Answers
1. h
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. g
6. a
7. f
8. e
Related Questions
If a small founder population of 12 people ends up on a small island, and one member of the population had a mutation that creates a new allele, what is the likelihood that the allele will be eliminated from the population? Enter your answer as a percentage (not decimal), omit the percent sign however.
Answers
Answer:
96
Explanation:
This is genetic drift question, we can tell because the variable here is the population size. The probability of an allele of getting fixed is determined by its initial frequency, which is actually the probability of the allele of being fixed. So we need to calculate the initial allele frequency of this mutation:
Mutation allele frequency = # mutation alleles / total # of alleles = 1/24 = 0.04%
That is the probability of this allele to get fixed, so the probability of this allele getting eliminated is:
Elimination probability = 1 - fixing probability = 1- 0.04 = 0.96%
Answer: The probability of this allele getting eliminated is 96
Phytoplankton form the base of food webs, but are only present in the upper few hundred meters of the ocean. A number of factors here can limit their growth and hence limit the amount of biomass in higher trophic levels.
Which of the items below is not one of these limiting factors to phytoplankton?
a. Nitrogen
b. Light
c. Phosphate
d. Oxygen
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is d. Oxygen
Explanation:
Phytoplanktons are responsible for the fixation of approximately half of the global carbon therefore seawater has high CO2 concentration which is required by phytoplanktons to make their food.
They are the primary producers of oceans and they are responsible to support the food chain of oceans. Factors that can limit their growth are mainly sunlight and nutrients like phosphorus, nitrogen, etc.
As phytoplanktons are photosynthetic they release oxygen itself as a byproduct therefore oxygen is not a limiting factor to phytoplanktons. So the right answer is d.
Which statement regarding behavioral genetics is accurate? Select one: a. The genotypes and phenotypes of behavioral problems or deviations follow Mendelian autosomal recessive inheritance patterns. b. A genetic predisposition toward a specific behavior can be modified by altering environmental influences. c. The genetic susceptibility or predisposition toward a behavioral disorder requires the trigger of an infectious disease for expression. d. Genes and gene products have been discovered that directly control behavior.
Answers
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
A genetic predisposition toward a specific behavior can be modified by altering environmental influences.
Considering the nitrogen cycle, how do all organisms depend on bacteria to produce and maintain adequate nitrogen in the environment?
I NEED HELP ! Choose the correct answer..
A. Bacteria eat the roots of plants that emit nitrogen.
B. Animals eat plants that contain bacteria, which contain nitrogen.
C. Since plants cannot use atmospheric nitrogen directly, they rely on bacteria in the soil to incorporate nitrogen into nitrates.
D.Plants and animals work together to create the appropriate amount of decay in the soil for nitrogen to form.
Answers
Answer:
Considering the nitrogen cycle, all organisms depend on bacteria to produce and maintain adequate nitrogen in the environment by eating the plants that contain bacteria which contain nitrogen.
Option: (B)
Explanation:
Nitrogen is a main element in the nucleic acid of both RNA and DNA which is most important for all living creatures and biological molecules. When plants doesn’t get enough nitrogen it doesn’t produce amino acid, without amino acid plant cannot make special proteins. Amino acid is building block for DNA which tends to the generation of organism. Nitrogen fixation is a process where bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen to usage form for plant and animals get nitrogen by eating those plants.An individual with untreated type II diabetes has 400mg/100ml plasma glucose. Which of the following statements about this individual is INCORRECT?
-This individual will exhibit glucosoria
-This person's rate of glucose filtration will be greater that the rate of glucose reabsorption
-This person's SGLT carriers have reached saturation
-This person's rate of glucose excretion will be greater than the rate of glucose filtration
Answers
Answer:
The INCORRECT statement is This person's rate of glucose excretion will be greater than the rate of glucose filtration
Explanation:
The INCORRECT statement is This person's rate of glucose excretion will be greater than the rate of glucose filtration
It is incorrect because it is the opposite.
The incorrect statement is that the individual's rate of glucose excretion will be greater than the rate of glucose filtration.
An individual with untreated type II diabetes and a plasma glucose level of 400mg/100ml will indeed exhibit glucosuria, which occurs when the blood glucose level exceeds the renal threshold for glucose at 180mg/100ml.
At this point, the kidney's capacity to reabsorb glucose is surpassed, leading to the excretion of glucose in the urine. The statement that this person's rate of glucose excretion will be greater than the rate of glucose filtration is incorrect.
After graduating from college, you decide to put your biology skills to work at a local company that does genetic counseling. Your first case is working with a couple that is trying to decide if it would be wise to conceive a child given the family’s genetic history with Huntington’s disease. This is a very damaging neurological disorder that usually strikes individuals later in life. The Huntington’s disease allele is a dominant allele (represented as "H"). Individuals who will not develop Huntington’s disease carry two copies of the recessive allele (represented as "h"). After testing both the wife and the husband, you determine that the wife’s genotype is hh and the husband’s genotype is Hh.
a)Which of them will eventually develop Huntington’s disease?
b)What are the possible genotypes for their children? What is the chance that their child will inherit Huntington’s disease?
Answers
Answer:
The correct answers are a) "the husband", b) The possible genotypes for their children are Hh and hh, while the child have a 50% chance of inherit Huntington’s disease.
Explanation:
Huntington’s disease is a very damaging neurological disorder that follows an autosomal dominant inheritance. This means that a healthy person has two copies of the recessive allele "h", while a person with Huntington’s disease has at least a copy of the dominant "H" allele. Since the husband genotype is Hh, he is going to develop the Huntington’s disease eventually. Also, it should be informed to the couple that their children could either have the Hh or the hh genotype with a 50% chance of having either of the genotypes, which means that their child has a 50% chance of developing the Huntington’s disease.
Final answer:
The husband with genotype Hh will develop Huntington's disease. Their children could inherit genotype Hh or hh, with a 50% chance of inheriting the Hh genotype and thus the disease.
Explanation:
In the scenario where a wife's genotype is hh and a husband's genotype is Hh, we can deduce the following:
a) Which of them will eventually develop Huntington’s disease?:
The husband will eventually develop Huntington's disease as he has one copy of the dominant allele H. Since Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, only one copy of the dominant allele is required for the disease to be expressed.
b) What are the possible genotypes for their children? What is the chance that their child will inherit Huntington’s disease?:
The possible genotypes for their children are Hh and hh. There is a 50% chance that each child will inherit Huntington's disease -- that is, the child inherits the Hh genotype. This can be determined through a simple Punnett square, where one axis represents the husband's alleles (H and h) and the other axis represents the wife's alleles (h and h), leading to two possible offspring genotypes: Hh and hh.
According to social identity theory
A. teams are never as productive as individuals working alone.
B. the most effective teams have a large number of members.
C. the team development process occurs more rapidly for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous teams.
D. people define themselves by their group affiliations.
E. teams are less productive in performing complex tasks
Answers
Answer:
D. people define themselves by their group affiliations.
Final answer:
Social identity theory primarily posits that d) individuals define their selves by their group affiliations rather than focusing on team effectiveness or size.
Explanation:
According to social identity theory, the correct answer is D. people define themselves by their group affiliations. This theory suggests that people categorize themselves and others into various social groups which provide a source of pride and self-esteem. These affiliations help to define individuals and differentiate them from others. Team effectiveness, size, and development processes, as mentioned in the other options, are related to group dynamics but are not directly related to the social identity theory's central focus on self-identification within groups.
The age of oceanic bedrock on either side of a mid-ocean ridge is supporting evidence that at the ridges, tectonic plates are _______.
Answers
The age of oceanic bedrock on either side of a mid-ocean ridge is supporting evidence that at the ridges, tectonic plates are Diverging .
Explanation:
The underwater mountain range is the mid oceanic ridge, which were formed as a result of plate tectonics. when the convection current goes up in the mantle present beneath the oceanic crust results in the uplifting of the ocean floor.
Which leads to the formation of the tectonic plates through magma, that meet at divergent boundaries. The density and the age and the thickness of these oceanic crust increases due to the distance from the ridges. The mid oceanic ridges has been split on two sides as matching stripes ,
Answer:
Diverging
Explanation:
"In the brain, vision originates in the rods and cones in the retina. Separate regions of the brain decode basic information, like color, shapes, intensity of light, and there are other regions that decode information like position in space, and awareness of patterns. As you use your visual system, all of these regions are working simultaneously. This simultaneous awareness of all regions working at the same time is due to which processing pattern listed below?"
a. oscillative processingb. reflexive processingc. parallel processingd. serial processing
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-Parallel processing
Explanation:
Parallel processing is the ability of the brain in which the brain processes the incoming stimuli of the different quality at the same time or simultaneously.
During the vision, the brain processes different stimuli at the same time like the shape, intensity, color and their spatial arrangement by different parts of the brain individually and then analyzing and comparing the stimuli to the stored memories. This parallel processing helps the brain to identify the vision.
Thus, parallel processing is the correct answer.
HELP ASAP!!!!
Question 1 (1 point)
How do glaciers form?
Question 1 options:
Snow accumulates on the ocean and freezes to become an iceberg.
Snow accumulates on water but does not melt.
Snow accumulates on land and does not melt.
Snow accumulates on land and then melts over the summer.
Question 2 (1 point)
Glaciers can form in all these areas except
Question 2 options:
on top of a mountain
near the equator
in the middle of a continent
over water
Question 3 (1 point)
Metal stakes were placed on the surface of the glacier in a straight line from position A to position B. Which diagram best shows the position of the metal stakes years later?
Question 3 options:
A
B
C
D
Question 4 (1 point)
Which force is primarily responsible for the movement of a glacier?
Question 4 options:
gravity
ground water
running water
wind
Question 5 (1 point)
What is happening to most glaciers all over the world?
Question 5 options:
They are advancing.
They are retreating as ice melts.
They are moving backwards.
They are staying the same size.
Answers
Answer:
1.) snow accumulates on land and does not melt
2.) over water
3.) C
4.) gravity
5.)They are retreating as ice melts.
Explanation:
Part C - Breast-Feeding For most women, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breast-feeding for the first 6 months of the baby’s life. What are the benefits of breast-feeding? Please choose the correct statements about breast-feeding.
Please choose the correct statements about breast-feeding.Select all that apply.Select all that apply.1- Infants receive colostrum via breast milk during the first 6 months of breast-feeding.2- Breast-feeding is typically less expensive than formula feeding.3- Breast-feeding can reduce an infant’s risk of infection, allergies, and certain chronic diseases.4- All mothers should consume 500 kcal extra daily while breast-feeding until weaning of the infant.5- Women with AIDS or active tuberculosis should feed formula rather than breast-feed.
Answers
Final answer:
Breast-feeding provides critical benefits including nourishment through colostrum and cost savings over formula. It also reduces risks of various infant health issues, though extra maternal caloric intake may vary. Mothers with certain infectious diseases should opt for formula.
Explanation:
The American Academy of Pediatrics advocates for exclusive breast-feeding during the first 6 months of an infant's life due to its numerous benefits. Colostrum, which is produced in the first 48-72 hours postpartum, is an essential part of breast milk, providing vital immunoglobulins to the infant.
Breast-feeding is typically less expensive than formula feeding.
It can reduce an infant's risk of infection, allergies, and certain chronic diseases.
Mothers are recommended to consume additional calories while breastfeeding, but the exact amount may vary based on the individual's metabolism and the infant's needs.
Women with AIDS or active tuberculosis should not breastfeed due to the risk of transmitting the infection to the infant, and should instead use formula.
The DNA in a cell's nucleus encodes proteins that are eventually targeted to every membrane and compartment in the cell, as well as proteins that are targeted for secretion from the cell.
For example, consider these two proteins:
1. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is an enzyme that functions in the cytoplasm during
glycolysis.
2. Insulin, a protein that regulates blood sugar levels, is secreted from specialized
pancreatic cells.
Assume that you can track the cellular locations of these two proteins from the time that translation is complete until the proteins reach their final destinations.
For each protein, identify its targeting pathway: the sequence of cellular locations in which the protein is found from when translation is complete until it reaches its final (functional) destination. (Note that if an organelle is listed in a pathway, the location implied is inside the organelle, not in the membrane that surrounds the organelle.)
Options:
Cytoplasm only, ER --> cytoplasm, ER --> Golgi --> outside cell, cytoplasm --> ER --> outside cell, Golgi --> ER --> outside cell, cytoplasm --> Golgi --> outside cell, nucleus --> cytoplasm, ER --> Golgi --> cytoplasm
Protein Targeting Pathway
PFK _______________
Insulin ____________
Answers
Answer:
PFK (protein): cytoplasm only
Insulin (protein): ER->Golgi->outside cell
Explanation:
The protein Phophofructokinase (PFK) has to function inside the cytoplasm of the cell where it is made. Hence, it does not have to go through the modification process needed for transport. Such kind of proteins which are made and function in the same cell are translated on free cytoplasmic ribosomes.
The proteins which have to be transported to other areas like insulin are translated in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. From there, they travel to the Golgi complex where they are modified and packaged so that they can travel outside the cell.
Which of the following statements about the central dogma is correct? Drag "True" or "False" to the end of each statement. ResetHelp The central dogma predicts that mRNAs are transcribed into DNA. False Transcription is the process of using a single strand of DNA as a template to produce a complementary sequence of RNA. True The central dogma predicts that a change in a DNA sequence will result in a change in an RNA sequence. False The central dogma summarizes how information is transferred from DNA to RNA to protein in cells. True The arrows connecting DNA, RNA, and protein in the central dogma model indicate a conversion of one type of molecule to another. True
Answers
Answer:
The central dogma predicts that mRNAs are transcribed into DNA. FalseTranscription is the process of using a single strand of DNA as a template to produce a complementary sequence of RNA. TrueThe central dogma predicts that a change in a DNA sequence will result in a change in an RNA sequence. TrueThe central dogma summarizes how information is transferred from DNA to RNA to protein in cells. TrueThe arrows connecting DNA, RNA, and protein in the central dogma model indicate a conversion of one type of molecule to another. TrueExplanation:
The Central Dogma of Molecular Biology was postulated by Francis Crick in 1958. It explains how the flow of information from the genetic code occurs. This model mainly shows that a sequence of a nucleic acid can form a protein, but the opposite is not possible. According to this dogma, the flow of genetic information goes along the following lines: DNA → RNA → PROTEINS.
Since one molecule originates from the configuration of the other, if an error in the DNA sequence occurs, a change in the RNA sequence occurs, which in turn results in a change in protein.
According to the central dogma in DNA, where genetic information is contained, which can be transcribed into RNA molecules. In the transcription process, a DNA molecule serves as a template for the creation of an RNA molecule. It is in this RNA molecule that the code used to organize the amino acid sequence and to form proteins in the translation process is found. This process consists in the union of amino acids, obeying the order of codons presented in a messenger RNA.
The central dogma of biology states that genetic information is transferred from DNA to RNA to proteins, with the process of transcription playing a key role.
Explanation:The central dogma of biology describes how the information in genes is transferred from DNA to RNA, and then from RNA to proteins. It does not predict that mRNAs are transcribed into DNA. Instead, transcription involves a single strand of DNA serving as a template to produce a complementary sequence of RNA. A change in a DNA sequence may consequently result in a change in an RNA sequence, and thus, potentially a change in a protein sequence as well. The arrows linking DNA, RNA, and protein in the central dogma model symbolize this conversion process, or flow of information, from one molecule type to another.
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If a cell is able to synthesize 30 ATP molecules for each molecule of glucose completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water, approximately how many ATP molecules can the cell synthesize for each molecule of pyruvate oxidized to carbon dioxide and water?
possible answers:
a. 0
b.1
c. 12
d. 14
e. 15
Answers
Answer: E =15
Explanation:
Basically, 1 molecule of glucose molecule after substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis gives 2 molecules of 3 carbon compounds called pyruvate, for complete oxdation .
1 GLUCOSE molecule ⇒ 2Pyruvates.
Each pyruvate molecule can produce 15 ATPs .( in citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation),.Since 30ATPs were produced,;each pyruvate molecule must have contributed 15 ATPs each for a total of 30ATPs
An individual is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria infect macrophages in the lungs, where it survives and reproduces intracellularly. What is the most likely mechanism the infected macrophages will use to combat the invading bacteria?
Answers
Answer:
Phagolysosomal fusion
Explanation:
Macrophages ingest the bacteria through a process called phagocytosis. The phagosome undergoes a series of acidification steps where it fuses with endosomal compartments and encounters bactericidal and antigen processing molecules. Ultimately, it will fuse with the lysosome (phagolysosomal fusion) where it encounters more acidification, hydrolases and bactericidal molecules which may kill the bacteria.
Which of the following is TRUE for BOTH mitosis and meiosis?
A. The parent and daughter cells have the same policy.
B. The daughter cells are genetically identical to each other.
C. Homologous chromosomes are separated during a division.
D. Crossing over occurs.
E. Sister chromatids are eventually separated.
Answers
Answer:
E. Sister chromatids are eventually separated.
Explanation:
Sister chromatids are separated and move towards the opposite poles of the cell during anaphase of mitosis and anaphase-II of meiosis. The splitting of centromere and shortening of microtubules assist the separation of sister chromatids and their segregation during mitosis and meiosis.
Crossing over and separation of homologous chromosomes occur during prophase-I and anaphase-I of meiosis respectively. Crossing over adds genetic variations in the daughter cells. Mitosis lack crossing over and produce genetically identical daughter cells.
Scientific evidence suggests that the entire human population descended from just several thousand African migrants about 50,000 years ago." What sort of evidence would you expect to find if this claim were true? List the types of evidence you would expect to find if all humans living today came from a small population in Africa 50,000 years ago.
Answers
Final answer:
If the claim that all humans descended from a small population in Africa 50,000 years ago is true, we would expect to find genetic evidence, genetic variance, and archeological evidence supporting this claim.
Explanation:
Scientific evidence suggests that the entire human population descended from just several thousand African migrants about 50,000 years ago. If this claim were true, we would expect to find several types of evidence:
Genetic Evidence: Researchers have found that all human genomes tested outside of Africa have close ties to the genomes of people in Africa. This indicates that there is a genetic link between humans from different parts of the world, supporting the idea of a common African ancestry.
Genetic Variance: Genetic studies have also shown that there is a wider genetic variance in Africa compared to the rest of the world. This suggests that the ancestral population in Africa was larger and more genetically diverse, supporting the idea that all humans trace their ancestry back to Africa.
Archeological Evidence: Archeological findings such as fossils and artifacts can provide clues about human migration patterns. If all humans originated from Africa, we would expect to find evidence of early human settlements and migration routes out of Africa to different parts of the world.
Anthocyanin is a pigment that gives flowers and leaves purple colors. The M gene codes for a transcription factor (Myb) that promotes expression of an enzyme that produces anthocyanin. The W gene codes for a different enzyme (Chs) that allows anthocyanin to be deposited in plant leaves and flowers. The dominant phenotype is the production of functional Myb and Chs. Use this information to answer the following question. Plants that have the mm genotype do not show any purple color. What is the best explanation for why this is?
Answers
Answer:
Anthocyanin is not produced in the plant cells
Explanation:
Anthocyanin is not produced in plant cells with the genotype mm.
As you can see from the question above, anthocyanin is responsible for the purple color of the flowers. Anthocyanin is encoded by the M gene, which is a dominant gene. Because it is a dominant gene, we know that it will be expressed in plants with the Mm and MM genotype, but will not be encoded by plants with the mm genotype. With this we can conclude that plants that have the mm genotype do not have purple color, because anthocyanin is not produced in the plant cells of these plants, since they do not have the M gene.
Suppose that a woman had to have part of her thyroid gland surgically removed. She would most likely suffer from a condition known as hypothyroidism due to too little thyroid function.
Predict how this woman's hypothyroidism would affect prolactin levels in her body.
Which choice describes how surgical hypothyroidism would likely affect prolactin levels?
Which choice describes how surgical hypothyroidism would likely affect prolactin levels?
1.Thyroid hormone levels decrease, TRH levels decrease, and PRL levels decrease.
2. Thyroid hormone levels decrease, TRH levels decrease, and PRL levels increase.
3. Thyroid hormone levels decrease, TRH levels increase, and PRL levels decrease.
4.Thyroid hormones levels decrease, TRH levels increase, and PRL levels increase.
5.Thyroid hormone levels increase, TRH levels increase, and PRL levels increase.
6. Thyroid hormone levels increase, TRH levels increase, and PRL levels decrease.
7. Thyroid hormone levels increase, TRH levels decrease, and PRL levels increase.
Answers
Answer:
4. Thyroid hormone levels decrease, TRH level increase, PRL level increase
Explanation:
Surgical removal of Thyroid gland will lead to hypothyroidism.
Normally, the surgery is followed by maintenance dose of thyroxine to avoid side effects.
In the presence of hypothyroidism, however, the decreased thyroid hormone will lead to increase in thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH). increased TRH increases production of prolactin. (but less than that in prolactinoma)
Answer: hypothyroidism causes an elevation of TRH which causes an elevation of prolactin.
4
Explanation: hormone decrease leads to rapid decrease in T3 and T4 which would allow the thyroid regulatory hormone(TRH) TO increase due to the non existence of thyroid gland necessary for T3 and T4, and without the presence of thyroid hormones to counter the production of prolactin hence, the level of prolactin would increase.
A G:T base pair in DNA suggests that _____
(A) The T was originally a cytosine, which was deaminated to a T
(B) The T was originally a 5-methyl cytosine, which was deaminated to a T
(C) The T was originally a 5-methyl cytosine, which was oxidized to a T
(D) The G was originally an A, which was methylated to form an G
Answers
Answer:
(A) The T was originally a cytosine, which was deaminated to a T
Explanation:
Adenine and guanine are found in both DNA and RNA.
Cytosine is found in both DNA and RNA.
Thymine is normally found in DNA.
In a CpG site (5'—C—phosphate—G—3') , that is, Cytosine and Guanine separated by only one phosphate group; phosphate links any two nucleosides together in DNA.
In a G:T base pair in DNA, Adenine pair with Thymine and Guanine pair with Cytosine.
Here in the question, The G:T base pair in DNA suggests that the T was originally a cytosine, which was deaminated to a T.
How methylation of CpG sites followed by spontaneous deamination leads to a lack of CpG sites in methylated DNA.
A Cytosine base followed immediately by a Guanine base (a CpG) is rare in vertebrate DNA because the Cytosine in such an arrangement tend to be methylated. This methylation helps to distinguish the newly synthesized DNA strand from the parent strand, which aids in the final stages of DNA proofreading after duplication. However, over time methylated cytosines tend to turn into Thymine because of spontaneous deamination.
A G:T base pair in DNA suggests that the Thymine was originally a 5-methyl cytosine, which has been deaminated to a Thymine.
Explanation:The correct answer to the question is (B) 'The T was originally a 5-methyl cytosine, which was deaminated to a T'. In normative conditions, Guanine (G) in DNA usually pairs with Cytosine (C), but the presence of a G:T pair suggests a mutation. This mutation generally occurs when a 5-methyl cytosine (a modified form of cytosine) undergoes deamination, a process where the amino group (-NH2) is removed, and the cytosine is converted into Thymine (T), thus, breaking the typical G:C pairing and resulting in a G:T pairing.
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A differential agar medium: Select one: a. only selects for one specific kind of organism b. none of the above c. contains a single substrate that shows differences between groups of microbes on the basis of different chemical reactions producing different appearances d. displays specific characteristics of different species of bacteria
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Differential media contains single substrate that shows differences between groups of microbes on the basis of different chemical reactions producing different appearances. Example include MacConkey agar, Blood agar.
In blood agar microbes are differentiated on the types of hemolysis produce during the break down of red blood cells. They are alpha hemolysis characterize by partial destruction of red blood cells with greenish to brownish discoloration of the medium, beta hemolysis characterize by clear zone of destruction of red blood cells and gamma or no zone of clearing.
The Punnett square above shows a cross between two sweet pea plants in Mendel's greenhouse. Both parents have blue flowers (Bb).
Which statement describes the offspring expected from this cross?
Answers
Answer:
answer is 75% blue-flower and 25% white- flower pea plants
Explanation:
As Blue is dominant trait,
both parents are heterozygous dominant
Bb (father ) bb( mother )
So crossing between
Bb x bb
B b
B BB Bb
b Bb bb
Offspring will be BB, Bb, Bb, bb
so 75% blue-flower and 25% white- flower pea plants
Orchid seeds are tiny, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule cotyledons. If such seeds are deposited in a dark, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination, given what the seeds lack?
A) by transferring some chloroplasts to the embryo in each seed
B) by providing the seeds with water and minerals
C) by providing the embryos with some of the organic nutrients the fungi have absorbed
D) by strengthening the seed coat that surrounds each seed
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
Roots of Orchid trees form a symbiotic association with the Fungi which help the orchid tree seed germination.
As soon as the seed is produced and buried in the soil, the chemical produced by the seed attracts the fungal species which in result help the seed to germinate.
The fungi help the orchid seed by producing the digestive enzymes which can digest the larger compounds and breaks it into smaller elements easily absorbed by the fungi. The absorbed nutrients are supplied by the fungi to the seed embryo nourishing it and thus processing the seed to germinate.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
To study the molecular mechanism of DNA replication, you incubated soluble E. coli extracts with a mixture of dATP, dTTP, dGTP, and dCTP, all of which are labeled with the -phosphate group. After a while, the incubation mixture was treated with trichloroacetic acid, which precipitate the DNA but not the nucleotide or very short oligonucleotides. The precipitate was collected and the extent of the radioactively label nucleotide incorporation into the DNA was determined.
a.) If any one of the four nucleotides is omitted from the incubation mixture, would you detect radioactivity in the precipitate? Explainb.) Would 32P be incorporated into the DNA if only dTTP is labeled? Explainc.) Would radioactivity be found in the precipitate if 32P labeled the β and γ rather than the α phosphate of the deoxyribonucleotides? Explain.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
A) Since, mixture of dATP, dTTP, dGTP, and dCTP all were labeled; radioactivity can be detected even if one of the four nucleotides is omitted from the incubation mixture. This is because all other three nucleotides contain labeled phosphate and hence, radioactivity can be detected.
B) Yes. If 32P is labeled only dTTP, it can be detected in DNA. Since, dTTP can pair with 'A' nucleotide in DNA.
C) Mostly radioactivity can be detected in DNA when the alpha or terminal phosphates are labeled. It is difficult to detect radioactivity when phosphate groups other alpha like beta or gamma phosphates are labeled. Even if the radioactivity is detected it can be detected in rare cases like 5`end labeling of DNA on gamma phosphate.
To understand DNA replication, omitting any nucleotide from the mix or changing the radiolabel's location alters the assimilation of radioactivity in precipitated DNA. Presence of all nucleotides is crucial for complete DNA synthesis, and only the α-phosphate group incorporation leads to radioactive DNA.
Explanation:To study the molecular mechanism of DNA replication in E. coli extracts using nucleotides labeled at the α-phosphate, several scenarios illustrate how the radioactivity incorporation would be affected by experimental modifications.
If any one of the four nucleotides (dATP, dTTP, dGTP, dCTP) is omitted from the incubation mixture, radioactivity in the precipitate would likely be reduced or absent because DNA synthesis requires the presence of all four nucleotides. Each is necessary for building the complementary strand, thus, omitting one would halt DNA polymerase activity, and no or significantly less labeled DNA would be precipitated.If only dTTP is labeled with 32P, 32P would be incorporated into the DNA where thymine bases are incorporated. As DNA synthesis proceeds, dTTP is incorporated opposite adenine (A) in the template strand, resulting in radioactive labeling of the DNA.Should 32P label the β and γ rather than the α phosphate of the nucleotides, radioactivity would not be found in the precipitate. This is because, during DNA synthesis, the α-phosphate group is incorporated into the DNA backbone, while the β and γ phosphates are cleaved off during the formation of the phosphodiester bond.How does the enzyme telomerase meet the challenge of replicating the ends of linear chromosomes?
A) It adds a single cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases.
B) It causes specific double-strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands.
C) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres, compensating for the shortening that could occur during replication without telomerase activity.
D) It adds numerous GC pairs, which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is C) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres, compensating for the shortening that could occur during replication without telomerase activity.
Explanation:
While replicating, the ends of the chromosomes always lose a part of the ends, therefore, the telomerase catalyzes this growing process, somehow compensating the information that will be lost.
Final answer:
Telomerase catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres, compensating for the shortening that could occur during replication without telomerase activity.
Explanation:
The telomerase enzyme meets the challenge of replicating the ends of linear chromosomes by catalyzing the lengthening of telomeres, compensating for the shortening that could occur during replication without telomerase activity. Telomerase contains a catalytic part and an RNA template. It attaches to the end of the chromosome and adds complementary bases to the RNA template on the 3' end of the DNA strand. Once the lagging strand template is sufficiently elongated, DNA polymerase can add nucleotides complementary to the ends of the chromosomes, ensuring the replication of chromosome ends.
A cross is made between homozygous wild-type female Drosophila (a^+ a^+ b^+ b^+ c^+ c^+) and triple-mutant males (aa bb cc) (the order here is arbitrary). The F1 females are test crossed back to the triple-mutant males and the F2 phenotypic ratios are as follows: a^+ b c = 18 a b^+ c = 112 a b c = 308 a^+ b^+ c = 66 a b c^+ = 59 a^+ b^+ c^+ = 320 a^+ b c^+ = 102 a b^+ c^+ = 15 total = 1000 Map these gene to a chromosome in a correct order and determine the map distance between them. Show all your work.
Answers
Answer:
a is the middle gene.
Distance [b-a]= 24.7 mu
Distance [a-c]= 15.8 mu
Distance [b-a} = 40.5 mu
Explanation:
A homozygous wild-type female drosophila (a⁺b⁺c⁺/a⁺b⁺c⁺) is crossed with a homozygous recessive male (abc/abc). The order of the genes here is arbitrary.
The F1 is heterozygous for the three genes (a⁺b⁺c⁺/abc). The F1 females were test crossed (crossed with abc/abc males).
The F2 shows the following phenotypic ratios:
320 a⁺b⁺c⁺308 a b c 102 a⁺ b c⁺112 a b⁺ c66 a⁺ b⁺ c59 a b c⁺18 a⁺ b c 15 a b⁺ c⁺Total = 1000
The male parent is homozygous recessive for the 3 genes, so the observed phenotypes of the offspring correspond to the gametes received from the mother.
Recombination during meiosis is a rare event, so the most abundant gametes are always the parentals: a⁺b⁺c⁺ and abc.
The least abundant gametes, following the same logic, are the double crossovers (DCO): a⁺bc and ab⁺c⁺.
1st. Determine the gene orderCompare the parental and the DCO gametes. The allele that is switched corresponds to the middle gene. In this case, gene a is in the middle of the other two.
2nd Determine the single crossover gametes
The F1 mother that generated all 8 types of gametes had the genotype b⁺a⁺c⁺/bac (correct order of genes).
The single crossover (SCO) gametes resulting from recombination between genes b and a are b⁺ac and ba⁺c⁺.The single crossover (SCO) gametes resulting from recombination between genes a and c are b⁺a⁺c and bac⁺.3) Calculate the recombination frequencies between genesRecombination frequency (RF) = #Recombinants/Total progeny
RF [b-a]= (102+112+18+15)/1000= 0.247RF [f-br]= (66+59+18+15)/1000= 0.1584) Calculate the distance in map unitsDistance (mu) = RF x 100
Distance [b-a]= 0.247 × 100 = 24.7 mu
Distance [a-c]= 0.158 × 100 = 15.8 mu
Distance [b-a} = 24.7 mu + 15.8 mu = 40.5 mu
The gene map therefore looks like:b------------24.7 mu--------------------------a---------15.8 mu-----------c
Which of the following is not an example of adaptation? A) A plant population that is very drought-resistant due to the action of natural selection B) The process by which a plant population becomes drought-resistant C) The increased ability of an individual plant (above baseline) to withstand further drought after it has received a heat shock, which causes the expression of specific proteins that enable more efficient use of water D) A mammal species that has evolved an increased ability to store water through the operation of natural selection E) A mammal species that has evolved measures to use water more efficiently through the operation of natural selection
Answers
Answer:
C) The increased ability of an individual plant (above baseline) to withstand further drought after it has received a heat shock, which causes the expression of specific proteins that enable more efficient use of water
Explanation:
In biology, adaptations refer to the characteristics of organisms that allow them to survive and reproduce better in their environment than if they did not possess them. Many of these adaptations are very easy to recognize, such as bird beaks that are highly specific to the food they eat, for example. It is now accepted by science that only natural selection can consistently produce adaptations, although it is important to note that it is not the only evolutionary mechanism. Natural selection, whose idea is mainly attributed to Charles Darwin, acts directly on the phenotypic characteristics of individuals in a population, favoring those who are most likely to survive and reproduce in a given environment over those who are less adapted.
Based on this, we can conclude that adaptation is a biological process that occurs without human manipulation. Thus, we can conclude that among the options given in the above question, the letter C does not represent an example of adaptation. This is because the letter C, shows a plant that showed characteristics favorable to its survival in an inhospitable environment, after human intervention, which, through a thermal shock, caused the expression of specific proteins for that characteristic.
Jerry is a professional football player who injured his knee while running during a game. Jerry has had surgery and his knee is fully healed, but he is afraid to put pressure on it because he doesn’t want to re-injure it. The trainer implements a plan in which he first differentially reinforces standing, then walking, then jogging, and finally running at full speed. This is an example of using shaping to:
Answers
Answer:
reinstate a previous behavior
Explanation:
The rehabilitation to stop the pain and inflammation, for the recovery of the mobility and the muscular tone and the realization of a program of sports rehabilitation are essential to achieve a good recovery.
The recovery process must be carried out in a precise and multidisciplinary manner, the load that the knee must support and tolerate at all times, as well as rest and recovery times.
On the planet Trogus, the population of Trogites have an autosomal gene, HDZ, with two alleles, T and t. T is dominant to t. Individuals with the T allele in their genotype show a propensity for sorbet, while the remainder prefer ice cream. In multiple population studies, 60% of individuals with the TT genotype prefer sorbet, 25% of Tt individuals prefer sorbet, and 5% of tt individuals prefer sorbet.
In an F1 cross of Tt x Tt genotyped individuals, in the F2population of individuals who prefer sorbet, what is the probability that a random individual has the Tt genotype?
A. 0.991.
B. 0.141.
C. 0.435.
D. 0.044.
E. 0.522.
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is C. 0.435
Explanation:
To get the results, let's make a punnet square and check the results. The parents in the cross will be heterozygous prefering sorbet. We can say that the alleles for sorbet are dominant over the alleles which prefer ice cream.
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
The results show that there is 25% (0.25) probability that the individual will be homozygous preferring sorbet (TT). 25% (0.25) will have the probability of preferring ice- cream (tt).
50% (0.5) which is nearest to 0.435 will have the probability for having heterozygous alleles (Tt) and preferring sorbet,
Complete the sentences about DNA packaging. Some terms may be used more than once.
The less condensed form of chromatin is ______.
The inactive form of chromatin is ______.
A core composed of _____ proteins interacts with DNA through hydrogen bonding and ionic bonds.
If DNA structure is described as "beads-on-a-string," a "bead" is a _____.
The more darkly-staining form of chromatin is _______ .
If DNA structure is described as "beads-on-a-string," a "string" is the _____.
A ______ is a DNA–protein complex.
Answers
Answer:
the less condensed form of chromatin is... euchromatin
the inactive form of chromatin is... heterochromatin
a core composed of eight ___histone___ proteins interacts with DNA through hyrdogen bonding and ionic bonds.
if DNA structure is described as "beads on a string" a "bead" is a......nucleosome
The more darkly staining form of chromatin is.....heterchromatin
if DNA is described as "beads on a string" the "string" is the....
DNA molecule
A ___________ is a DNA protein complex.
nucleosome
Hope this help.. plz mark brainliest
The less condensed form of chromatin is euchromatin. The inactive form of chromatin is heterochromatin. A core composed of histone proteins interacts with DNA through hydrogen bonding and ionic bonds.
What is a chromosome?Chromosomes are thread-like structures that are found within the nucleus of animal and plant cells.
Protein and a single molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid make up each chromosome (DNA). Passed from parents to offspring, DNA contains the specific instructions that make each type of living creature unique.
The primary function of chromosomes is to transport DNA and genetic information from parents to offspring.
During cell division, chromosomes play an important role. They keep DNA from becoming tangled and damaged.
Euchromatin is the less condensed form of chromatin. Heterochromatin is the inactive form of chromatin. A core made up of histone proteins interacts with DNA via hydrogen and ionic bonds.
The string is made of DNA, and each bead is a "nucleosome core particle," which is made of DNA wound around a protein core made of histones.
Heterochromatin is the darker-staining form of chromatin. Chromatin is a DNA-protein complex with two main functions: tight DNA packaging and gene expression regulation.
Thus, this way one can complete the given scenario.
For more details regarding chromatin, visit:
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