The sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves, is the only anatomical plane that could not show both structures or regions like the brain and tongue, both eyes, hypogastric and gluteal regions, both kidneys, sternum and vertebral column, or the heart and uterus.
Explanation:To answer your question, let's first recall what each anatomical plane represents. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, the frontal (or coronal) plane divides the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior) portions, and the transverse (or horizontal) plane divides the body into upper (superior) and lower (inferior) halves.
Given this understanding, we can deduce that the sagittal plane is the only one that cannot show: (a) both the brain and tongue, (b) both eyes, (c) both the hypogastric and gluteal regions, (d) both kidneys, (e) both the sternum and vertebral column, and (f) both the heart and uterus. This is because these structures or regions are located on opposite sides of the body (left and right) and not vertically or anterior-posteriorly.
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Different organs have different energy and metabolic fuel requirements. Match the organs listed below with the fuel sources each is able to utilize. Although fuel sources can change depending on the metabolic stage of the organism (e.g., starving vs. well-fed), here consider all potential fuel sources for each organ.A) Brain: B) Heart: C) Liver:
Answer:
Explanation:
brain-
Glucose is the major fuel for the brain metabolism to supply energy for synaptic transmissions. Average of -120g/day.However during hypoglacemia, keto bodies can be used by the brain for energy supply.
the fuel stores of the brain is very low because of high biochemical activities of the brain which need to be supplied with contant fuel.Although it stores little Glycogen, most fuel supply to the brain is from the circulating glucose in the blood.
Heart.
the high energy consuming activities of the heart ensured that molecules with abundant energy supply e.g fatty acids from lipids digestion is preferred. Keto bodies, acetoacetate and lactate can also be fuel . Glucose is last on the scale of preference for the heart as fuel.
It does not reserve or export any fuel.
Liver.
the complex metabolic and multi functional activities of the liver required constant supply of energy in all available forms. Thus glucose, Amino acids and fatty acids are sources of fuel for the liver.
The liver fuel reserve is in the form of glycogen which is stimulated by glucagon to convert to glucose during condition of hypoglycemia. Triacylglycerols is another fuel reserve.
Generally as products of metabolic activities in the liver, fatty acid from lipid metabolisms, Glucose from gluconeogenesis, and glycogensis, and ketone bodies are the export sources.
You are performing developmental studies during which you extract mesophyll cells from an unusual-looking leaf. In laboratory culture, individual mesophyll cells from this leaf can be induced to regenerate entire plants. How would these cells be classified
Answer:
meristematic cells
Explanation:
The cells will be classified as meristematic cells.
Meristematic cells are undifferentiated cells that are capable of actively dividing and differentiating to give rise rise various tissues/organs of a plant.
Generally in plants, meristematic cells are of three types:
Those that are capable of dividing and differentiating to give rise to above ground or below ground tissues/organs such as roots, leaves and flowers, also known as apical meristems.Those that allow rapid stem elongation and repair, especially in monocots, also known as intercalary meristems.Those that give rise to various parts of a flower, also known as flora meristems.The cells in this case are capable of dividing and differentiating to give rise to the various organs of a complete plant. Hence, they are considered as meristematic cells.
Which of the following best explains the publics shift to support local farming
Answer:
The public is upset with corporate farming’s unhealthy and underhanded business practices.
Explanation:
Which of the following is most likely to create genetic variation in a population?
a
RNA polymerase errors during transcription
b
Helicase failure to unwind DNA during replication
c
DNA polymerase errors during replication
d
Misincorporation of amnio acids by tRNA during translation
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Genetic variation can be created by random mating, random fertilization, and recombination between homologous chromosomes during meiosis. I think b and c can be ruled out because they are relatively unlikely in themselves. D seems to be most likely due to RNA splicing and other methods that occur to avoid those errors.
True- breeding plants ______. cannot be cross-fertilized produce sterile offspring when cross-fertilized self-fertilize to produce offspring identical to the parent become sterile after three generations self-fertilize to produce hybrid offspring
Answer:
Self-fertilize to produce offspring identical to the parent
Explanation:
True-breeding plants are the breeding plants which are homozygous for the trait that is they are homozygous for the dominant trait and for the recessive trait.
This can be confirmed by making a cross between them in which they are self-fertilized. This self-fertilization produces the offsprings identical to the parents with the same phenotype.
For example:
Green pod (dominant trait)- GG
yellow pod (recessive trait)- gg
cross - GG X gg
g g
G Gg Gg
G Gg Gg
All the offsprings are of green color as all have the Gg genotype in which the dominant allele is G and the recessive
What is humidity?
a. A measure of how warm it is outside
b. A measure of how much water vapor there is in the air
c. A measure of how many clouds there are in the area
d. A measure of how much rain there is in the upper atmosphere
Answer:
A measure of how much water vapor there is in the air.
Explanation:
Dampness, especially that of the air.
The amount of water vapour in the air.
Hope it will help you :))
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The electrical impulse that stimulates neurotransmitter release, thereby transmitting information to other neurons, arise in the:
a. dendrites
b.axon hillock
c. axon
d. dendritic spine
Answer: b. axon hillock.
Explanation:
Neurotransmitter are the chemical substance which acts as a signal for neurotransmission. At a region called the axon hillock the axon emerges from the soma. At axon hillock, nerve impulses are produced by the plasma membrane; the axon pushes these impulses away from the soma, or dendrites towards other neurons.
All the synaptic inputs are summed up at the axon hillock which further stimulates neurotransmitter release. Axon hillock is called as the trigger zone.
Hence, the correct option is b. axon hillock.
A random-digit dialed survey conducted in the city of long beach, california reported that a greater proportion of nonsmokers endorsed a ban on smoking in alcohol-serving establishments than did smokers. What type of study design was this?
Answer:
The correct answer is case-control study.
Explanation:
In a case-control study, two groups of the population are used, in which one group is kept as control, and the other is known as the experimental group that encounters with a specific disease or an outcome. With the help of this study, one can expose the groups to various or single outcomes.
In the given case, a study is done in which an advertisement on a ban on smoking is encouraged by the non-smokers at the alcohol sale points but not by smokers, in the process a random digit dialing method was used. This random digit dialing method is an illustration of a case-control study, in which the survey of the individuals is done regarding the ban on smoking.
A study conducted via a random-digit dialed survey in Long Beach, California, assessing attitudes toward smoking bans among smokers and nonsmokers, exemplifies a cross-sectional study design.
The study described in the city of Long Beach, California, where a random-digit dialed survey reported that a greater proportion of nonsmokers endorsed a ban on smoking in alcohol-serving establishments compared to smokers, is an example of a cross-sectional study.
This type of study design involves analyzing data collected from a population, or a representative subset, at a specific point in time. In this case, the survey aimed to assess attitudes toward smoking bans among different groups within the population at a single point in time, without following up with participants over time. Cross-sectional studies are particularly useful for assessing the prevalence of behaviors or opinions in a population.
Here are some biology questions pls help ASAP. 15Pts question
Sickle cell anemia is a disease where red blood cells become thin and elongated. If a person has one copy of the sickle cell allele, half of their red blood cells will be misshapen. In this way, the allele is codominant, since both normal and sickled shapes are seen in the blood.
If two parents present the heterozygous phenotype for sickle cell have an offspring, what is the probability of their child having sickle cell?
A. Their offspring will have a 0% chance of having sickle cell.
B. Their offspring will have a 25% of having the homozygous dominant genotype, resulting in sickle cell.
C. Their offspring will have a 75% chance of having sickle cell.
D. Their offspring will have a 25% chance of having the heterozygous genotype, resulting in sickle cell.
One parent is heterozygous for the sickle cell trait, and the other is homozygous recessive. What is the probability of each offspring displaying each genotype - expressed as a ratio?
A. 1 homozygous recessive : 0 homozygous dominant: 1 heterozygous
B. 3 homozygous recessive : 1 homozygous dominant: 0 heterozygous
C. 1 homozygous recessive : 1 homozygous dominant: 2 heterozygous
D. 0 homozygous recessive : 1 homozygous dominant: 1 heterozygous
3. In some cattle the genes for brown hair and for white hair are codominant. Cattle with alleles for both brown and white hair, have both brown and white hairs. This condition gives the cattle a reddish color, and is referred to as Roan. What is the probability, expressed as a fraction, of a red cow and a roan bull having a roan offspring?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 4/4
4. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB) and white individuals (bb) are homozygous. A homozygous black bird is crossed with a homozygous white bird. The offspring are all bluish-gray. What is the probability of each phenotype, expressed as a ratio, of two heterozygous individuals?
B
b
B
BB
Bb
b
Bb
bb
A. 1 black : 1 white : 2 bluish-gray
B. 3 black : 1 white : 0 bluish-gray
C. 3 black : 0 white : 1 bluish-gray
D. 2 black : 1 white : 1 bluish-gray
5. In snapdragon flowers the color of the flower is determined by an incompletely dominant gene. If you cross a purebred white snapdragon with a pink snapdragon, what is the likelihood, expressed as a fraction, of an offspring with the heterozygous genotype?
A.1/4
B. 1/2
C. 0/4
D. 3/4
6. A genus of shrimp Neocaridina can be any color from mottled brown to red. The color of the shrimp is determined by the genes at three loci A,B, and C, each loci has two alleles A or a; B or b; and C or c. The color of the shrimp is determined by the total number of dominant genes, the more dominant genes the darker the shrimp. What genotype below would display the darkest phenotype?
A. AAbbCC
B. AaBbCc
C. aaBBCC
D. AABbCC
7. Skin color for a species of lizards is polygenic with individuals with a fully recessive genotype being green and those with a fully dominant genotype being brown. In an environment the selective pressures favor individuals with a green phenotype, which genotype below would be best fit to the given environment?
A. RRssTT
B. rrSSTt
C. rrSstt
D. RRSSTT
Answer:
1. B - Aa x Aa = 25% chance AA, which is the only genotype that results in sickle-cell. Aa is called "sickle-cell trait'; it isn't the full disease.
2. A - Aa x aa = we know will produce no homozygous dominant
3. B - RR x Rr = 1/2 chance of Rr (same problem as #5)
4. A - Bb x Bb = 1:2:1 ratio
5. B - WW x Ww = 1/2 chance of Ww
6. D - AABbCC has 5 dominant alleles, which is the most out of the four options
7. C - the one with the fewest dominant alleles will be the most green and the most successful in the environment
the genotype of an offspring defines the physical characteristics or ___
Answer:
Phenotype
Explanation:
I just took the test
Answer:
✨Phenotype ✨
Explanation:
hope y'all have a fantastic day
If a brown hair allele is represented with a B, and blonde hair is represented with a b
Answer:
B. Brown Hair is dominant.
Explanation:
The dominant allele is represented with a capital letter, and a recessive allele is represented with a lower case letter.
Therefore, In this example brown hair is dominant. :)
Answer:
B; brown hair is dominant.
Explanation:
Alleles that are portrayed with uppercase letters are known to be dominant alleles. Brown hair is a darker color found commonly and is dominant over the blonde color which is overall lighter thus recessive.
So your answer would be B; Brown hair is dominant
Hope this helps!
Replication of the lagging strand of dna is accomplished by repeatedly making __________ followed by 1
Answer:
The correct answer is "short RNA primers; Okazaki fragments".
Explanation:
The missing information of this question is as follows:
"Replication of the lagging strand of dna is accomplished by repeatedly making __________ followed by 1,000-2,000 nucleotide segments called __________"
The correct answer is "short RNA primers; Okazaki fragments".
DNA replication always occurs from 5' to the 3' end, in what is known as the directionality or the end-to-end chemical orientation in molecular biology. This fact makes difficult the synthesis of the lagging strand of DNA. In order to achieve this short RNA primers are bound to segments of DNA (serving as the 5' end available for the DNA polymerase to synthesize), which leads to the discontinuous synthesis of Okazaki fragments that are later linked together by the enzyme DNA ligase.
Despite his young age, Ruben was recently diagnosed with hypertension. He knows that reducing dietary sodium and increasing dietary potassium can both help to lower his blood pressure. Of the following foods, which one contains the most potassium per servinga.Breadb.Bananac.peanutsd.potatoes
Answer:
Potato
Explanation:
Hypertension is a condition developed due to the continuous high or elevated blood pressure in the arteries in the body. The main cause of hypertension is the contraction of the arteries and the consumption of food with a high level of sodium and low level of potassium.
It is suggested that people with hypertension should consume a diet rich in potassium but with a low amount of sodium. The good source of food with a high level of potassium is baked potato which provides carbohydrates also, salmon, and the banana.
Since the amount of potassium is high in the baked potato, therefore, is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Potatoes have the highest potassium content per serving among the listed foods and should be included in Ruben's diet to help manage his hypertension. It's also crucial to reduce dietary sodium to improve heart health.
Explanation:
Among the foods listed, potatoes contain the most potassium per serving. Potassium is an essential nutrient that plays a key role in maintaining proper heart function and regulating blood pressure. Ruben can benefit from eating potassium-rich foods, such as bananas, leafy greens, lima beans, and avocados, to help control his hypertension. It's also important to note that reducing dietary sodium intake and choosing foods lower in sodium can contribute to better blood pressure management.
Total recommended dietary potassium intake is 4700 mg/day. To improve the sodium and potassium balance in the diet, it's advised to avoid processed foods high in sodium and increase intake of fresh fruits and vegetables, which are generally high in potassium and other beneficial nutrients.
Which autonomic system is most likely to be dominant while someone is experiencing stress about an upcoming job interview?
Options for the question have not been given. They are as follows:
a) the peripheral nervous system
b) the sympathetic nervous system
c) the somatic nervous system
d) the parasympathetic nervous system
Answer:
b) the sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:
Autonomic nervous system supplies internal organs like heart, stomach, lungs etc. and involuntary muscles. It is further divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. Sympathetic nervous system is activated during stressful or threatening situation. It is responsible for fight or flight response. Heart rate and blood pressure is increased, blood flow to stomach and intestine is reduced, pupils are dilated and sweating is increased. Hence during a stressful situation like an upcoming job interview sympathetic nervous system is dominant.Answer:
b
Explanation:
Why do you think that concerns about the environment did not emerge in marine science until the late twentieth century?
Answer:
One possible reason why concerns about the environment did not emerge in marine science until the late twentieth century is that the study of marine science was initially focused on understanding the ocean's physical and biological processes, rather than its environmental impact. Another reason could be that the environmental issues and concerns related to the ocean were not as visible or apparent as they are today, and it was only after the negative effects of human activities on the ocean became more evident that marine scientists began to focus on environmental issues.
Explanation:
What leads to the degradation of the contents of late endosomes by lysosomal enzymes?
Answer:
It forms with fragments of the "early endosomes" or migration endosomes, near the Golgi apparatus, it has a more central location within the cell and a slightly more acidic pH than the "early endosome". The latter will allow it to facilitate the function of the hydrolytic enzymes it receives from the Golgi apparatus, thus finally forming the lysosomes, organelles specialized in degradation.
In transport through "transcytosis", the endocited material is transported in endosomes from one end of the cell to the other, being released by the process called exocytosis.
Explanation:
Endosomes are not considered cellular organelles by many authors, but compartments within the cytoplasm that function as transporters of material in animal and fungal cells delimited by a simple clathrin membrane, mediated by a receptor in the extracellular domain at the starting site invagination; but recent literature does classify them as structures with sufficient characteristics to be considered organelles. They are defined as membranous organelles and most of the material they transport is transferred to lysosomes for degradation.
Handedness:a.reflects the greater capacity of one side of the brain to carry out skilled motor action. b.is evident in a wide range of skills from birth. c.is a heritable trait, especially for left-handed people. d.is strongest for simple, rather than complex, skills.
Answer: a.
Explanation:
The proficiency to be more professional and confident using one hand instead of the other for activities such as writing and throwing a pitch is called handedness.
Handedness begins to develop before birth. Handedness is inheritable and evident from early childhood. handedness is related to variations between the brain's right and left halves (hemispheres). The the left hemisphere regulates the action of right side of the body while right hemisphere controls movement on the left side of the body.
So in handedness, one half of the brain regulates more skilled motor action.
Hence, teh correct option is a.
A 6-month-old vaccinated infant arrives in the ED with a 12-hour history of poor feeding, emesis, and irritability. On exam, she is ill-appearing with T 39.2 C, P 160 bpm, R 40 bpm, BP 80/50 mmHg. CBC shows WBC 11.2, Hgb 13.5, Plt 250. Urinalysis shows > 100 WBC per hpf, positive leukocyte esterase, and positive nitrites. She has no history of prior urinary tract infection. Chest x-ray is negative. Urine and blood cultures are pending. After bringing her fever down, she is still uninterested in drinking, but her exam improved, and you are confident she does not have meningitis, so an LP is not performed.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Oral ampicillin
B. Oral ampicillin + gentamicin
C. Intravenous ciprofloxacin
D. Intravenous ceftriaxone
E. Intravenous piperacillin + tazobactam
Answer:
D. Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation:
Intravenous ceftriaxone
This patient's presentation is suggestive of a UTI. Given the ill appearance, vital signs, and white count, Upper tract disease (pyelonephritis) should be strongly considered. A parenteral (IV/IM) third-generation cephalosporin is the best choice of those listed for pyelonephritis, given its excellent gram negative coverage (except for Pseudomonas).
Answer: INTRAVENOUS CEFTRIAXONE
Explanation: To understand the question very well,let's critically look at the age of the infant and the presenting signs and symptoms.
The infant has a history of poor feeding,emesis(vomitting) and also there is history of irritability.there is also fever.when you look at all these,it is closely related to the signs and symptoms presented by infants with UTI ( urinary tract infection) but when you consider the vital signs of the infant (Temperature: 39.2°c, Respiratory: 40bpm,and Blood pressure: 80/50mmHg), the white blood cell count and the I'll looking appearance of the infant,
Upper tract disease that is (pyelonephritis) should be considered more because the signs and symptoms indicative of pyelonephritis are more strong than that of UTI.
Looking at the age of the infant and the severity of the presenting signs and symptoms, parenteral drug administration(intravenous/intramuscular) will act faster and will be easily absorbed and as well as easily accepted by the infant than enteral adminstration.
Looking at the options listed in the question,ceftriaxone is a third generation cephalosporin (a class of antibiotics used to treat varieties of bacteria infections) and it is so far the best drug in the treatment of pyelonephritis and also the best from the options given in the question,it's effectiveness is seen in the fact that it's gram negative coverage is excellent except in the case of pseudomonads where there is no encouraging gram negative coverage.
Imagine meiosis in a diploid organism that only has a single chromosome. Like most diploid organisms, it received one copy of this chromosome from each of its parents and the two homologs are genetically distinct.
If only a single homologous recombination event occurs during meiosis, which of the following choices below correctly describes the four gametes formed?
A) All four of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell.
B) Three of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell, while one of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different.
C) None of the gametes will contain chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell.
D) Two of the gametes will have chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell, while two of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different.
Answer:
two of the gametes will Java chromosomes identical to the chromosomes found in the original diploid cell,while two of the gametes will have chromosomes that are different
A nucleotide-sugar coenzyme involved in carbohydrate metabolism (UDP-glucose) is formed when UTP reacts with a glucose molecule. More UTP is made available for additional reactions by the transfer of a phosphate group from:________.
a. ATP.
b. UDP.
c. ADP.
d. UTP.
e. Another carbohydrate.
Answer:
b. UDP
Explanation:
Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDP) is a nucleotide sugar involved in galactose metabolism. In this reaction, the galactose 1-phosphate uridylyltransferase (GALT) enzyme transfers a phosphate group from UDP-glucose to galactose 1-phosphate in order to convert galactose into glucose
A portal system Multiple Choice includes a functional end artery that makes an arterial anastomosis. is one in which circulation to a large organ involves only one artery and one main (portal) vein. is one in which multiple arteries converge on one organ or body region. is a simple circulatory system with an areriovenous anastomosis. is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.
Answer:
is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.
Explanation:
A portal system can be defined as a system of blood vessels having a capillary network at each end, meaning that the blood vessel starts and ends in capillaries, before finding its way back to the heart. The blood draining through the capillary bed flows via the larger vessel to supply the blood to the another structure's capillary bed.
When skin cells have third-degree burns, skin grafts are used. What is the benefit to using skin grafts?
They provide a permanent layer of skin for the burned area.
They protect the burn from infection.
They provide a shorter healing time for the burned area.
Answer:
The answer is B. They protect the burn from infection.
Hope this helps (:
Skin grafts are beneficial in treating third-degree burns by providing a permanent skin layer, protecting the burn from infections, and shortening the healing time. Option 1, 2 and 3.
Explanation:The benefit of using skin grafts in treating third-degree burns is manifold. Firstly, skin grafts provide a permanent layer of skin for the burned area, which helps restore the skin's natural barrier function. Secondly, they protect the burn from infection, since burnt skin is highly prone to infections that can lead to severe complications. Thirdly, they contribute to a shorter healing time for the treated area. Timely application of skin grafts can reduce the likelihood of prolonged wound healing, which in turn can minimize scarring and improve functional and cosmetic outcomes.
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Nonvascular plants do not have vascular tissue, while seedless vascular plants do. As a result, seedless vascular plants differ in which ways? Check all that apply.
Seedless vascular plants grow larger than nonvascular plants.
Seedless vascular plants grow smaller than nonvascular plants.
Seedless vascular plants grow closer to water sources than nonvascular plants.
Seedless vascular plants grow farther from water sources than nonvascular plants.
Seedless vascular plants have true roots, stems, and leaves.
Seedless vascular plants do not have true roots, stems, and leaves.
Vascular plants with no seeds vary from nonvascular plants in a number of ways. First off, since they have specialised tissue called xylem and phloem that aids in moving water and nutrients throughout the whole plant body, seedless vascular plants grow bigger than nonvascular plants.
Second, nonvascular plants lack genuine roots, stems, and leaves, whereas seedless vascular plants have. Finally, since they have more effective water and nutrient delivery systems than nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants can grow farther from water sources.
Therefore, the correct response to the question is that seedless vascular plants have genuine roots, stems, and leaves, grow bigger than nonvascular plants, and spread out further from water sources than nonvascular plants.
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Answer:
1,4 and 5
Explanation:
In treating alcoholism, one can condition the response of nausea and queasiness of the stomach to the sight, smell and taste of alcohol. This technique, designed to replace a positive emotional response to a certain stimuli with a negative one, is called____.
Answer:
aversive counterconditioning
Explanation:
Aversive counterconditioning is a technique used as a therapy usually to break addictions in people. Aversive counterconditioning involves changing how we respond to a stimulus by using an unpleasant stimulus to reduce the likelihood or frequency of an undesirable behavior of being exhibited.
For example, as seen in the question given above, aversive counterconditioning is used to reduce the behavior of alcoholism, as positive emotional response to alcohol, which makes it pleasurable, is replaced with a negative one such as the response of nausea and queasiness of the stomach to the sight, smell and taste of alcohol. This would discourage the individual from taking alcohol, or reduce the tendency to take alcohol.
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Which should a scientist conclude about data that are inconsistent with the current, new scientific understanding of amphibian reproduction?
a) A new idea or theory should be devised to fit new data.
b) Inconsistencies in the data warrant further investigation.
c) The data are flawed and should be discarded or ignored.
d) The data reflect the flaws in the current scientific ideas.
Answer:
Inconsistencies in the data warrant further investigation
Explanation:
When you find something new and exciting in your field of study you should always investigate further to see if certain circumstances in the situation led to your findings. If you discover that all of the female amphibians in a pond lay a few days later in the spring and normally this wouldn't happen you should always see if another pond of amphibians lay around the normal time. The water temperature could affect the laying time, the predators that are around could affect laying time, the animals comfort and even that could just be when it happens for them. But double and triple checking is always ideal, so that you are able to publish and share accurate information to help other scientists see and experience what is actually happening.
Describe how the structure of a prokaryotic chromosome differs from the structure of a eukaryotic chromosome.
Explanation:
The structure of prokaryotic chromosome differs from the structure of eukaryotic chromosome by following ways:
A prokaryotic chromosome is shorter than the eukaryotic chromosome.In prokaryotes, the circular chromosome is held in the cytoplasm in a region called nucleoid whereas in eukaryotes chromosomes are stored within a structure called the nucleus.Prokaryotic chromosome comprises only a single origin of replication whereas the eukaryotic chromosome carries multiple origins of replication.Prokaryotic chromosome consists of covalently closed (loop) circular DNA whereas the eukaryotic chromosome consists of linear DNA not circular.Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and free in the cell cytoplasm, usually consisting of a singular chromosome. Alternatively, eukaryotic chromosomes are linear, located in the cell nucleus, and are organized into chromatin by proteins called histones.
Explanation:The main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes lies in their structure and location within the cell. Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular and found free in the cell cytoplasm, they are not enclosed by a nuclear membrane and usually consist of a singular chromosome. On the other hand, eukaryotic chromosomes are located within the cell's nucleus, and are linear in structure. These cells contain more than one chromosome, which are organized and packaged in proteins called histones forming a structure called chromatin.
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What is phosphorus ?
Answer:
A chemical element with the symbol P and atomic number 15.
Explanation:
Phosphorus is a chemical element with the symbol P and atomic number 15. Elemental phosphorus exists in two major forms, white phosphorus and red phosphorus, but because it is highly reactive, phosphorus is never found as a free element on Earth.
What is not a similarity between the male and female reproductive systems?
A subpopulation of plant, isolated from the main population, is found to obey the function below, describing the number of individuals (in thousands). N( ) = 8e4 ???? 2 + 5 7 + 2e4 What is the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants? Justify your claim with the appropriate mathematics.
Here is the correct format of the equation in the question.
A subpopulation of plant, isolated from the main population, is found to obey the function below, describing the number of individuals (in thousands).
[tex]N_{(T)} = \frac{8e^{4T}-2T+5}{7+2e^{4T}}[/tex]
What is the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants? Justify your claim with the appropriate mathematics.
Answer:
the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants = 4
Explanation:
Given that:
[tex]N_{(T)} = \frac{8e^{4T}-2T+5}{7+2e^{4T}}[/tex]
Taking the limit of N(T) ; we have ,[tex]\lim_{T \to \infty} N(T)[/tex]
[tex]N(T) = \frac{8-\frac{2T}{e^{4T}}+\frac{5}{e^{4T}}}{2+ \frac{7}{e^{4t}}}[/tex]
where T is less than [tex]e^{4T}[/tex] ; which is written as :
[tex]T< e^{4T}[/tex]
∴ [tex]\lim_{T \to \infty} N(T )= \frac{8-2 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} +5 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4T}} }{2+7 \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} }[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{8}{2}[ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} =0 ; \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} }=0][/tex]
where; [tex][ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{T}{e^{4T}} =0 \ \ \ and \ \ \lim_{T \to \infty} \frac{1}{e^{4t}} } = 0][/tex]
Then, [tex]= \frac{8}{2}[/tex]
= 4
Thus, the ultimate fate of this subpopulation of plants = 4
A gene for corn has two alleles, one for yellow kernels and one for white kernels. Cross pollination of yellow corn and white corn results in ears of corn that have an approximately even mix of yellow and white kernels. Which term best describes the relationship between the two alleles?
A. Genetic recombination
B. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Chimerism
Answer:
B. Codominance
Explanation: