Answer:
Koch's postulate correct order is - C, A, B, D.
Explanation:
Koch's postulates are given by Robert Koch a german bacteriologist and physician to form criteria to identify that if a particular is able to cause a disease or epidemic or not. It helped in bringing scientific clarity to this field.
The suspected infectious agent must be found in every case of the disease.
The suspected infectious agent must be isolated and grown outside the host.
The suspected infectious agent causes the disease when it is introduced to a healthy, experimental host.
The suspected infectious agent must be found in the diseased experimental host.
Thus, the correct order is - C, A, B, D.
Which of the following is part of a homeostatic control mechanism? Check all that apply.
a) Control Cener
b) Effector Stimulus
c) Stimulus Receptor
The parts of a homeostatic control mechanism include the control center, stimulus receptor, and effector.
Explanation:The parts of a homeostatic control mechanism include the control center, stimulus receptor, and effector. The control center processes information received from the receptor and initiates a response. The stimulus receptor detects changes in the internal or external environment, while the effector carries out the response to counteract the change and restore homeostasis.
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Alissa is a 41-year-old, married, professional woman who has just found out that she is pregnant with her third child. According to your textbook, which of the following conditions is her baby at higher risk of due to Alissa’s age?a) Down syndromeb) Phenylketonuriac) ADHDd) Von Recklinghausen disease (neurofibromatosis)
Answer:
Down syndrome.
Explanation:
Down syndrome may be defined as the medical condition that occurs due to the presence of extra chromosome at the chromosome number 21. The individual has big head, rolled finger and tongue.
The chances of Down syndrome increases as the mother's age increases. The egg of the female get arrested at diplotene stage and with the increased age of mother the phenomena like translocation and non disjunction increases at this stage.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Make an inference about what happens to the matter and energy during the formation and breakdown of a complex carbohydrate molecule? When is energy stored or released?
Answer:
The breakdown of carbohydrates in the cell during cellular respiration does not change the matter or energy in the molecule. Actually, the matter in the energy molecule, which is the number of atoms and molecule, remains the same and are only transferred to make other molecules (remember that in a chemical reaction, the number of atoms on the reactants side must balance with those of the products). The energy in the bonds of the molecule, as they are broken down by metabolic enzymes, are what is transferred to ATPs. This process is not efficient as most energy is lost as heat. The energy in the ATPs is used in catabolic process like the formation of carbohydrates in the Calvin cycle of plants. Catabolic processes reduce entropy - & increase Gibbs free energy - hence require energy.
Ultimately, no energy or matter is destroyed or made, it is only transferred, hence observing the first law of thermodynamics.
Energy in the body is stored through glycogenesis where glycogen is formed from excess glucose and stored in tissues. When energy is required, this glycogen is broken down back to glucose through glycogenolysis and it can be used in cellular respiration.
1) The relationships between Earth's various systems affect everything from climate to formation of landforms. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between Earth's hydrosphere and atmosphere? A) Varied land temperature is a result of the spheres' interaction, which affects weather patterns. B) Earth's tectonic plates are affected by this relationship, which can create earthquake activity. C) The spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice. D) The interaction between the spheres affects elevated landforms, and is responsible for volcano eruptions.
Answer:
C) The spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice
~batmans wife dun dun dun....
Answer:
The answer is "C"
Explanation:
The best way to describe the relationship is: the spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice. Changes in air temperature is a result of atmosphere and hydrosphere interactions.
Populations of amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by disease and high rates of deformity. A recent study investigated whether problems among the populations have arisen due to poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. Biologists from the University of Florida collected local adult cane toads (Bufo marinus) from more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to agriculture—both large-scale and small-scale farms as well as from suburbs located far from agricultural sites. At collection sites where 50–97% of the adjacent land was farmed, males showed high levels of feminization. Feminized male toads were similar in color to females and had lower levels of testosterone and often had deformed gonads. These changes can lead to sterile males or changes in behavior that prevent mating from occurring. Based on this study, what is the control group?
ablo and Johanna have to do a yearlong study for their biology course. After some discussion, they decide to try comparing their dogs and the diet that they feed them. Each has a dog from the pound, and both dogs are less than one year old. Pablo feeds his shepherd-mix dog a special diet of wet and dry foods from the local vet, while Johanna uses generic dry kibble from the supermarket for her bulldog. They want to see which diet results in bigger, healthier, faster-growing dogs.
When they write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably ________.
When they write up their initial proposal, the instructor will probably state that the cannot compare a shepherd-mix dog with a bulldog. Since they are different races, the diet is not representative of the feature they want to measure.
In order to compare which diet results in bigger, healthier and faster growing dogs, they should have the same dog.
Two components are common to all four DNA nucleotides, and one component differs. Drag each of the following terms to the appropriate column to indicate whether that item is commonly found in all DNA nucleotides or only in specific DNA nucleotides.-phosphate-deoxyribose sugar-thymine-cytosine-adenine-guanine
In DNA nucleotides, the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common components, while the nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine) is the varying component.
Explanation:In the structure of DNA, there are four types of nucleotides, each composed of three components: a phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
Two of these components - the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar - are common to all four DNA nucleotides. The component that differs across the four DNA nucleotides is the nitrogenous base, which can be either adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G).
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Phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common to all DNA nucleotides. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are the parts that vary across different nucleotides in DNA. The presence of these bases determines the unique identity and pairing of each nucleotide.
Explanation:The two components common to all four DNA nucleotides are phosphate and deoxyribose sugar. These components are part of the structure of every nucleotide, whether in DNA or RNA. The nitrogenous base is what varies between different nucleotides. In DNA, these bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Adenine and guanine are classified as double-ringed purines, while cytosine and thymine are single-ringed pyrimidines. The specific nitrogenous base present gives the nucleotide its unique identity and determines its pairing in the DNA structure.
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Human proteins can be produced by cells in the milk-producing mammary glands of transgenic mammals if the regulatory sequence of a milk gene is used to produce the recombinant gene. Why is it important to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when constructing a recombinant gene used to produce a human protein secreted in milk? The regulatory sequence controls the _____.
Answer:
The given blank can be filled with location of gene expression.
Explanation:
A regulatory sequence refers to a section of a molecule of nucleic acid that possesses the tendency of declining or upsurging the expression of particular genes within an organism. The regulation of gene expression is an important characteristic of all living species and viruses.
In the given case, it is essential to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when developing a recombinant gene as a regulatory sequence monitors the location of gene expression.
The regulatory sequence of a milk gene is crucial in producing recombinant human proteins in transgenic animal milk because it controls gene expression, ensuring proteins are made at correct times and in appropriate amounts. Transgenic animals like sheep and goats are often used as they can provide the necessary eukaryotic post-translational modifications not possible in bacterial expression systems.
Explanation:It is important to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when constructing a recombinant gene used to produce a human protein secreted in milk because the regulatory sequence controls the expression of the gene. Essentially, this means that it governs when, where, and how much of the protein is produced. The milk gene regulatory sequence is specialized to be active in the mammary glands during lactation, which ensures that the recombinant human protein is produced and secreted into the milk at the right times and in the right amounts.
Using transgenic animals, such as sheep and goats, that have been engineered to express human proteins in their milk, benefits the production of medically important proteins that may not be adequately produced in bacterial systems due to the need for eukaryotic post-translational modifications.
This biotechnological approach is not only limited to livestock but also includes other transgenic animals like mice which are used extensively for expressing and studying the effects of recombinant genes and mutations.
A client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia comes to the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the arms and legs. What do these symptoms indicate?
A) Loss of vibratory and position sensesB) Neurologic involvementC) Severity of the diseaseD) Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients
Answer:
The correct answer is option B) "Neurologic involvement".
Explanation:
The disease of pernicious anemia could elicit neurologic symptoms that comes from a patient that suffered myelin degeneration and loss of nerve fibers. The neurologic symptoms include numbness and tingling in the arms and legs as well as paresthesias, weakness, clumsiness, and an unsteady gait. When a patient suffers with any of these symptoms is considered that she or he has pernicious anemia with a neurologic involvement.
Which turned out to be a hoax?
O
A. The Nariokotome boy
O
O
B. The Taung child
O
O
C. The Tyrkana boy
O
O
D. The Piltdown man
Answer: The Piltdown Man
Explanation:
Every other answer was not a hoax
Final answer:
D. The Piltdown Man turned out to be a hoax. It was a fabricated fossil that misled scientists about human evolution for decades, unlike the real fossil discoveries of the Nariokotome Boy and Taung Child.
Explanation:
The hoax referred to in the question is the Piltdown Man. This infamous archaeological forgery was considered a significant find when it was "discovered" in 1912 by Charles Dawson in England. It supposedly provided evidence for a European origin of human evolution, displaying both human and ape-like features. However, using the fluorine technique among other methods, the Piltdown Man was eventually proven to be a fake. This discovery was a set of bones altered and combined in a way to purposely create a seemingly transitional fossil between apes and humans, fooling the scientific community for over 40 years.
On the contrary, the other specimens mentioned, such as the Nariokotome Boy, also known as the Turkana Boy, and the Taung Child, are genuine and significant paleoanthropological discoveries. The Nariokotome Boy is a remarkably complete skeleton of a Homo erectus youth found near Lake Turkana, Kenya, which has provided invaluable insight into the early evolution of our genus, Homo. Similarly, the Taung Child is the first discovered fossil of an Australopithecine juvenile, which reinforced the idea that humanity originated from Africa.
Question 19
A compound formed in solution from the negative ion of an acid and the positive ion of a base is a _____.
A)salt
B)soap
C)glycerin
D)detergent
Answer:
A compound formed in solution from the negative ion of an acid and the positive ion of a base is a salt. Hence the answer is option A
Explanation:
Salt is a product which is formed when a base is reacted with an acid. This reaction is also known as neutralization reaction because the base neutralizes the acid and the acid neutralizer base. By the course of action of these two salt is formed which is sour in taste.
This salt gets deposited in the base of the container as a form of precipitation. The salt can be of different color depending upon the color of base and acid which was used during the chemical reaction.
If an individual has a recessive phenotype for a particular trait, it can be concluded that
A. both parents also had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
B. only one parent had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
C. both parents were homozygous for the dominant gene for that trait.
D. each parent had at least one recessive gene for that trait.
E. none of the above
Answer:
D. Each parent had at least one recessive gene for that trait.
Explanation:
Actually, the correct answer would be "Each parent had at least one recessive allele for that trait", but we can consider D to be correct.
Recessive phenotypes are only expressed when both copies of the gene are recessive alleles. If you have one recessive allele and one dominant allele, your phenotype will be dominant, same way as if you both alleles were dominant.
Each allele is inherited from one parent, so you have one parental allele, and one maternal allele. If your phenotype is recessive, it means you inherited a recessive allele from your mother and one from your father, so you can conclude that both parents had at least one copy of the recessive allele. What you can't say is that both parents had a recessive phenotype, because it could be that they had one dominant and one recessive allele, so they would be able to pass on the recessive allele to the next generation, but their phenotype would be dominant.
Genetics is defined as ________.
a. the branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction, rather than with structures
b. the science of inherited traits
c. the study of behavior and mental processes
d. the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death.
The correct answer is B. The science of inherited traits
Explanation:
Genetics refers to the field in biology that focuses on studying genes which are the basic units of heredity and therefore the ones that determine inherited traits. Indeed genetic study the way traits are passed through reproduction and also the way genes change over time or express which is closely connected to evolution. Additionally, genetics have been widely studied beginning by the works of Mendel during the 19th century and nowadays the knowledge about genes including the behavior, function, and structure of them is broad. According to this, genetics is defined as the science of inherited traits.
Genetics is defined as the science of inherited traits, focusing on the transmission and variation of these traits, which involves studying genes, their functions, and interactions, option b is correct.
Genetics is the branch of biology that deals with the transmission and variation of inherited characteristics, particularly involving chromosomes and DNA. This scientific field focuses on how traits are inherited from one generation to the next and how these traits manifest and change over time within populations and across different environments. The study of genetics encompasses genes, their functions, interactions, and the results of these processes on the physical appearance and capabilities of organisms.
Considering the options provided in the question, the correct definition of genetics is 'b. the science of inherited traits,' as it captures the essence of this biological discipline. Modern genetics builds on the foundations laid by Mendelian principles, extending into complex areas such as genomics, gene interaction, and population genetics. The field has vast implications, from understanding genetic disorders to enhancing crop yields through genetic engineering.
You have been asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment, collect DNA samples, and analyze how gorillas from different areas differ in gene expression. Which preferable skills should your team have?
Answer:
As i am asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment I will prefer a team having persons expert in having knowledge of forest in which we are doing research on gorillas. They must be experience in working with gorillas and familiar with their nature.
My team should have a person who know to use the tranquilizer gun because to collect the DNA sample gorilla needs to be tranquilized. My team should have one veterinary doctor who can examine the animal and take the DNA sample.
People with Good communication skills, observation skills and critical thinking skills are required in the team to successfully complete the research.
which of the following is not an interpretation that can be made from an age structure diagram
A. rate of change in population size
b. distribution of age
c. the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
d. The effect of a natural disaster on population size.
Answer:
Option C, the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
Explanation:
Demographers very frequently use age structure diagram also known as population pyramid as a tool to understand the distribution of population into two groups i.e male and female population along with details of age.
The pyramid diagram is generally of three type -
a) Progressive - growing population
b) Stagnant - stagnant population
c) Degenerative - decreasing population
Hence, option C is correct
If a person has low levels of phosphorous in his or her blood, phosphorous may be "stolen" from bones to make it available for cellular molecules. Which molecules require phosphorous as part of their structure?
Answer:
nucleic acids and phospholipids
Explanation:
Phosphorous is required to make two essential molecules in the body- the nuclei acid and the phospholipids. The nucleic acid contains carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus and is organic compounds that codes for the genetic information in an organism. There are two types of nucleic acid- ribonucleic acids and deoxyribonucleic acids, i.e RNA and DNA respectively. Both of them sugar-phosphate backbone and therefore, phosphorous is essential for the synthesis of nucleic acids in the body. Phospholipids make up the cell membrane and thus, phosphorous is also essential for their synthesis.A cell membrane that transports glucose, ions, or other charged or polar molecules is likely to have a higher percentage and greater variety of proteins than one that does not transport these molecules.
Answer: True
Explanation:
A cell membrane consists of a lipid bilayer made of polar phosphate head and a nonpolar lipid tail. It is semipermeable and regulates the transport of materials through it. For this, it is selectively permeable and since it is made of lipids, hydrophobic and small polar molecules can diffuse easily through it by simple diffusion and down their concentration gradient. However, polar molecules, large molecules (such as glucose) and ions are not able to pass through it because they are repelled.
To accomplish the transport of these molecules that can not diffuse, proteins embebbed in the membrane function as carriers that enable the transport of polar molecules, large molecules and ions by passive (through facilitated diffusion, down its concentration gradient) or active transport (movement against its concentration gradient).
A scientist is testing a new plant food to see if it causes plants to grow faster. The scientist tests two plants with the new plant food, and two plants he grows without plant food. What is the independent variable?
A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. a flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. raphe fascicle aponeurosis tendon
A flat sheet of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is called an aponeurosis.
Explanation:A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is known as an aponeurosis. This connective tissue is similar to a tendon but it differs in being a broader, flatter structure. In skeletal muscles, when the collagen of the three tissue layers, or the mysia, does not interweave with a tendon, it may instead fuse with an aponeurosis or to the fascia. An example of an aponeurosis can be seen in the lower back where the latissimus dorsi muscles, also known as "lats", fuse into this flat, wide connective tissue to aid in movement of the skeleton.
Departmental overhead rates are generally preferred to plant-wide overhead rates when:
a. the activities of the various departments in the plant are not homogeneous.
b. the activities of the various departments in the plant are homogeneous.
c. most of the overhead costs are fixed.
d. all departments in the plant are heavily automated.
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Departmental overhead rates are generally preferred to plant-wide overhead rates when the activities of the various departments in the plant are not homogeneous.
Departmental overhead rates are concerned with a particular department only whereas plant wide overhead covers the whole plant which include various departments inside it.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the types of shock. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as occurring from a significantly diminished blood volume?
a) Cardiogenic-obstructive shock
b) Hypervolemic shock
c) Hypovolemic shock
d) Distributive shock
Answer:
c) Hypovolemic shock
Explanation:
Hypovolemic shock occurs when circulating blood volume is reduced due to blood loss. This blood loss can occur due to hemorrhage or loss of fluid that accompanies diarrhea, burns or vomiting. When circulating blood volume is reduced, vascular pressure is reduced and tissues do not get enough oxygen and vital nutrients (tissue hypoperfusion). As a result organ systems can fail leading to death.
Peripheral vasoconstriction and movement of fluid into plasma can increase vascular pressure and restore blood flow to critical tissues like brain, kidney and heart. Approximately 10% blood volume less can occur without reducing the vascular pressure. However if 35 to 45% of blood volume is lost, sufficient supply and pressure cant be maintained.
Which of the following statements is/are true?a. Loose connective tissue includes cartilage. b. Closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues. c. Dense irregular connective tissue has a high proportion of elastic fibers. d. Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers.
Answer:
d. Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers.
Explanation:
Bones and cartilage are the supporting connective tissue while loose and dense connective tissues are categorized as the connective tissue proper. Cartilage does not have nerves and blood vessels in its extracellular matrix.
Loose connective tissues have the fibers loosely arranged between the cells while the dense connective tissues have tightly packed fibers.
Both dense regular and irregular connective tissues mainly have a high proportion of white collagen fibers. Tendons and ligaments are the examples of dense regular connective tissues while the dense irregular connective tissues are present in the inner location of the skin.
Of the statements given, only 'd' is true: Dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers and is known for its resistance to stretching.
Explanation:The question revolves around the characteristics of various types of connective tissue. Statement 'a' that loose connective tissue includes cartilage is not true; cartilage is considered a supportive connective tissue. Statement 'b,' suggesting that closely packed bundles of collagen fibers are characteristic of loose connective tissues, is incorrect because such a description applies to dense regular connective tissue instead. Statement 'c,' regarding dense irregular connective tissue having a high proportion of elastic fibers, is not necessarily true, as dense irregular connective tissue typically has collagen fibers interwoven into a mesh-like structure. The correct statement is 'd,' which states that dense connective tissue is dominated by collagen fibers. Dense connective tissue provides great resistance to stretching due to the higher quantity of collagen fibers when compared to loose connective tissue.
Which statement is true regarding cancer?
(Select all that apply.)
a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.
b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones.
d. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells.
e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
Answer:
The correct answers are option a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer and b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
Explanation:
Anaplasia is a medical term used to describe a condition of cells with poor cellular differentiation. It is known that the great the anaplasia, the more aggresive is the cancer. The tumors that have this characteristic are known as anaplastic carcinoma. This malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host when they metastasize to other organs.
Which of the following statements about reinforcement is true?
a) Reinforcement is a type of natural selection.
b) Reinforcement increases the number of intermediate phenotypes.
c) Reinforcement is also called dispersive selection.
d) Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Answer:
The correct answer is option a, that is, it is a kind of natural selection.
Explanation:
A procedure of speciation in which the phenomenon of natural selection enhances the reproductive isolation amongst the population of two species is known as reinforcement. This takes place as a consequence of selection functioning against the generation of hybrid entities of low fitness.
The concept was developed originally by Alfred Wallace, also considered as the Wallace effect. Reinforcement signifies towards some of the circumstances in which selection can encourage an enhancement in prezygotic isolation, affecting the procedure of speciation straightforwardly.
Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Explanation:The statement that is true about reinforcement is: (d) Reinforcement decreases the morphological difference between two incipient species.
Reinforcement is a process in which natural selection strengthens reproductive isolation between populations, reducing the chances of interbreeding and promoting the development of distinct species.
This occurs when there is hybridization between two populations with partial reproductive isolation, and natural selection favors individuals that have traits that reduce hybridization and increase reproductive isolation.
For example, if a bird species with different coloration populations come into contact, and there is hybridization between them, natural selection may favor individuals that display more extreme coloration that distinguishes them from hybrids. This reduction in morphological difference between the two populations results in reinforcement as it increases reproductive isolation.
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Which rock feature is the line running between points A and B most likely to be?
(I accidentally clicked C.)
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
A fault is generally defined as the planar or curved fracture that results in the displacement of the rocks on either side of the fault because of the compressional or tensional stress. It is comprised of 2 blocks. The block that is present above the fault is termed as the Hanging-wall, and the block that is below the fault is termed as the Foot-wall. These blocks undergoes changes with the the type of stress that act on it.
This faults are mainly of 3 types, namely-
(1) Normal fault
(2) Reverse fault
(3) Transform fault
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Temperature phages
Select one:
a. use site specific recombination to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication until the host's growth is threatened.
b. use reverse transcriptase to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication.
c. do not cause lysis when exiting the host cell.
d. only occur in temperate regions of the globe.
Answera. use site specific recombination to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication until the host's growth is threatened.
Explanation:
A temperate phage is a bacteriophage which incorporate it's genome inside the host organism. It replicates it's own genome within the host cell. It basically uses the site specific recombination so as to incorporate the genome within the host cell.
PLEASE HELP
What is the function of the cholesterol molecules in a cell membrane?
A. They make it thicker
B. They make it more porous
C. They make it more fluid
D. They make it less flexible
Explanation:
C. They make it more fluid
Lipids are composed of fatty acids which form the hydrophilic head and glycerol which forms the hydrophilic tail; their arrangement can give these non-polar macromolecules hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties. Via diffusion, small water molecules can move across the phospholipid bilayer acts as a semi-permeable membrane into the extracellular fluid or the cytoplasm which are both hydrophilic and contain large concentrations of polar water molecules or other water-soluble compounds.
The hydrophilic heads of the bilayer are attracted to water while their water-repellent hydrophobic tails face towards each other- allowing molecules of water to diffuse across the membrane along the concentration gradient.
Transmembrane proteins are embedded within the membrane from the extracellular fluid to the cytoplasm, and are sometimes attached to glycoproteins (proteins attached to carbohydrates) which function as cell surface markers. Cholesterol, which is comparatively rigid, anchors other molecules attached to the membrane, maintain membrane stability or structural integrity and aid in separating some lipids, helping with membrane fluidity at low environmental temperatures.
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You set up an experiment with yeast grown on lots of food (glucose) vs. very little glucose. Would you expect to see differences in the amount and make-up of tRNA between the two groups?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
The RNA, is composed by the carbohydrate called ribose, that is not glucose but it is made based of the glucose.
The pentose phosphate path, is a metabolic path in which is closely related with glucolisis, the metabolic path in which glucose is turned into energy in human body.
If there is a living thing in which the environment is poor in glucose, it can produce some RNA, but not the necessary to produce the proteins that the cell need.
Final answer:
Yeast grown on high glucose is expected to have more tRNA and potentially different tRNA species compared to yeast grown on low glucose due to adjustments in metabolic activity related to nutrient availability.
Explanation:
In an experiment comparing yeast grown on high versus low glucose concentrations, one may expect to see differences in the amount and make-up of tRNA between the two groups. Yeast cells adjust their molecular machinery, including tRNA synthesis, based on nutrient availability. A growth medium with plentiful glucose would likely lead to higher metabolic activity and protein synthesis, thereby requiring increased amounts of tRNA to support the translation of mRNA into proteins. Conversely, in a low glucose environment, the cells may enter a conservation mode, slowing down metabolism and reducing the need for tRNA and protein synthesis, which could result in a noticeable decrease in the amount of tRNA.
Moreover, the makeup of individual tRNA species could differ, reflecting changes in the expression of various proteins necessitated by the nutrient conditions. For instance, certain amino acids might be in higher demand for proteins involved in glucose metabolism, which could lead to an increased abundance of tRNAs for those amino acids. These adjustments play a critical role in the carbon source adaptation that is often observed in yeast and other microorganisms when subjected to different nutrient conditions.
The function of RNA polymerase is to _________.
a. catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides.
b. activate tRNAs.
c. cleave mRNA to remove introns.
d. catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribonucleotids.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
RNA polymerase is the enzymes which perform the process of transcription that synthesizes the RNA from one strand of the DNA.
These polymerase moves step-wise along the DNA strand adding one nucleotide in 5′-to-3′ direction. They catalyze the reaction by forming the phosphodiester bond between two nucleotides using the energy from the high energy bonds of ATP and form the linear RNA.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes? binary fission 70S ribosomes ATP-generating mechanism circular chromosome cell wall
Answer:
Cell wall
Explanation:
The presence of a cell wall is a feature of some specific cell types. Prokaryotes such as bacteria possess the cell wall made of peptidoglycan. Cell wall makes outer most covering of their cells in these organisms.
Likewise, archaeans are also the prokaryotes that have cell walls to make the outer most covering of their cells. Among several functions, cell walls in these organisms impart them the mechanical strength and prevent the bursting of cells in a hypotonic environment.
Mitochondria are double-membrane organelles present in the cells of eukaryotes only. They are the powerhouse of these cell types and serve as a site of ATP production by the process of cellular respiration.
Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles and have a circular DNA. However, they do not have a cell wall around them.
The item NOT found or observed in both mitochondria and prokaryotes is the cell wall. Mitochondria lack a cell wall, whereas prokaryotic cells typically have one.
Explanation:The question asks which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes: binary fission, 70S ribosomes, ATP-generating mechanism, circular chromosome, cell wall. Mitochondria and prokaryotes share several similarities due to the endosymbiotic theory, which suggests that mitochondria were once free-living prokaryotes. They both undergo binary fission for replication, both have 70S ribosomes for protein synthesis, both have an ATP-generating mechanism, and both contain circular chromosome as their DNA. However, mitochondria do not have a cell wall; this structure is typical of prokaryotic cells and is not found in mitochondria.