average beak size among the survivors, indicating that natural selection had favored large-billed finches. Their continued research showed that beak size evolution fluctuated with environmental conditions, demonstrating one of the clearest examples of natural selection in action.
All of the following statements are True EXCEPT
a. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
b. hemoglobin will bind more oxygen when the partial pressure is low than when the partial pressure is high.
c. oxygen dissociates more readily from hemoglobin as pH decreases.
d. increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide increases oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin.
e. decreasing temperature will cause a shift to the left in the hemoglobin saturation curve.
Answer:
Option (2).
Explanation:
Hemoglobin may be defined as red color pigment present in the red blood cells. The main function of hemoglobin is the transport of oxygen molecules in the body.
Various factors can affect the binding of oxygen with hemoglobin. The higher the partial pressure of oxygen, more oxygen will bind to the hemoglobin and transport faster in the blood. Low partial pressure decreases the binding affinity of oxygen with hemoglobin. All other factors mentioned in the questions are correct.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
A griffin is a mythical creature that appears in many stories. It has the head of an eagle and the body of a lion. What role could the griffin have in the science of biology
Answer:
D. The griffin has no role in biology, because it is not real.
Explanation:
Science focuses solely on the natural world.
Answer:
No role
Explanation:
Griffin has no role in in the science of biology because it is considered as an mythical creature with absurd body structure. Its body consisted of head of an eagle and the remaining body like a lion. Also the researches conducted could not establish any link or relation between Griffin or any other organism on the planet.
In lack of adequate evidences , no evolutionary linkages could be found for Griffin and hence, it is now considered as an organism of no use to biology.
Membrane phospholipids have hydrophobic heads that face the center of the membrane and
a. have hydrophilic tails that face outward and are exposed to water.
b. are able to drift about in the plasma membrane.
c. remain fluid because they are tightly packed against one another.
d. are shielded from water.
Answer: Option B. are able to drift about in the plasma membrane.
Explanation:
Membrane phospholipid are having a amphiphilic structure which contains a hydrophilic "head" consisting of a phosphate group and two hydrophobic fatty acid "tails" that are connected to a glycerol molecule.
In contact with water, membrane phospholipid hydrophobic tail avoid interaction with water molecules and allow to drift about in the plasma membrane. the hydrophilic heads line up against each other and forms lipid bi-layer that faces towards water.
The movement of membrane phospholipid forms the fluid mosaic model,in which lipid molecules act as solvent and proteins embedded in it. This allows the proteins and lipid to move across plasma membrane.
Hence, The structural property of membrane phospholipid makes them able to drift about in the plasma membrane
Proteins can be visualized in many ways, each of which highlights a specific aspect of the protein. drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. helpreset
For the given sentences, the appropriate terms to be included are as follows :
Space-filling modelSimplified modelRibbon modelSimple ShapeWireframe modelThe 3D representation of a protein is represented by a space filling model, in which the atoms are shown as spheres.
The ribbon model, which is utilized for 3D presentation and uses distinct colour codes for different protein components, aids in understanding the fundamental components of protein structure.
A 3D image created using computer graphics is a wireframe model. When we simply want to investigate the functions of a protein and not its structure, a basic shape diagram is sufficient.
When examining a protein's structure and functions, a simplified diagram is employed.
Various models are suited in various setting and therefore, the terms that best fit in the statement are space-filling model, simplified model, ribbon model, simple shape model, wireframe model respectively.
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A recombinant plasmid created during a recombinant DNA experiment:
A.consists only of extra-chromosomal bacterial DNA.
B.carries and allows expression of a foreign gene of interest.
C.is used in whole organism cloning.
D.can be used to insert bacterial genes into a human.
E.functions to remove specific genes from a plant.
Answer:
B.carries and allows expression of a foreign gene of interest.
Explanation:
Plasmids are the low molecular weight extrachromosomal DNA molecules that are able to replicate themselves independent of chromosomal DNA due to the presence of "ori" (origin of replication).
Plasmids serve as vectors in recombinant DNA technology as some of their genes can be replaced with the gene of interest to create recombinant plasmids.
The restriction enzymes that create the sticky ends and DNA ligases facilitate the insertion of the foreign gene into the plasmids.
The host cells are made competent to take up the recombinant plasmids. Once inside the host cell, the recombinant plasmids replicate themselves and express the gene of interest that they carry.
A recombinant plasmid created during a recombinant DNA experiment is a plasmid that carries and allows expression of a foreign gene of interest. It is introduced into a bacterial host where it replicates and produces the desired protein.
Explanation:A recombinant plasmid created during a recombinant DNA experiment is a plasmid (also called a vector) that carries and allows expression of a foreign gene of interest. It is created artificially by inserting foreign DNA into a plasmid, which is a small circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosomal DNA in bacteria. This recombinant plasmid is then introduced into a bacterial host for replication, allowing for the production of the desired protein.
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