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The partial pressure of oxygen inside the lung (alveolar air) is usually _________ kPa and the partial pressure of oxygen in the adjacent pulmonary blood is ________ kPa.

Answers

Answer 1
Partial pressure (Px) is the pressure of a single type of gas in a mixture of gases. The partial pressure of oxygen inside the lung (alveolar air) is usually 13.86552829116 kPa (104 mm Hg) and the partial pressure of oxygen in the adjacent pulmonary blood is 13.3322387415 kPa (100 mm Hg)
Answer 2

Answer:

104 mm Hg  100 mm Hg

Explanation:


Related Questions

If an organism has 6 haploid chromosomes, how many chromosomes are present? 6 12

Answers

the Haploid number is half (haploid cells are sex cells egg and sperm they have half as many chromosomes as the diploid cells which are normal cells ) of the chromosomes so that would be 12. To clarify that if a organism has 12 chromosomes and reproduce sexually it takes two
parents each contributing ether a egg or sperm each egg or sperm contains half of the genetic
material 


Your answer would be (6)




Hope this helps.

The number of chromosomes in a haploid cell, which includes an egg and sperm, is half that of a diploid cell, or a normal cell. Therefore, a haploid cell would have 12 chromosomes.

What is Haploid chromosomes?

A cell with a single set of chromosomes is called haploid. The number of chromosomes in sperm or egg cells, often known as gametes, is also referred to as haploid.

In humans, gametes are haploid cells with 23 chromosomes—one of each chromosomal pair found in diplod cells—and are hence haploid. The haploid number, commonly known as n, is used to indicate the number of chromosomes in a single pair. n = 23 for people.

Half of the chromosomes found in somatic cells, or the body's typical diploid cells, are found in gametes. Meiosis, a type of cell division that cuts the number of chromosomes in a parent diploid cell in half, produces haploid gametes.

Therefore, The number of chromosomes in a haploid cell, which includes an egg and sperm, is half that of a diploid cell, or a normal cell. Therefore, a haploid cell would have 12 chromosomes.

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He primary function of the rectum is to ____.
a. ​store digestive hormones until they are needed
b. ​absorb excess water from waste materials
c. ​store waste materials prior to evacuation
d. ​absorb minerals from waste materials
e. ​control functioning of the colon

Answers

The primary function of the rectum is to ​store waste materials prior to evacuation.

When we encounter a stressor, the _____ nervous system accelerates the automatic processes in our body, and after the stressor is over, the _____ nervous system returns us to normal functioning?

Answers

The answer is sympathetic; parasympathetic.

The sympathetic nervous system prepares your body for an intense activity. It accelerates the body's processes in case you need to "fight" or run away in response to a stressor. This is the fight-or-flight response that you hear about.

The parasympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, is the calming and relaxing response. It conserves your energy by slowing down the bodily processes. So when you feel no threat it relaxes your body back to normal function. 

Answer: The correct answers for the blanks are-

Sympathetic nervous system and

Parasympathetic nervous system respectively.

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system is also referred as '' fight or flight'' system of body as it prepares body for an intense activities during any stressful situation.

It accelerates the processes of body in a way that either body needs to "fight" or run away in response to a particular stressor.

On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is the ''rest and digest'' system of the body. It brings calm and relaxes the body by conserving energy through slowing down the processes taking place. So, when the stressor is gone, the body relaxes and comes back to normal function through parasympathetic branch.

Why is the karyotype for people with Turner syndrome written as 45XO

Answers

The number 45 means that the subject has 44 normal autosomal chromosomes (22 chromosomes pairs) plus one (1) good sex chromosome (out of the normal homologous pair). The X0 means that the subject, usually a female, lacks one sister chromosome of the homologous X chromosome pair, or has a partial X sister chromosome.






An animal experiences an injury to its head. it then starts to eat uncontrollably. what part of the brainis probably injured?

Answers

Answer::


Ventromedial Hypothalamus

what are the limitations of the Dissecting Microscope?

Answers

only shows external structure and low power

why is the moon visible?

A) It gives off light
B) Earth Lights it up
C) it reflects sunlight
D) it is on fire

Answers

The moon is visible because  it reflects sunlight.

What is the moon?

The moon is part of the celestial bodies which is known for being a high reflecting surface.

Since the moon is a non luminous object but is able to reflect the light that is incident on it, it then follows that  the moon is visible because  it reflects sunlight.

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PLEASE HELP!!!

Number 1.

Which statement about this diagram is correct?

A. Molecule 1 is RNA, which contains thymine.

B. Molecule 2 is DNA, which can bond with another DNA Molecule.

C. Molecule 1 is DNA, which is a double helix.

D. Molecule 2 is RNA, and it is the only nucleic acid that contains four types of bases.




QUESTION 2!

Which statement explains the overall function of the two molecules in the diagram?

A. They provide an organism with usable energy in the form of ATP.

B. They make up an organism's in physical structure.

C. They carry information about how an organism is put together and maintained.

D. They store excess carbohydrates for later use.



Answers

A.) Molecule 1 is DNA because it is a double helix.  

B. They make up an organism's in physical structure.

Where does the calvin cycle (i.e.the dark reactions of photosynthesis) take place? select one:
a. stroma of the chloroplast
b. outer membrane of the chloroplast
c. thylakoid membrane
d. interior of the thylakoid (thylakoid space)?

Answers

A) stroma of chloroplast

Describe the role of bone morrow in the immune system. Explain why someone who has a genetic disorder that does not allow their bone marrow to do its job may be helped by a bone marrow transplant.


Answers

 Bone marrow produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. The white blood cells (also called leukocytes) that our bone marrow produces are used to fight off diseases, and the platelets rush to a wound to form a layer over it, similar to a plate, to clot the blood and prevent bleeding. If your bone marrow dies or fails, your red blood cell count will dramatically decrease. A low blood cell count is called cytopenia. Someone who has a genetic bone marrow disease may be helped by a bone marrow transplant from a matching relative or donor. Before a transplant you get chemotherapy with or without radiation to kill off diseased red blood cells. During a bone marrow transplant you get injected with new, healthy red blood cells that make their way to your bone marrow to further grow and develop.

32. Explain the relationship between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. How do
they work together to accomplish a task? (4 points)

Answers

Nerves from the peripheral nervous system that leave the brain and spinal cord travel throughout the body. The peripheral nervous system job is to send information from the body's sensory receptors to the central nervous system quickly.

The nervous system develops throughout the human body and includes very different elements in their forms and functions. It is divided into two complementary systems, the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) and the Central Nervous System (CNS).

The SNP includes all the nerve tissue that runs through the body. It has a dual function: to receive information by sensory sensors and transmit them to the CNS, and to activate motor functions controlled by the CNS. It consists of two parts, that somatic, activating the skeletal muscles and that, autonomous, attached to the viscera.

The CNS is the brain and spinal cord. It is the center of information processing.

Choose all the answers that apply. The mantle _____. is the thinnest layer is the thickest layer is the hottest layer is made of solid rock sometimes breaks through the crust

Answers

the thickest layer, the hottest layer

Answer:

the thickest layer, the hottest layer

Explanation:

Which three human activities lead to a loss of terrestrial habitat? a.conservation b.farming c.deforestation d.construction

Answers

The answers would be b.farming c.deforestation and d.construction!

Conservation
is the act of trying to preserve nature! Quite the opposite of the question!
The appropriate answers are b. farming, c. deforestation and d. construction. Deforestation is the widespread removal of trees from forests. Deforestation destroys the habitats of thousands of species, especially regions such as the Amazon.
Large scale construction can lead to the destruction of habitats as the original shape of the land is altered. This alteration almost always disrupts habitats.
Improper farming techniques can lead to deforestation and soil erosion; both of which disrupts habitats.

The approximate transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level is ________.

Answers

Oxygen is the next higher tropic level

If there was a large oil spill close to shore, which method would be deployed to prevent a large scale impact on the wildlife?

Answers

Answer:

Booms

Explanation:

I just took the test.

If there was a large oil spill close to the shore, the method which would be deployed to prevent a large scale impact on the wildlife are the floating barriers which are mainly booms.

What are Floating barriers?

Floating barriers are also referred to as the boom. These are the devices which are placed in the waterbody to control and also contain oil, floating debris, invasive aquatic plants, trash, silt, sediment, and enough turbidity. A floating barrier can be installed either temporarily or permanently in a shore or wildlife.

The most common type of the equipment which is used to control the spread of oil is floating barriers are called as the booms. Containment booms are also used to control the spread of the oil components to reduce the possibility of polluting the shorelines and other resources, as well as to concentrate the oil in thicker surface layers in the shore and also making recovery easier.

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What is mitosis, HURRY PLEASE

Answers

In cell biology, mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new nuclei.

What is the main difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph?
A.
A heterotroph only consumes plant matter whereas an autotroph eats both plants and animals.

B.
A heterotroph is able to produce its own food whereas an autotroph must consume other organisms for energy.

C.
An autotroph is able to produce its own food whereas a heterotroph must consume other organisms for energy.

D.
An autotroph only consumes plant matter whereas a heterotroph eats both plants and animals.

Answers

I believe it would be C.

Hi:) i think the answer is C

Which of the following weather conditions would result in the greatest rate of evaporation from the Earth's surface?

Answers

what are the options to choose the answer from?
 dry and hot weather would result in a greatest rate of evaporation

You have figured out how pulmonary arteriole vasoconstriction could lead to high vascular resistance and therefore high blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit. this high resistance is going to make it harder for the heart to push blood through the vessels, overworking the heart and leading to heart failure. which side of the heart is most likely to be overworked?

Answers

The answer would be the right side.

Blood to lungs is pumped by the right ventricle. When there is increased vascular resistance in the lungs, the pressure will be increased called pulmonary hypertension. This will cause the right ventricle need to exert more force than usual.
Left ventricle would be responsible for the blood flow to the body.

How many synapses are crossed in a single reflex arc during a muscle stretch reflex?

Answers

One synapse. In stretch reflex muscle contraction occurs in response to the stretching within muscle. Monosynaptic reflex is the one that provide the action for the skeletal muscles. If the muscles lengthens, the activity of the nerve of muscle spindle increases. This will lead into an increase in alpha motor neuron functions. This will result into muscle fibers to contratc and counters the stretch.  Gamma neurons are the one that controls the sensitivity of the stretch reflex.
Final answer:

In a typical muscle stretch reflex, two synapses are crossed: one between the sensory neuron and the spinal cord and another between the spinal cord and the motor neuron.

Explanation:

In the case of a muscle stretch reflex, typically only two synapses are crossed. For example, when a muscle is stretched, signals are sent to the spinal cord via sensory neurons (first synapse). In the spinal cord, these sensory neurons synapse with motor neurons (second synapse) which then send signals back to the muscle causing it to contract and resist the stretch.

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You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. she is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. as your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. after performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should:

Answers

you should prepare a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport

In the given scenario, after performing any immediate lifesaving treatment, one should perform a secondary assessment to identify any additional injuries or medical conditions.

The primary assessment is used to identify and treat any life-threatening conditions, such as airway obstruction, breathing problems, or circulation problems.

Once primary issues are resolved, a secondary assessment is performed to identify to check whether there is any other injuries or medical conditions is present that may require treatment.

During the secondary assessment, one will perform a head-to-toe exam to look for any signs of injury. You will also obtain a detailed medical history and gather information about the events leading up to the accident.

Therefore, performing secondary assessment is important after performing primary assessment.

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Which properly traces the movement of chromosomes during mitosis?

Answers

The cellular structure which traces the movement of chromosomes during mitosis is the centrioles. Centrioles are mainly constructed of microtubules and are responsible for directing the movement of chromosomes during mitosis.
Mitosis is the process of the cell cycle where one cell splits its duplicated genetic material into two identical cells. Centrioles are part of the mitotic spindle which is the structure that organizes and moves the chromosomes into these two daughter cells.
Final answer:

Mitosis consists of sequential stages starting with prophase and ending with cytokinesis, during which the chromosomes condense, attach to spindle fibers, align at the metaphase plate, are pulled apart during anaphase, and are separated into two new nuclei in telophase.

Explanation:

To properly trace the movement of chromosomes during mitosis, one must understand the sequential stages involved in this process. Mitosis is a critical aspect of cell division that ensures each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the parent cell's chromosomes.

Prophase: Chromosomes condense and become visible. The mitotic spindle begins to form, but the nuclear envelope is still intact.Prometaphase: The nuclear envelope breaks down, allowing spindle fibers to attach to kinetochores on the chromosomes.Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, with sister chromatids facing opposite poles.Anaphase: Cohesion proteins dissolve, and sister chromatids are pulled apart by the spindle fibers toward opposite poles.Telophase: Nuclear membranes start to reform around separated sister chromatids, now individual chromosomes, at the poles of the cell.Cytokinesis: The cytoplasm divides, creating two daughter cells, each with a complete set of chromosomes.

Calories are units of heat that express the energy value of food.
a. True
b. False

Answers

The definition of calories is that they are units of heat that express the energy value of food, therefore the answer is true

Which of these features would you expect to see on a homo heidelbergensis skull?

Answers

This question is unfortunately incomplete. However, the general skull features of Homo heidelbergensis include large brow ridges, a broad, sloping forehead and a rear skull wall that is vertical rather than rounded or sloping.

To find the distance to an earthquake’s epicenter, scientists _______________________________.
analyze the arrival times of the P waves and surface waves

analyze the arrival times of the P waves and S waves

analyze the arrival times of the surface waves and S waves

analyze the arrival times of the Love waves and Rayleigh waves

Answers

The answer is B. analyze the arrival times of the P waves and S waves.

Besides lymph nodes, where would you expect to find proliferating (dividing) b cells?

Answers

We can expect to find dividing and maturing B cells, aside from the lymph nodes, is in the spleen. The spleen is one of the major lymphoid tissues (i.e. lymph nodes, thymus, mucosa associated lymphoid tissue, etc) where lymphoid cells proliferate. The major cell from the lymphoid lineage that proliferates in the spleen are the B cells.

The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are divergent, meaning that a single stimulus can have an effect on a large number of targets. in other words, when the sns is activated, all of the organs it innervates are stimulated. this does not occur in the parasympathetic system. why?

Answers

The sympathetic ganglia spreads the stimulus to all postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

Match each description below with the cell type it characterizes. cell types may be used more than once or not at all.
a. melanocyte
b. keratinocyte
c. fibroblast major cell type found in the dermis of the skin; its primary function is to secrete extracellular matrix.

Answers

Major cell type found in the dermis of the skin; its primary function is to secrete extracellular matrix.C. Fibroblast.
Major cell type found in the epidermis of the skin whose primary function is production of pigment.a. Melanocyte.
Major cell type found in the epidermis of the skin; its primary function is to protect underlying tissues and organs.b. keratinocyte.

The proximal end of the ulna illustrates the relationship of form and function. the rounded trochlear notch articulates with the hourglass shape of the trochlea. this forms a joint that allows for ________. the hinge like motion of the forearm the rotational motion of the forearm the curling of the fingers the hyper extension of the forearm

Answers

I believe that this forms a joint that allows for hinge like motion of the forearm. 
The ulna extends through the forearm from the elbow to the wrist, narrowing significantly towards its distal end. At the proximal ends it forms the elbow joint with the humerus of the upper arm and the radius of the forearm. The ulna then extends past the humerus to form the tip of the elbow (olecranon). The hinge like motion of the elbow joint places the point of the olecranon well under the middle of the upper arm.

Answer:

Option A, The hinge like motion of the forearm

Explanation:

A hinge joint  allows for two motions at a time

a) Flexion - The bending motion

b) Extension - The strengthening motion of arm bones

At the  proximal end , the Ulna forms a joint with the humerus  and radius of forearm. The Ulna extends to form olecranon (the tip of the elbow) Both Ulna and radius bones are attached with an interosseous membrane that causes movement just like a hinge joint.

Option A is correct

If transcription occurred from left to right, which strand is the template strand? if transcription occurred from left to right, which strand is the template strand? 5' - tatgcagcacatt - 3' 5' - atacgtcgtgtaa - 3' 3' - atacgtcgtgtaa - 5' 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5'

Answers

If transcription occurred from left to right the template strand would be
3'- ATACGTCGTGTAA- 5'.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction, synthesizing an RNA molecule from 5' to 3'. If the RNA polymerase is moving from left to right, the strand that is oriented from 3' to 5' left to right is the bottom strand. This is the template strand. The top strand is called the coding strand (or sometimes the non-template) strand. The template strand is complementary to the mRNA sequence; the coding strand is the same sequence with uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).

Final answer:

The template strand for transcription occurring from left to right is 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5', as RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA in the 5' to 3' direction by reading this template strand in the 3' to 5' direction.

Explanation:

If transcription occurs from left to right on a DNA segment, the template strand will be the one running in the 3' to 5' direction because transcription proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction. Looking at the provided sequences, the template strand is 3' - tatgcagcacatt - 5' since transcription occurring from left to right would involve polymerase moving along this strand in the 3' to 5' direction while synthesizing RNA in the 5' to 3' direction.

During this process, adenine (A) on the DNA template strand dictates the addition of uracil (U) in RNA, thymine (T) will be transcribed as adenine (A), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G) as usual.

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