Answer:
Because its destroying our Ozone layer, we will die of UV light overdose
Explanation:
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels increases the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere. A high level of CO2 throws the carbon cycle out of balance. With more CO2 in the atmosphere, the temperature on Earth increases.
Explanation:
edmentum sample answer change it up a bit so you don't get caught
Jasmine is a healthy girl who is playing outside. Her internal body temperature rises to 100 degrees Fahrenheit, which is above normal. How does her body MOST LIKELY respond to help her return to homeostasis?
Answer:
She is sweating
Explanation: Because 38 Celsius is 100.4 Fahrenheit.
Jasmine is a healthy girl who is playing outside. Her internal body temperature rises to 100 degrees Fahrenheit, which is above normal. In this condition, her body starts sweating to return back to homeostasis.
What is Homeostasis?Homeostasis is the state of steady internal, physical, and chemical conditions maintained by the living systems and organisms. Homeostasis is the condition of optimal functioning for the organism and it includes many variables, such as the body temperature and fluid balance, being kept within the certain pre-set limits such as the normal body temperature is under the range of room temperature which is in the range of 20-40°C.
In case of any changes in the surrounding environment temperature, the body tries to adapt and maintain the constant internal temperature through different ways such as sweating, which is performed to lower the body temperature and shivering is performed when the surrounding temperature is low and to increase the body temperature.
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Under starvation conditions cells deaminate amino acids to produce carbon skeletons that enter the glycolytic pathway and the citric acid cycle to generate ATP. Nucleotides, on the other hand, are not broken down to yield energy. Select the statements that describe how cells metabolize nucleotides. a.Free bases released from nucleotide degradation are often reused for nucleotide synthesis. b.Nucleotides are hydrolyzed into ribose and nitrogenous bases. c.Purines are further metabolized to uric acid and pyrimidine degradation produces urea. d.Free bases from hydrolysis of nucleotides are further degraded into their amino acid precursors, glycine and aspartate. e.Although nucleotides can be hydrolyzed to release purine or pyrimidine bases, most organisms lack the enzymes to further degrade the free bases. Instead, free purine and pyrimidine bases are secreted into the bloodstream. During de novo synthesis of nucleotides, free bases released from degradation of nucleotides are attached to ribose.
Cells metabolize nucleotides by often reusing the free bases via salvage pathways, hydrolyzing nucleotides into ribose and nitrogenous bases, and breaking down purines into uric acid and pyrimidines into components that lead to urea.
Under starvation conditions, cells deaminate amino acids to produce carbon skeletons that enter the glycolytic pathway and the citric acid cycle to generate ATP. However, nucleotides, unlike amino acids, are not typically broken down for energy yield. The reasons behind this involve how cells metabolize nucleotides.
a. Free bases released from nucleotide degradation are often reused for nucleotide synthesis, a process known as the salvage pathway.
b. Nucleotides are hydrolyzed into ribose and nitrogenous bases, and the breakdown of purine nucleotides can lead to products such as uric acid.
c. During pyrimidine catabolism, uracil, and thymine can be further degraded into molecules that eventually lead to urea.
Notably, the multi-component structure of nucleotides (base, sugar, phosphate) allows for the reuse of these components. The phosphate is recycled into the phosphate pool of the cell, while the bases might undergo salvage or be built into nucleic acids.
Regarding the options given in the question, options a, b, and c accurately describe the metabolic fate of nucleotides, while options d and e are incorrect as cells do use enzymes capable of further degrading free bases, and free bases are often not secreted but salvaged.
What do microwaves and x-rays have in common?
Microwaves and X-rays are both types of electromagnetic waves. Microwaves, used in cooking, involve photon energies so low that their energy transfer is generally not harmful. X-rays, generated through submicroscopic processes, have higher frequencies and energies than microwaves and can be damaging to living tissues.
Explanation:Microwaves and X-rays share a common characteristic: they are both forms of electromagnetic waves. This means they consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. However, they occupy different regions within the electromagnetic spectrum due to their different wavelengths and frequencies.
Microwaves are produced naturally and by electronic circuits. They have about 10^-5 eV energy states in water and other molecules, which is why they're strong absorbers of microwaves, making microwave ovens an efficient way to put energy directly into food. Although both microwaves and x-rays consist of photons, the photon energies for microwaves (and for IR) are so low that a significant energy transfer would involve a large number of photons. These are thermal effects and are generally not hazardous.
On the other hand, x-rays are produced when high-voltage discharges or bombarding a target with energetic electrons occur. These are submicroscopic processes. X-rays extend to much higher frequencies (and therefore higher energies) and are more penetrating, also possessing the potential to be damaging to living tissues when the frequency is higher like in gamma radiation.
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A fruit fly population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. Molecular genetic tests show that 40% of the gametes produced in the population contain the A1 allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of the flies are homozygous for the A1 allele?
Answer:
= 0.48
Explanation:
the genetic frequency can be calculated using hardy - Weinberg equation
p + q = 1
here p represent the dominant trait and q represent the recessive trait.
the proportion A1 or p = 40/100
= 0.4
now, the proportion of A2 or q will be
p + q = 1
0.4 + q = 1
q = 1- 0.4
q = 0.6
proportion of the flies are homozygous for the A1 allele
2pq
2 x 0.4 x 0.6
= 0.48
True or false. Half of all chyme passes through the accessory organs.
A large star shining brightly in the sky is an effect what could be a cause?
Answer:
the star is burning hydrogen very slowly :)
Explanation:
Answer:
The star is burning hydrogen very slowly.
Four genes (A, B, C, D) are known to be located on the same chromosome. A series of crosses was completed to determine the recombination frequencies: A-B 50% A-C 18% A-D 31% B-C 39% B-D 50% C-D 49% Based on these numbers, what is the map distance between A and B
Answer:
50 cM or more far apart .Explanation:
1. The largest possible map distance is 50, it represents that two genes are found at opposite ends of a chromosome or are 50 cM apart from each other or they are found on different chromosomes .
2. Genes found at opposite ends of a chromosome behave as if they are on different chromosomes.
3. As given A-B 50%, means that recombination frequency is 50%.
The recombination frequency(RF), 50% means that either two genes are located on different chromosomes inheriting independently or when they are widely separated on the same chromosome with far distance.
4. As given here, four genes named A, B, C, and D are known to be located on the same chromosome. so A-B are 50 cM or more far apart from each other.
The complete oxidation of one glucose molecule yields 30 or more ATPATP . Glucose catabolism includes glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle. The total yield of ATPATP includes ATPATP , GTPGTP , and reduced cofactors that yield ATPATP from the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation. Which processes yield the most ATPATP ? When determining the ATPATP yield for each process, include ATPATP derived from reduced cofactors.
Answer:
citric acid cycle
Explanation:
check the below attached file for further explanation
Consider a simple food web consisting of plants, aphids, ants, and ladybird beetles. Aphids are herbivores that consume the plants, and ladybird beetles are a predator that eats aphids. The ants obtain nutritious honeydew from the aphids, and in return the ants protect the aphids from predatory insects. What is likely to happen to the ladybird beetles, aphids, and plants if the ants go extinct
Explanation:
Food web explains the feeding relationship between organisms
The given food web consists of plants,aphids,ants and ladybird beetlesAphids are herbivores which consume plants Ladybird beetles are a predator which eats aphids Ants obtain nutritious honeydew from the aphids and also protect the aphids from predatory insectsMutualism exists between ants and aphids as both are benefited from each otherIf ants go extinct then aphids population will soon start to diminish because aphids protected the ants and therefore now ladybird beetles will directly attack on aphidsIf aphids will start to decrease then plants population will increase because if aphids will decrease then they won't be able to consume plants and hence plant population will increase Ladybird beetles act as a predator and will also soon start to diminsh as ants number will decrease then ladybird beetles will soon die due to starvationWhich one of the following proteins would be least likely to pass through a Golgi apparatus?
a. Ribosomal proteins
b. Lysosomal enzymes
c. Cell surface proteins
d. Secreted proteins
e. ER proteins
Answer: (a) Ribosomal proteins
Explanation:
The proteins are modified by adding or removing sugars. Several proteins that passes through golgi apparatus includes lysosomal enzymes, cell surface protein, secreted proteins, and ER proteins.
The proteins pass through the endomembrane system and are dispatched in transport vesicles from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus which travel via cytoplasm and fuses with the plasma membrane releasing the protein to the outside of the cell. When they pass through the Golgi, proteins are altered and sorted for transport inside the cell to their eventual destinations. Proteins like lysosomal enzymes, cell surface protein, secreted proteins, and ER proteins move through Golgi apparatus.
Ribosomal proteins are least likey to pass through golgi apparatus and bind different amino acids together to form polypeptides, and export them to the cytoplasm.
Hence, the correct option is (a) Ribosomal proteins.
. Statements: (1) Collagen, the most abundant protein in humans, is both a fibrous protein and a glycoprotein. (2) Quaternary structure, the highest level of protein organization, is found in all proteins in which 80 or more amino acids are present. (3) A protein chain lacks directionality because its two ends always involve the same amino acid. a. All three statements are true. b. Two of the three statements are true. c. Only one of the statements is true. d. None of the statements are true.
Answer:
c. Only one of the statements is true
Explanation:
Quaternary structure, the highest level of protein organization in which association of several protein chains are closely arranged. The protein subunits are attached together by van der Waals forces and hydrogen bonds between nonpolar side chains. it is present in all the proteins which have 80 or more amino acids are present.
Collagen, is most abundant protein in the animal kingdom. It is insoluble fibrous protein present in the extracellular matrix and in connective tissue.
A protein chain has directionality consist of a free amino group at one end, and a free carboxyl group on other end.
Hence, only (2) statement is true the correct option is c.
Answer:
c. Only one of the statements is true-(2) Quaternary structure, the highest level of protein organization, is found in all proteins in which 80 or more amino acids are present.
Explanation: Quantenary structure of a protein is a closely packed or complex organization of proteins together as a result of many polypeptide or subunit of protein joined together. Each subunit has it own primary,secondary and tertiary structure. For protein to function effectively, the subunit must be arranged in an organized or patterned form. It is the highest level of protein organization. Others included primary,secondary and terrier structure.
Example of Quantenary is Heamoglobin that is located in Red blood cell and used for transportation of oxygen and DNA(deoxyribose nucleic acid) Polymerase needing for replication of DNA strand.
How does the Griffith experiment connect to the Meselson & Stahl experiment? How does this experiment support Meselson & Stahl’s experiment?
Griffith experiment connect to the Meselson & Stahl experiment is described below.
Explanation:
There were three models for how organisms might replicate their DNA: semi-conservative, conservative, and dispersive. The semi-conservative model, in which each strand of DNA serves as a template to make a new, complementary strand, seemed most likely based on DNA's structure. The models were tested by Meselson and Stahl, who labeled the DNA of bacteria across generations using isotopes of nitrogen. From the patterns of DNA labeling they saw, Meselson and Stahl confirmed that DNA is replicated semi-conservatively.The experiment done by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated that DNA replicated semi-conservatively, meaning that each strand in a DNA molecule serves as a template for synthesis of a new, complementary strand.Meselson and Stahl Experiment was an experimental proof for semiconservative DNA replication. In 1958, Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl conducted an experiment on E. coli which divides in 20 minutes, to study the replication of DNA. The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiment supported a semiconservative model of DNA replication. The first replication in the 14 N medium produced a band of hybrid (14N and 15N) DNA. This result eliminated the conservative model of replication.Griffith's experiment and Meselson & Stahl's experiment both contributed to the understanding of DNA replication, showcasing semi-conservative replication.
Griffith's experiment showed bacterial transformation, where genetic information could be transferred between bacteria, while Meselson and Stahl's experiment conclusively demonstrated that DNA replication is semi-conservative. This means each new DNA molecule consists of one original parental strand and one newly synthesized daughter strand.The following are the recombination frequencies for a set of genes found on the same chromosome: X-W 7% W-Y 10% X-Z 13% W-Z 20% X-Y 17% What is the correct order for these genes using a linkage map analysis? Between which two genes is crossing over most likely to occur?
Options have not been provided for the question. They are as follows:
What is the correct order for these genes using a linkage map analysis?
A. Z-X-Y-W
B. X-W-Z-Y
C. W-X-Y-Z
D. Y-W-Z-X
E. Z-X-W-Y
F. Y-X-W-Z
Between which two genes is crossing over most likely to occur?
A. B and D
B.X and Z
C. X and W
D. X and Y
E. W and Z
F. Y and W
G.Y and Z
Answer:
Correct order for these genes using a linkage map analysis: E. Z-X-W-Y
Two genes between which the crossover is most likely to occur: G.Y and Z
Explanation:
According to linkage concept, recombination frequency between two genes = distance between two genes in cM
Here, smallest distance is between X and W ( 7cM ) so they are present next to each other. Distance between X and Y is 17cM and between W and Y is 10cM so W is present between X and Y. Distance between X and Z is 13 cM. Since on one side of X, W and Y are already present Z lies on the other side. So, the final gene order comes out to be, Z-X-W-Y.
According to the gene order, Y and Z genes are farthest from each other. Chances of crossover or recombination increases with increasing distance between genes. So, Y and Z have the highest probability to show crossing over.
Incomplete Question: Options have not been provided for the question. They are as follows:
What is the correct order for these genes using a linkage map analysis?
A. Z-X-Y-W
B. X-W-Z-Y
C. W-X-Y-Z
D. Y-W-Z-X
E. Z-X-W-Y
F. Y-X-W-Z
Between which two genes are crossing over most likely to occur?
A. B and D
B.X and Z
C. X and W
D. X and Y
E. W and Z
F. Y and W
G.Y and Z
The Accurate order for these genes using a linkage map examination: E. Z-X-W-Y
Two genes between which the crossover is most probably to occur: G.Y and also Z
What is a Chromosome?According to the connection concept, recombination frequency between two genes is = distance between two genes in cM
Here, the briefest distance is between X and W ( 7cM ) so they are attending next to each other. Distance between X and also Y is 17cM and then between W and Y is 10cM so W is present between X and Y. Distance between X and Z is 13 cM. Since on one flank of X, W and Y are already present Z lies on the other side. So, the absolute gene charge comes out to be, Z-X-W-Y.
According to the gene ranking, Y and Z genes are outlying from each other. Chances of crossover or recombination growth with increasing distance between genes. So, Y and Z have the most increased probability to show crossing over.
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A multigravid client admitted to the labor area is scheduled for a cesarean birth under spinal anesthesia. Which client statement indicates that teaching about spinal anesthesia has been understood
Answer:The anesthetic may cause a severe headache, which is treatable."
Explanation:
Spinal anesthesia is a type of anesthesia which is administered locally using a fine needle between L3 and L4 space or L4 and L5 space in order to avoid injury to the spinal cord. This procedure is usually carried out by a trained health personnel such as:
- a nurse anesthetists and
- anesthesiologists
Spinal anaesthesia can be used in different surgical procedures such as Caesarea sections and to manage pain during vaginal delivery in MULTIGRAVID CLIENTS, which are those clients who has been pregnant more than once.
Caesarean section is usually done while the patient is awake with the use of spinal anaesthesia. Therefore it's important to explain any possible side effects from the drug to the patient which includes a severe type of headache called post-spinal headache and it's treatable.
Describe the modern system of classification
Answer:
The modern system classifies organisms into eight levels: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. The scientific name given to an organism is based on binomial nomenclature. The more classification levels two organisms share, the more characteristics they have in common and the more closely related they are.
Hope this worked!! :)
The modern system of classification, also known as binomial nomenclature, was developed by Carl Linnaeus. Each species is identified by two names: the genus and the specific epithet, and are further grouped into broader categories like domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, and family.
Explanation:The modern system of classification in biology is known as binomial nomenclature. It was developed by Carl Linnaeus in the 18th century. Each species is identified by two names: the genus, which is capitalized and italics, and the specific epithet, which is in lowercase and italics. For example, humans belong to the genus Homo and the species sapiens, so our scientific name is Homo sapiens.
This system allows for precise and universal identification of species. Beyond genus and species, organisms are also grouped into broader categories: domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, and family. Each of these levels of classification provides additional information about the characteristics and evolution of the species.
For instance, humans are part of the Animalia Kingdom, Chordata Phylum, Mammalia Class, Primates Order, and Hominidae Family. Hence, the modern system of classification helps scientists in categorizing and understanding the biological and evolutionary relationships between different organisms.
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In ecosystems, plants transform light energy from the sun into chemical energy when they make sugar. This sugar can then be consumed by other organisms to be used as building blocks for other molecules such as proteins and fats. Or it can be transformed into other forms of energy, such as kinetic energy when the organism moves.
Answer:
Energy cannot be destroyed but moves from one state to another
Explanation:
In an ecosystem the dependence on energy is one of the main driving forces. Most animals and plants are always growing, changing location and moving and all these functions require energy. The energy after transformation from the sun, is referred to as biomass and the transfer of energy from one organism to another is called a food web.
The answer is:
D. Matter and energy can change forms and locations in ecosystems.
Final answer:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria transform solar energy into chemical energy stored as glucose. This sugar is then used by various organisms for energy and as building blocks for other molecules. (First option)
Explanation:
In ecosystems, plants transform light energy from the sun into chemical energy when they make sugar through a process called photosynthesis. This sugar, essentially glucose, serves as a vital source of energy for the plant. It can also be consumed by other organisms, such as animals and humans, fulfilling their energy requirements and enabling them to convert it into other forms like kinetic energy, which is used for movement.
Photosynthesis is a critical biological process where photoautotrophs, including plants, algae, and certain bacteria, absorb sunlight and use it to combine water and carbon dioxide into glucose. This energy-rich compound not only serves as a building block for other molecules such as proteins and fats but also acts as an energy source for themselves and other organisms that consume them.
Moreover, photosynthesis is indispensable for life on Earth as it provides most of the energy needed by living organisms and contributes to the atmospheric oxygen that aerobic beings require for respiration. The energy stored in the molecular bonds of glucose and other carbohydrates is a result of energy conversion that has been ongoing since ancient times, with fossil fuels being ancient stores of such energy.
A scientist is studying an aquarium ecosystem that contains water, plants, and fish that eat those plants. The aquarium has glass walls so light can get in, but it is sealed so no material can move into or out of the tank. When the scientist turned the aquarium's light on, carbon in the water started decreasing. How is carbon moving and what is happening to the amount of carbon in the living things inside the aquarium?
Answer:
Carbon moves from the plant to the fish when it feeds on them. Carbon in form of carbondioxide is used by plants during photosynthesis.
The amount of carbon is decreasing due to the photosynthetic action of the plants in the aquarium
Explanation:
According to this question, the aquarium contains water, plants and fish. The glass of the aquarium is transparent and allows the passage of light. Plants are unique set of organisms that have the ability to produce their own food (organic molecule) using the energy from light which they absorb via the Chlorophyll pigment in their Chloroplast. This process carried out by plants is called PHOTOSYNTHESIS.
Carbondioxide, which is a compound of carbon, is an important component needed for photosynthesis. It is released when living organisms undergo respiration. The released CO2 is then absorbed by plants to produce their food (glucose) during photosynthesis. The fish in the aquarium is an heterotroph that relies on the plants for its carbon source. It feeds on the plants to get carbon compounds. Therefore, carbon moves from the plants to the fish in the aquarium.
The amount of carbon in form of carbondioxide (CO2) decreases when the light was switched on in the aquarium due to the process of photosynthesis carried out by the plants.
6CO2 + 6H2O + light -----> C6H12O6 + 6O2
The carbon in the aquarium ecosystem is being consumed through photosynthesis by the plants present in the water.
Plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the water and, with the help of light energy from the aquarium's light, convert it into organic carbon compounds during photosynthesis. This process leads to a decrease in the amount of carbon in the water.
As a result of photosynthesis, the amount of carbon in the living things inside the aquarium, primarily the plants, increases. The plants utilize the carbon to grow and sustain themselves, incorporating it into their biomass.
Additionally, if there are algae present, they may also contribute to carbon uptake through photosynthesis. Overall, the introduction of light into the sealed aquarium initiates the process of photosynthesis, leading to a decrease in carbon in the water and an increase in carbon within the living organisms, primarily the plants, present in the ecosystem.
Can you define and identify the significance of Okazaki fragments, DNA ligase, and primer RNA during DNA replication?a. Okazaki fragments are short DNA fragments synthesized in a ____ manner.b. Okazaki fragments appear on the ___ strand during DNA replication.c. DNA ligase forms ___ bonds in gaps between DNA Okazaki fragmentsd. These gaps are generated when ___ removes the RNA primers.e. RNA primers are formed by ___ and serve as an initiation point for DNA synthesis on the template.Words given for the blanks are : leading, lagging, peptide, phosphodiester, continuous, discontinuous, RNA primase, and DNA polymerase I.
Answer:
a. discontinuous
b. lagging
c. phosphodiester bonds
d. DNA polymerase I
e. RNA primase
Explanation:
Okazaki fragments are so called because these are synthesized in a discontinuous unlike in the leading strand where the new DNA strand is synthesized continuously. This is due to the fact that the lagging strands runs in the 5' to 3' direction, thus, a means has to be devised such that new DNA can be synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction. DNA ligase aids in ligating these fragments together. DNA polymerase can not begin the synthesis of the new DNA strand thus, the RNA primers helps to perform this function.
Final answer:
Okazaki fragments are synthesized discontinuously on the lagging strand during DNA replication. DNA ligase creates phosphodiester bonds that connect these fragments, and RNA primers necessary for initiation are laid down by RNA primase and later removed by DNA polymerase I.
Explanation:
Understanding DNA Replication Components
a. Okazaki fragments are short DNA fragments synthesized in a discontinuous manner.
b. Okazaki fragments appear on the lagging strand during DNA replication.
c. DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bonds in gaps between DNA Okazaki fragments.
d. These gaps are generated when DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primers.
e. RNA primers are formed by RNA primase and serve as an initiation point for DNA synthesis on the template.
The chemical equation below summarizes cellular respiration.
602 + C6H1206 = 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
The energy that is released by cellular respiration is in the form of
dark energy.
solar energy.
nuclear energy.
chemical energy.
O
Answer:
The correct answer is chemical energy.
Explanation:
The phenomenon by which the chemical energy present in the molecules of food gets discharged and is captivated partially in the form of ATP or energy is known as cellular respiration. The nutrients, that is, proteins, carbohydrates, or fats can all be utilized as fuels in the process of cellular respiration, however, to examine or illustrate the process, glucose is most commonly used.
Glucose, that is, the six-carbon sugar in the process of glycolysis gets dissociated into two molecules of a three-carbon compound known as pyruvate. In the process, two molecules of ATP along with two molecules of NADH are gained. For the process of cellular respiration, the glucose needed is generated by plants by the process called photosynthesis.
Mr. Whatsit received the lifesaving valve replacement surgery. Describe the changes you expect to see in his vital signs. Additionally describe the changes you expect to see in both his respiratory and kidney functions.
Answer:
Increase blood pressure to normal range: normal mitral valve function will maintain normal flow and pressure throughout the chambers
- Increase oxygen saturation: normal blood flow through pulmonary circuit will allow capillary exchange in lungs to conduct at a normal rate
- Decrease respiratory rate: irregular, rapid breathing will not occur because normal oxygen levels will be conveyed to the medulla, signalling the ANS to decreased respiratory rates to normal
- Increased kidney function: normal blood flow through systemic circulation resets kidney function to normal filtration
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the differences between a genomic and cDNA library? Select one: a. A genomic library is prepared from total genomic DNA, whereas a cDNA library is prepared from mRNA. b. Genomic libraries contain much more sequence information and are much larger than cDNA libraries. c. Genomic libraries contain coding and noncoding (regulatory, intron, etc.) sequences, whereas cDNA libraries contain only coding sequences along with their associated 5? and 3? untranslated regions. d. cDNA libraries are generated with the use of reverse transcriptase, whereas genomic libraries are not. e. Genomic libraries contain fewer restriction enzyme sites, whereas cDNA libraries contain many morE.
Answer:
Genomic libraries contain fewer restriction enzyme sites, whereas cDNA libraries contain many more
Explanation:
The comparison between genomic and cDNA libraries is indistinct to the number of restriction-enzyme sites. A genomic library contains a set of DNA clones from an organism, while a cDNA library is composed by DNA fragments which are complementary to the mRNA
When rocks break down or decompose, they can form
A. bigger rocks.
OB. Soil
C. magma.
OD. lava.
Reset
Submit
Answer:
B. Soil
Explanation:
Rocks are broken down by a variety of factors, such as heat, cold, wind, rain, hail, ice, pressure, etc. Minerals that are released when rocks decompose can be used to form soil.
Answer:
It is C
Explanation:
When rock is broken down or decomposed it becomes smaller and eventually gets mixed with othe rocks or mineral or other things and slowly but surely becomes soil ✨
9. Animal cells are more interesting than plant cells. is this fact or opinion????
Final answer:
The statement is an opinion, not a fact. Both animal and plant cells are eukaryotic, but plant cells have a cell wall, chloroplasts, plasmodesmata, and a large central vacuole, whereas animal cells have centrioles, a centrosome, and lysosomes. These differences are crucial for their specific functions in plants and animals.
Explanation:
The statement "Animal cells are more interesting than plant cells" is an opinion, not a fact. Whether one type of cell is more interesting than another is subjective and varies based on personal interest and perspective. In biology, both animal and plant cells are studied for their unique characteristics and functions.
Both animal and plant cells are eukaryotic and share several key cellular structures, such as a plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, and peroxisomes. However, they also have distinct differences. Animal cells contain centrioles, a centrosome, and lysosomes, aiding in cell division and the breakdown of cellular waste, respectively. Conversely, plant cells have a rigid cell wall made of cellulose, chloroplasts for photosynthesis, and a large central vacuole for maintaining cell turgor and storing nutrients. Furthermore, plant cells possess plasmodesmata for intercellular communication, while animal cells do not.
These differences are crucial for the cells' respective roles in their organisms. Plant cells' rigid walls and chloroplasts allow them to perform photosynthesis and provide structural support, essential for plant growth and survival. Animal cells' ability to move and adapt to different environments is enabled by the absence of a rigid cell wall, highlighting the physical and functional diversity between animal and plant cells.
Final answer:
The statement regarding the level of interest in animal cells compared to plant cells is subjective and represents an opinion. Animal cells and plant cells each have distinct features that cater to their respective functions in nature, making both types of cells equally complex and interesting from a scientific viewpoint.
Explanation:
The statement 'Animal cells are more interesting than plant cells' is a matter of opinion, not fact. Interest in a subject can vary widely from person to person. In scientific terms, neither animal cells nor plant cells are inherently more interesting; both are equally fascinating and complex in their own right. When comparing animal cells versus plant cells, there are notable differences and functions that make each unique.
Animal cells contain centrioles and centrosomes, which are not found in plant cells. Additionally, they have lysosomes for intracellular digestion. On the other hand, plant cells have a cell wall made of cellulose, chloroplasts for photosynthesis, plasmodesmata for cell-to-cell communication, and large central vacuoles for storage and maintaining cell turgor pressure. These features are not present in animal cells. While plant cells provide the necessary structure to enable a plant to grow upright, animal cells lack a rigid exterior which allows for more flexibility and mobility.
What condition causes storms to occur
• freezing of water droplets
• Sudden change in air pressure
• Condensation of water vapor
• rapid heating of upper atmosphere
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Storms are formed when the movement of cold and warm air currents creates extreme air pressure difference.
The condition that cause storms to arise is the sudden change in the air pressure.
What is air pressure?Air pressure should be impacted by the air molecules' weight. Also, the small air molecules contain some kind of weight and more air molecules that are made up of the atmosphere layers.
In the case when the storms should be created at the time of moving of cold and warm air so the current should develop the difference of extreme air pressure.
Therefore, the first option is correct.
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1. Some worms eat at night (meaning they are nocturnal) and some worms eat during
the day (meaning they are diurnal). Most birds eat only during the day, so they are
only eating diurnal worms, due to the fact that the nocturnal worms are burrowing
during this time. Each spring when the worms reproduce about 500 offspring are born
but only 100 of them live long enough to reproduce themselves.
foet (between 30.35 moh) and ther emus run slawer (hetween 20-25
Nocturnal and diurnal worms reproduce, with 500 offspring, but only 100 survive to reproductive age, impacting bird feeding habits.
1. Nocturnal and diurnal worms exhibit different feeding behaviors, with nocturnal worms feeding at night and diurnal worms feeding during the day.
2. Birds, predominantly diurnal creatures, consume primarily diurnal worms since they are active during the birds' feeding times.
3. During spring, worms reproduce, with approximately 500 offspring produced per mating pair.
4. Despite the high number of offspring, only around 100 worms survive long enough to reach reproductive age.
5. The survival rate highlights the challenges faced by young worms, including predation, environmental factors, and competition for resources.
6. This phenomenon contributes to maintaining a balance in the worm population and ecosystem dynamics.
7. Such reproductive patterns underscore the importance of adaptation and survival strategies in the natural world.
8. Understanding these dynamics aids in ecological studies and conservation efforts aimed at preserving biodiversity and ecosystem stability.
2. Which statement best describes the process of evolution? *
Answer:
Hi will, I think you forgot to include the actual statements you needed help deciphering between for the best description of the evolutionary process.
Explanation:
Wind and solar power are both examples of
Answer:
Technologies like solar and wind power are becoming more common across the globe, and are both examples of renewable energy sources.
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane permeable drug that speeds up the action of the SR Ca+2-ATPase, how would contraction differ after multiple and frequent action potentials? fused tetanus would be reached in the same amount of time as an untreated fiber fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber the maximal tension would be increased compared to an untreated fiber
Answer:
The correct Answer is "Fused tetanus would be reached sooner than an untreated fiber"
Explanation:
Muscle has a pair of stages - reduction and moderation. Reduction is trailed by a obstinate section once no reduction will occur upon inspiration. This can be the section once the sr ca2+ ATPases are vigorous and are driving the calcium back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Once this the forces decrease. If the inspiration are common enough to remove the relief amount, then it's known as a amalgamate tetanus. The quicker the sr ca2+ drives effort, the smaller are the biological time and therefore the faster amalgamate tetanus would be extended.
When treated with a drug that speeds up SR Ca2+-ATPase, skeletal muscle fibers reach fused tetanus more quickly due to faster calcium ion re-sequestration, allowing for rapid relaxation and preparation for successive contractions.
After a skeletal muscle fiber is treated with a membrane-permeable drug that accelerates the action of the SR Ca2+-ATPase, the contraction would differ after multiple and frequent action potentials because fused tetanus would be reached sooner than in an untreated fiber. The SR Ca2+-ATPase is responsible for pumping calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), which helps in ending the muscle contraction and allowing the muscle to relax. If the action of this pump is sped up, calcium ions are cleared from the sarcoplasm more quickly, resulting in a faster relaxation phase.
In a rapid succession of action potentials, this accelerated relaxation allows the muscle fiber to be ready for the next contraction more promptly. Therefore, when stimuli are frequent and consecutive, the muscle can achieve fused tetanus – a state of continuous, maximal contraction – at a faster rate as the calcium ions needed for contraction are rapidly re-sequestered, allowing for a quick and efficient response to successive stimuli. However, the maximal tension generated would not be increased beyond the capability of an untreated muscle fiber since this is dependent on other factors such as muscle fiber type and cross-sectional area.
Which of the following best describes the biological role of the lac operon? View Available Hint(s) Which of the following best describes the biological role of the lac operon? It ensures that bacterial cells produce lactose only when no other food sources are available. It ensures that a cell dedicates resources to the production of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism only when lactose is available in the environment. It ensures that a cell produces enzymes involved in lactose metabolism in a constitutive manner. It prevents other sugars from being metabolized until all available lactose has been used.
Answer:
It ensures that a cell dedicates resources to the production of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism only when lactose is available in the environment
Explanation:
Lac operon is also referred to as Lactose operon.This operon helps in the transport and metabolism of lactose of many enteric bacteria.
It ensures that a cell dedicates resources to the production of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism only when lactose is available in the environment
Due to the fact that it would be a total waste to produce enzymes when no lactose is available or if another preferable energy source such as glucose were available. The lac operon uses a two-part control mechanism to ensure that the cell uses energy producing the enzymes encoded by the lac operon only when necessary to avoid wastage and abnormalities.
2. Which statement best describes the process of evolution?*
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a. Populations can survive in different locations on earth
b. Environmental conditions limit the number of species on Earth
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c. Populations grow when resources are abundant
d. The traits of a species can change over time
Answer
. Populations grow when resources are abundant
The statement that best describes the process of evolution is that traits of a species can change over time.
What is evolution?Evolution refers to the transformation of living organisms into different forms due to a change in genetic composition by the accumulation of changes over successive generations.
Natural selection leads to the evolutionary process in organisms, which can cause the traits of a species to change over time.
Therefore, the statement that best describes the process of evolution is that traits of a species can change over time.
Learn more about evolution at: https://brainly.com/question/13492988