Prions are proteins that are folded incorrectly.
Which statement is accurate? a. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure. b. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure. c. Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure. d. Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.
The separation of the solid particle from the liquid is called filtration. Filtration required filter paper.
The correct answer is a.
In humans, the fluid is transported through the vessels from one organ to another, The fluid makes the pressure on the vessels known as fluid pressure.
When blood goes through the artery, the pressure of fluid rises due to the thick wall of vessels, and the more amount of blood.
Therefore, the osmotic pressure help to transport the blood and exchange of gases.
The flow of fluid from high pressure to low pressure is called osmotic pressure.
Hence the option A is correct that is Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed- and is driven by osmotic pressure.
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Final answer:
Filtration is dominant at the arterial end of a capillary bed due to hydrostatic pressure, and reabsorption occurs at the venous end due to osmotic pressure.
Explanation:
The accurate statement regarding capillary exchange is b. Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure. This process is a result of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP), which overcomes the blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP) at the arterial end, causing filtration of fluid out of the capillaries. In contrast, at the venous end, reabsorption occurs because the BCOP is greater than the CHP, leading to fluid moving back into the capillaries.
What device is used to measure the rate at which food energy is converted to another form?
Explanation:
hshsusjsksBahwuwbwbwhwjnws
What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? A. The cell copies its organelles B. The cell makes daughter cells. C. The cell doubles in size. D. The cell copies its DNA
The S phase of the cell cycle is when the cell duplicates its DNA, resulting in chromosomes with sister chromatids that are essential for ensuring each daughter cell has a complete set of genetic material.
During the S phase of the cell cycle, the cell copies its DNA. This is crucial to ensure that when the cell divides, each daughter cell receives an identical set of genetic instructions. The replicated DNA results in chromosomes that consist of two identical sister chromatids, joined at the centromere. As the cell progresses into mitosis, these sister chromatids will be evenly distributed to the two new cells, maintaining the diploid chromosome number of the parent cell. This DNA replication is essential for growth, development, and maintenance of the organism.
All of the following are functions of bones except Select one: a. to protect certain internal organs. b. to provide a source for red and white blood cells. c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature. d. to store inorganic salts.
Answer:
c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.
Explanation:
Bones are the part of the skeletal system of the body and serve to protect internal organs, serve as the site for the production of RBCs and WBCs as well as store the inorganic salts. Bones do not serve as a site to set the permissible range of blood pressure and body temperature. This function is served by parts of the central nervous system.
For example, hypothalamus set the body temperature according to the physical conditions. It signals to raise the body temperature during fever.
Final answer:
The skeletal system does not serve to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature, this is a function of other bodily systems; hence, the correct answer to the student's question is option c.
Explanation:
The question asks to identify the function that is not a role of the bones. The facts given are that the functions of bones include providing support to the body, protecting internal organs, producing blood cells, and storing inorganic salts such as calcium and phosphate. Considering the options given, the correct answer is c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature. This is not a function of the bones but rather other systems like the cardiovascular and thermoregulatory systems.
Functions of the Skeletal System:
Support: The bones provide a structural frame to support the body.Protection: Bones protect vital organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs.Movement: Bones, in conjunction with muscles, enable movement.Production of blood cells: Bones contain marrow which produces red and white blood cells.Storage of minerals and fat: Bones store essential minerals and fats within their structure.The option that represents a function of bones not listed is c. to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature.Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation? A. tunica externa B. basement membrane C. tunica media D. tunica intima 4 points
Answer:
C) tunica media
Explanation:
The middle tunic of an artery is an intermediate layer consisting of elastic fibers, collagen and smooth muscle tissue. It also features an internal limiting elastic membrane separating it from the next layer. The medium tunic is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation.
The elasticity of the arteries allows the blood flow inside to remain constant. The loss of elasticity of the middle tunic causes its wall to sag and dilate, causing the aneurysm. This can cause the artery to rupture and lead to fatal bleeding.
Which of these types of blood cell is a lymphocyte?
A T cell
B. Macrophage
C. Neutrophil
D. Platelet
Answer:
answer is option a . t cell
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
What is a lymphocyte? A type of white cell (defensive cell).
What is a T cell? A lymphocyte cell from the immune system.
What is a Macrophage? A phagocyte from the immune system.
What is a Neutrophil? A granulocyte from the immune system.
What is a Platelet? Thrombocyte form the immune system.
What makes a white cell a white cell?
Well, some characteristics of a white cell are that they are produced in the bone marrow, that they have a nuclei, and that they fight invaders and prevent infections.
Hope it helped,
BiologiaMagister
How can dominant-lethal alleles be passed down? (Choose the BEST answer!) a. They can’t, as they are lethal.b. They can be passed down if the individual with the lethal mutation lives to reproductive age and has a child. c. Dominant-lethal alleles occur solely through spontaneous mutations, they are not passed down through generations.d. They can be passed down if the individual freezes their eggs or sperm to allow a child to be born with their genetics, even after they pass.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Dominant lethal alleles can be passed down if the individual can live to a reproductive age. The individual can then have children and can possibly pass down the lethal allele
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. B. The tertiary structure of the protein C. The secondary structure of the protein D. The primary structure of the protein E. The quaternary structure of the protein
Answer:
The correct option is D, THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE OF THE PROTEIN.
Explanation:
Proteins generally have four different types of structures, which are primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures. The primary structure of a protein refers to the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The sequence of amino acid in a protein is determined by the sequence of nucleotide in the DNA that encode the protein. Thus, if one knows the sequence of the nucleotide within a gene, one can easily determine the primary structure of the protein.
Knowing the sequence of nucleotides within a gene allows you to most accurately determine the primary structure of the protein, which is the specific sequence of amino acids that form the protein.
Explanation:The most accurate determination you could make from knowing the sequence of nucleotides within a gene is D. The primary structure of the protein. The primary structure of a protein is simply the sequence of amino acids forming a polypeptide chain, which is encoded by the gene. This sequential information of nucleotides can be translated into the specific sequence of amino acids forming the protein.
Further elaborations such as the secondary structure of protein involving the formation of alpha-helices or beta-pleated sheets, and the tertiary structure which pertains to the overall three-dimensional structure of the protein involve further folding and bonding which is influenced by several other factors beyond the nucleotide sequences of the gene. The quaternary structure involves interactions between two or more tertiary subunits.
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For some genes, the DNA methylation pattern in sperm differs from that in eggs. The transcription of the gene that is methylated in eggs would be _______, whereas that of its unmethylated counterpart in sperm would be _______. This phenomenon is called “_______.”
Answer:
For some genes, the DNA methylation pattern in sperm differs from that in eggs. The transcription of the gene that is methylated in eggs would be low, whereas that of its unmethylated counterpart in sperm would be high. This phenomenon is called “ genomic imprinting.”
Explanation:
Genomic Imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon that makes genes express in a parent-of-origin manner.
Natural resources: are still the most important factor in determining the productivity of human or physical capital for all countries. B) are the only factor which consistently shows a positive impact on productivity for wealthy countries. C) are a less significant source of productivity growth in most countries today than in earlier times. D) can be used to explain the differences in productivity growth among countries.
Answer:
C) are a less significant source of productivity growth in most countries today than in earlier times.
Explanation:
There are basically two types of resources employed in the production of goods and manufactures: inputs, sourced from natural resources, and labor - derived from human labor.
Companies determine the amount between capital and labor that can produce a good at a lower cost.
Given that the inputs are mostly finite, the development of technologies that make it possible to increase labor productivity and rationalize the consumption of inputs in the production process dictates the rate of increase in productivity. For example, if 10 years ago a plastic factory produced 1 ton using 100kg of petroleum compost and today the same factory produces 2 tonnes with the same 100kg, there has been an increase in productivity due to the introduction of new technologies - and not by the use of the input.
1) What three conditions must be present for minerals to form through natural processes?
2) Why are minerals considered inorganic substances?
3) How do oxides differ from other minerals that contain oxygen atoms?
4) How is a sulfide different from a sulfate?
What makes native elements unique?
1- What three conditions must be present for minerals to form through natural processes?
The formation of minerals is not an accidental process that takes place inside the earth but it depends on several physical and chemical conditions to form. One of the most important conditions necessary for the formation of minerals is the presence of right elements in appropriately required amount.
The second will be the chemical and physical condition such as the pH of the soil or environment, temperature and pressure. The third most important condition is the availability of enough time in which the elements can come into an order for the formation of minerals which otherwise can lead the formation of improperly sized sub constituents of minerals.
2) Why are minerals considered inorganic substances?
Generally, we define organic compounds as those containing carbon atoms and mostly derived from living things. If we talk about minerals, they are mostly derived from nonliving things such as earth crust or layers below its surfaces. They are not derived from animals and plants and therefore they are considered to be inorganic substances. However, some minerals can be organic in nature for example Urea derived from Urine when it is present in very arid conditions.
3) How do oxides differ from other minerals that contain oxygen atoms?
There is a very sharp difference between minerals continuing oxides as conjugates and minerals containing oxygen in some other conjugated form. In former ones, the oxygen atom is directly attached with some metal element (can be one or more). While in latter ones, oxygen is just simply bonded to some other element like silicon, sulfur or carbon. This combination of metals are then attached to some other minerals. There are many important metals which are found as oxides in nature.
Moreover, mineral oxides are basic in nature while non oxides are acidic in nature. Similarly, metal oxides are ionic in nature while non oxides have covalent bonding. Metal oxides react with acids and form salts while non oxides react with bases to form salts.
4) How is a sulfide different from a sulfate?
There is a sharp difference between a sulfide and sulfate, because in sulfide, sulfur atom accepts two electrons from a reducing agent like some metal. It is strongly basic in nature and the sulfide ion exists in S2- form. When gets in contact with water it gets easily protonated to form HS- or Hydrogen sulfide.
On the other hand, sulfate is a state of sulfur where it is bonded with four oxygen atoms with formula as SO42- . It forms salts with metallic elements like Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) and Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4 ).
5- What makes native elements unique?
Native elements are the minerals which are found in an uncombined form in nature. It means that they are made up of only single kind of element and the same is the thing which makes them unique because other minerals are mostly an amalgam of several kinds of metals or elements. Some examples of native elements include, gold and silver which are composed of single elements respectively.
Answer:1.For minerals to form through natural processes, the correct elements must be present in the right amounts. The physical and chemical conditions, such as temperature, pressure, and pH, must be favorable. In addition, there must be enough time for the atoms to become ordered. Otherwise the mineral grains will remain very small.
2.In most cases, minerals are considered inorganic substances because they’re not derived from or made by living matter, such as plants and animals. There are a few minerals, however, that are produced by living organisms.
3.In oxides, the oxygen atoms bond directly to one or more metals. In other minerals, such as carbonates, sulfates, and silicates, the oxygen atoms are part of molecules in which the oxygen is already bonded to another element, such as carbon, sulfur, or silicon. These molecules then bond to other elements.
4.In sulfides, sulfur atoms bond with one or more metals. In sulfates, the sulfur atoms are part of a molecule that also contains oxygen. The sulfate molecule is what bonds to other elements.
5.Native elements are unique in that they’re composed of atoms of a single element. For example, gold is composed only of gold atoms. Silver is composed only of silver atoms.
Explanation:
Rats that received unpredictable electric shocks in a laboratory experiment subsequently became apprehensive when returned to that same laboratory setting. This best illustrates that anxiety disorders may result from:
Answer:
Classical conditioning
Explanation:
Classical or respondent conditioning is a procedure for learning in which a biologically potent stimulus is combined with a neutral stimulus and in this process, the neutral stimulus is known to exert a response that is similar to the one that is caused by the biologically potent stimulus.
Here, the unpredictable electric shocks classically condition the rats to be apprehensive of the shocks.
Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A. an increase in the neuron-firing thresholdB. An increase in extracellular Na+ concentrationC. a decrease in axon-membrane permeability to negative ionsD. a decrease in the length of the depolarization stage
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Epilepsy can be defined as the medical condition in which the central nervous system disorder in which the brain activity becomes abnormal which results in the abnormal behavior, sensation accompanied by loss of awareness.
In this condition a drug that can best treat epilepsy should reduce the activity of neurons in the epileptic focus which are excitatory neurons based on the effect throughout their cortex.
It does so by increasing the threshold which is required to generate action potential which will decrease the chances that neurons will fire.
This effect will reduce the overall amount of excitation which spreads from epileptic focus throughout the cortex.
hence, the correct answer is option A
For epilepsy treatment, an effective drug would increase the neuron-firing threshold, stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain and preventing seizure occurrences.
Explanation:Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, which are sudden bursts of electrical activity in the brain. These can cause convulsions, unusual behavior, and loss of consciousness.
To treat epilepsy effectively, a drug would need to prevent the spread of erratic electrical signals. One way to do this is by increasing the neuron-firing threshold, thus making it harder for neurons to reach the level of depolarization needed for a seizure to occur.
A drug that increases the neuron-firing threshold in the epileptic focus would be most beneficial. This could be achieved by blocking or interfering with movements of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions in and out of the neuron membrane, thus changing the action potential and reducing excitability. As a result, the drug would help interrupt the propagation of the abnormal electrical potentials that cause seizures.
Which of the following best represents the length of the life cycle of a typical midlatitude cyclone?
A) 1 hour
B) 1 day
C) 1 week
D) 1 month
E) 1 year
Answer:
C- 1 week
Explanation:
A midlatitude cyclone is a cyclone that has a low atmospheric pressure at its centre, and travels in a counter-clockwise direction. There are six stages of the life cycle on a midlatitude cyclone, namely-
The stationary front- this has shear forces in opposite directionsCyclone formation- also called cyclogenesis, this occurs when a cyclonic wave develops and increasesDistinct poleward moving- low pressure is formed at the apex of the cyclone when warm and equatorward moving cold fronts developThe cold front begins to overtake the warm frontThe occluded front- Maximum intensity of the cyclone is reached at this stageThe cyclone begins to dissipate as cold air is forced to the bottom of the cyclone and warm air risesThis entire process takes about a week from start to end.
Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
A) triacylglycerides
B) polysaccharides
C) proteins D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
E) A, B, and C
Explanation:
A chemist would call them condensation reactions, that is, reactions in which two molecules combine by splitting out a molecule of water.
A) Triacylglycerides form by splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates form by splitting out molecules of water from simpler carbohydrates
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
Dehydration reaction where two hydrogen atoms from one molecule combine with an oxygen atom on the other molecule or hydroxyl group from one molecule combine with a hydrogen atom from the other molecule in both cases, water is released as a product.
A) Triacylglycerides -
splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates or polysaccharides: monomers like glucose from polymers.
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins: form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Thus, the Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
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Which accessory eye structure is NOT correctly matched with its function? (A) conjunctiva: protect eye from drying out(B) eyelid: protect the eye (C) tarsal glands: produce tears(D) lacrimal glands: destroy bacteria
Answer:
(C) tarsal glands: produce tears
Explanation:
Tarsal glands are also called as Meibomian glands. These glands do not secrete tears. The tarsal glands sere to produce a fluid which in turn do not allow the eyelids to adhere to each other. Hence, tarsal glands are involved in preventing the eyelids from sticking to each other. Production of tears is the function of lacrimal glands.
The lacrimal glands' primary function is to keep the eye moist, not destroy bacteria, making option (D) the incorrect match between the accessory eye structure and its function.
Explanation:The accessory eye structure that is NOT correctly matched with its function is (D) lacrimal glands: destroy bacteria. While the lacrimal glands do produce tears, their primary function is not to destroy bacteria, but to keep the eye moist. The components and function of the lacrimal apparatus also include the flow of tears over the conjunctiva to wash away foreign particles.
On the other hand, the tarsal glands, mentioned in option (C), are located within the eyelids and secrete an oily substance that prevents the eyelids from sticking together, rather than producing tears. This oily substance also contributes to forming a barrier against foreign materials and helps with tear film stability.
Therefore, option (C) is incorrect in stating that the tarsal glands produce tears.
What do the sides of a punnett square represent?
Answer:
They represent the genotypes of the parent organisms.
Explanation:
As you can see in the picture, the genotype of the mother goes on one side while the genotype of the father goes on the other side. Let's create an example for this Punnett square. The letters represent alleles, which can be either dominant (capital letters such as B) or recessive (lowercase letters such as b).
newly discovered unicellular organism isolated from acidic mine drainage is found to contain ribosomes, a plasma membrane, two flagella, and peroxisomes, among other components. Based just on this information, the organism is most likely _______
Answer:
Newly discovered unicellular organism isolated from acidic mine drainage is found to contain ribosomes, a plasma membrane, two flagella, and peroxisomes, among other components. Based just on this information, the organism is most likely a motile eukatryot
In a research project investigating power relationships in speech, first-semester college freshmen and college seniors were invited to a laboratory in equal numbers. There, they were asked to chat and get to know each other before the real experiment began. The researchers actually analyzed the number of interruptions that people made in the course of a conversation. This is an example of __________ research.
Answer:
laboratory observation
Explanation:
Laboratory observation occurs when researchers gather a group of people to be participants in their tests, so that investigators execute their experiments as similarly as possible to real life but in a controlled environment. Therefore, researchers can regulate the setting and reduce outside influences.
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
(A) pelvic nerves.
(B) cephalic plexus.
(C) lumbar splanchnic nerves.
(D) vagus (X) nerves.
D) vagus (X) nerves. The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the vagus (X) nerves. It is responsible for parasympathetic output to visceral organs, especially the intestines (responsible for gastrointestinal peristalsis). It carries some motor information back to the organs. The solitary nucleus receives primary afferents from visceral organs. We can also say that the smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the tenth cranial nerve.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the function of a metabolic pathway involved in cellular respiration?a. the function of the citric acid cycle is the transfer of electrons from pyruvate to NADH to O2b. the function of the bonding of acetic acid to the carrier molecule CoA to form acetyl CoA is the reduction of glucose to acetyl CoAc. the function of glycolysis is the begin catabolism by breaking glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, with a net yield of two ATP
Answer:
The function of glycolysis is to begin catabolism by breaking glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, with a net yield of two ATP
Explanation:
Glycolysis is the very first step of cellular respiration. It breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate. During glycolysis, 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADH are formed. Pyruvate enters the TCA cycle in the form of acetyl CoA.
The NADH formed in glycolysis and TCA cycle enter oxidative phosphorylation to drive ATP synthesis.
Hence, glycolysis serves to start the process of cellular respiration.
Final answer:
During cellular respiration, pyruvate is transformed into acetyl CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle. In this process, carbon dioxide is removed and high-energy electrons are picked up by NADH for ATP production.
Explanation:
During cellular respiration, pyruvate is transformed into an acetyl group attached to a carrier molecule of coenzyme A, forming acetyl CoA. The acetyl CoA then enters the citric acid cycle for further catabolism. In this process, a molecule of carbon dioxide and two high-energy electrons are removed. The carbon dioxide accounts for two of the six carbons of the original glucose molecule, while the electrons are picked up by NADH and carried to a later pathway for ATP production.
Some drugs modulate the activity of ion channels. For example, Novocain somewhat inhibits the opening of sodium channels. What happens to the threshold of a sensory neuron if this drug is used?
Answer: it will take more stimulation to reach the threshold.
Which of the following statements is true? Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a special pool of ribosomes whose subunits are always associated with the outer ER membrane. Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation. Proteins destined for the ER translocate their associated mRNAs into the ER lumen where they are translated. Proteins destined for the ER are translated by a pool of cytosolic ribosomes that contain ER-targeting sequences that interact with ER-associated protein translocators
Answer: the correct answer is Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation.
Explanation:
ER means Endoplasmic Reticulum and it works as a manufacturing and packaging system.
Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and signaled to the ER when a signal sequence emerges. They undergo modifications in the RER's lumen, then get incorporated into cellular membranes or secreted from the cell.
Explanation:The statement 'Proteins destined for the ER are translated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation' is true. Proteins that are destined for the ER are indeed synthezised by cytosolic ribosomes. A specific sequence called the signal sequence is recognised during the process of translation, which prompts the ribosome to relocate to the ER. There, the ribosomes transfer their newly synthesized proteins into the RER's lumen where they undergo structural modifications such as folding or acquiring side chains.
The modified proteins are then incorporated into cellular membranes, whether of the ER or other organelles, or they can be secreted from the cell. Thus, synthesis of proteins destined for the ER involves a wide range of cellular components including ribosomes, signal sequences, the ER, and various transport vesicles to carry the modified proteins to their final destinations.
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Which statement explains why the recombination frequency between two genes is always less than 50%?A) recombination cannot be more than 50% because chromosome are only 50 map units in lengthB) F1gametes always have 50% of their alleles from each parental gameteC) The genotype of the F1 gametes will always be 50% parental games and 50% recombinant gametesD) genes with a recombination frequency near 50% are unlinked and have an equal likelihood of being inherited together or separately
Answer:
Option (D).
Explanation:
Recombination frequency nay be defined as the the frequency of crossover of a single chromosome during meiosis. The maxiumum recombination frequency is 50%.
Genes that has recombination frequency nearly equal to 50% are considered as unlinked genes. Unlinked genes cannot undergo the recombination process and may have equal chances to inherit together or can inherit separately in the next generation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Final answer:
Recombination frequency is less than 50% when genes are linked, meaning they are located close together on the same chromosome and are inherited together. A frequency near 50% indicates unlinked genes, suggesting they are either very far apart on the same chromosome or on different chromosomes. The correct answer is D).
Explanation:
The question is why the recombination frequency between two genes is always less than 50%. The answer to this lies in the concept of genetic linkage. Recombination frequency indicates how often new allele combinations are formed in offspring relative to the parents and is expressed in percentages or map units, also known as centimorgans.
When genes are located on the same chromosome and are close together, they tend to be inherited together, and crossing over between them is less likely than when they are far apart or on different chromosomes. This results in a recombination frequency of less than 50%, signifying that they are linked genes.
When the recombination frequency reaches around 50%, it suggests that genes are either located very far apart on the same chromosome or on different chromosomes, acting as if they are unlinked. In these cases, offspring have an approximately equal likelihood of inheriting either parental or recombinant allele combinations.
Thus, the statement that explains the phenomenon is D) genes with a recombination frequency near 50% are unlinked and have an equal likelihood of being inherited together or separately.
I found this on my door outside what is it?
White perch is a fish that is native to Atlantic coastal regions and is invasive to the Great Lakes. It feeds on native species and is thought to be the cause of decline of the Great Lakes walleye fish populations
ANSWER
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION:
Here is the full question with the options attached to it:
White perch is a fish that is native to Atlantic coastal regions and is invasive to the Great Lakes. It feeds on native species and is thought to be the cause of the decline of the Great Lakes walleye fish populations. What was most likely its mode of introduction?
A. Produce brought from the eastern states
B. Trapped in a ship's ballast or a water tank
C. Trapped in a cargo crate carrying nonperishable items
D. Luggage brought in an overseas flight.
An invasive specie refers to a living organism that is not native to a particular environment but is brought to that environment either intentionally or accidentally.
Presence of invasive specie is usually detrimental to the overall well being of animals that are native of the concerned environment. Invasive specie can be introduced into an area via different methods. An example of invasive specie is White perch fish. It was brought into the Great Lakes accidentally trapped in ship's ballast or water tank.
Answer: the correct answer is b
Explanation: took the test and got it right
If two organisms possess similar structures that serve similar functions but don't possess a common ancestor that shared that structure, then the structures are classified as
A. vestigial.
B. morphologies.
C. analogous.
D. homologous.
Answer:
C. Analogous
Explanation:
For example, the wings of a fly, a moth, and a bird are analogous because they developed independently as adaptations to a common function—flying.
Answer:
Analogous organ.
Explanation:
Analogous organ may be defined as the organs that have similar structure and function but not share a common function. This type of organ shows convergent evolution.
Analogous organs are opposite to the homologous organ. For example: Wings of bats, insects and birds have similar structure and function but does not have a common ancestor, they are analogous organ.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
The environmental movement does not have tools to intervene with environmentally damaging practices on private property. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
The correct answer is "F" False.
Explanation:
The environmental movement is an international effort towards the conservation and remediation of the environment represented by diverse organizations in the world. The environmental movement started by the awareness of the increasing pollution during Industrial Revolution and it still active in most countries. It is false to affirm that the environmental movement does not have tools to intervene with environmentally damaging practices on private property. The environmental movement has political members that influence the decisions made on private property, including private wildlife sanctuary and companies that must comply the environmental laws.
The environmental movement does not have the tools to intervene with the environmentally damaging practices on private property.Here the given statement is false. So option B is correct.
What is meant by environmental movement?It is a social movement whose aim is to protect the environment from harmful human activities that are damaging the environment and various resources as well.
Due to the increased level of pollution in the enviroment as a result of industrialization, it has become necessary for international organizations to take the necessary steps to reduce the pollution levels so as to protect the resources as well as the life forms that are being affected by these industrial pollutants.
There are several initiatives under the environmental movement. These include natural resource conservation, reducing environmental pollution, and protecting endangered species from becoming extinct.
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During which stage of the cell cycle do two new nuclei form?
I believe the correct answer is Mitosis.
Explanation:The cell cycle has 4 stages with one resting stage. In the Third stage called Mitosis the nucleus is divided into 2 daughter nuclei and the cell starts to undergo cytoplasmic division.
Further Explanation:a) Gap 1 (G1) Phase:It is the first phase of the cell cycle and the cell is undergoing recovery fro its previous cellular division. It starts to double its organelles and accumulates raw materials that will be used for DNA synthesis in the next phase. In this stage also, the DNA is checked for any abnormalities or damages and if any is found, the cell undergoes a programmed cell death called apoptosis. It takes 11 hours to complete.
b) Synthesis (S) Phase:
This is a phase where DNA synthesis/replication occurs. Chromosomes usually enter the S phase with one chromosome but move on to the next phase with 2 identical chromosomes. It takes up to 8 hours.
c) Gap 2 (G2) Phase:
It is the third phase and is between the Mitotic phase and the synthesis phase. The cell synthesizes all the proteins that are required for cell division to occur. The cell is also checked for DNA abnormalities and if any are found, the cell undergoes apoptosis. It takes 4 hours for this process to complete.
d) Mitosis (M) Phase:
It is the last phase of the cell cycle and there it is in this phase that the nucleus divides. It is a lengthy process. Chromatins are condensed and the chromatids are attached at the centromere. The nuclear envelope disintegrates and the nucleolus disappears. Spindle fibers begin to take shape and two centrosomes move away from each other at the center forming microtubules in star-like arrays. Centromere of each chromosome develops 2 kinetochores. Chromosomes are pulled around by kinetochore fibers and forced to align across equatorial plane of cell. Centromere dissolves releasing sister chromatids and the sister chromatids separate. The spindle fibers then disappear and two clusters of daughter chromosomes formed forming daughter nuclei. Nuclear envelopes form around the two incipient daughter nuclei, chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse chromatin again. Finally, the nucleolus reappears in each daughter nucleus.
Also important to note is the G0 phase where the cell undergoes resting and there is totally no activity taking place. Many cancerous cells optimize this phase by avoiding it and going directly to the synthesis stage hence no DNA abnormalities are checked.
Level : High School
The stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form is known as telophase.
What is the cell cycle?The cell cycle may be defined as the sequence of events happening from the end of one nuclear division to the beginning of the next. The complete process of the cell cycle terminates in the following two steps:
Interphase. M-phase (Division phase).Interphase is again classified into three phases. G1 phase, S-phase, and G2 phase. In these phases, the number of chromosomes duplicates is followed by the division phase.
During the termination of mitosis, telophase is the stage where two new nuclei form around the separated sets of daughter chromosomes. During this phase, two sets of daughter chromosomes reached opposite poles and converted into chromatin thread. The Nuclear membrane form round and the nucleolus reappear.
Therefore, telophase is the stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form.
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What is the function of the gametophyte generation of the fern plant?
produces reproductive organs which produce a zygote
produces meiospores which grow into a sporophyte plant
produces a new fern asexually
grows as a diploid fern
Answer:
It would be A :)
Explanation:
Produce reproductive organs which produce a zygote
The function of the gametophyte generation of the fern plant is to produce reproductive organs that produce a zygote that is present in the first option, and the gametophyte produces the zygote.
What is the zygote?The zygote is formed after the fertilization of the sperm and the ovum, and the fertilization is either external or internal. Internal fertilization occurs when sperm fertilizes the ovum in the female reproductive tract, whereas external fertilization occurs when sperm reaches the ovum and fertilizes it to form the zygote via chemoattracts. The gametophyte of the fern makes the male and female parts that make the zygote.
Hence, the function of the gametophyte generation of the fern plant is to produce reproductive organs that produce a zygote that is present in the first option, and the gametophyte produces the zygote.
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