In addition to increasing the risk of injury, binge drinking impairs the body’s ability to heal from those injuries.
“If a person is drunk and gets injured, the person will have more complications when alcohol is present in the body, as opposed to a person who may not have been exposed to alcohol,” said Mashkoor Choudhry, PhD, director of the Alcohol Research Program at Loyola University Chicago Stritch School of Medicine.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart causing high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure. Answer:
Yvette is at greater risk for alcohol related problems because she is binge drinking.
Explanation:
Binge drinking is defined as consuming five or more drinks within about two hours.About 90 percent of the alcohol in your blood is broken down by the liver. For an average person, the liver can only break down about one standard drink per hour. If you drink more alcohol than what your liver can process, your blood alcohol content (BAC) will increase. this will have negative effects on the body.Binge drinking can lead to death from alcohol poisoning. Or by depressing the gag reflex, which puts a person who has passed out at risk of choking on their own vomit.
Binge drinking can also affect your:
1.Heart as it can cause high blood pressure, irregular heartbeat, or sudden death from heart failure.
2.Kidneys beacuse alcohol is a diuretic, which causes the kidneys to produce more urine. This, alone or with vomiting, can lead to dehydration and dangerously low levels of sodium, potassium, and other minerals and salts.
3.Lungs beacause alcohol inhibits the gag reflex, which can lead to vomit, saliva, or other substances entering the lungs. This can cause inflammation or infection in the lungs.
4.Pancreas because it can lead to dangerously low blood sugar (hypoglycemia).
According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, Board Rule 217.11, LVNs have a "directed" scope of practice. Mention an appropriate nursing practice supervisor for the LVN
LVNs have a "directed" scope of practice and their nursing practice supervisor can be an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist.
Explanation:
According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, LVNs (Licensed Vocational Nurses) have a "directed" scope of practice as defined by the Texas Board of Nursing in Rule 217.11. This means that LVNs are under the supervision and direction of a registered nurse (RN), advanced practice registered nurse (APRN), physician, dentist, or podiatrist.
An appropriate nursing practice supervisor for the LVN would be an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist who oversees and guides the LVN's work. They provide guidance, and support, and ensure that the LVN is practicing within their defined scope of practice and following the Standards of Nursing Practice.
In summary, the appropriate nursing practice supervisor for an LVN depends on the healthcare setting and the specific situation, but it is generally an RN, APRN, physician, dentist, or podiatrist who supervises and directs the LVN's work.
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According to the Standards of Nursing Practice, Board Rule 217.11, Licensed Vocational Nurses (LVNs) have a 'directed' scope of practice.
LVNs must practice under the supervision of a healthcare professional with a more advanced scope of practice. Appropriate nursing practice supervisors for LVNs include the following:
Registered Nurse (RN): RNs have a broader and more advanced scope of practice compared to LVNs and can provide the necessary supervision.
Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN): This includes Nurse Practitioners (NPs), Clinical Nurse Specialists (CNS), Nurse Anesthetists (CRNA), and Nurse Midwives (CNM), all of whom have specialized training and can supervise LVNs.
Physician (MD or DO): Medical Doctors (MDs) or Doctors of Osteopathic Medicine (DOs) are qualified to oversee the practice of LVNs, ensuring that patient care aligns with medical standards.
Physician Assistant (PA): PAs can also supervise LVNs as they work under the supervision of physicians and have extensive medical training.
The supervision provided by these professionals ensures that LVNs perform their duties safely and in accordance with established medical protocols and ethical standards.
Cheri doesn't remember that she got sick after eating oatmeal on several occasions in early childhood. However, whenever she smells oatmeal now she experiences a classically conditioned feeling of nausea. Cheri's conditioned reaction indicates that she retains a __________.
Answer:
Implicit memory is an unconscious memory or automatic memory
You are dispatched to a private residence for a 52-year-old African American male sitting in his living room complaining of chest pain. During your assessment, he discloses that he has the sickle cell trait. Because of this you should:________.
a. administer high-concentration oxygen.
b. monitor for signs of inadequate respiration.
c. be prepared to treat for shock if he also has a high fever.
d. treat the patient as any other 52-year-old with chest pain.
The nursing instructor is reviewing the plan of care for a postpartum client with a student. The instructor asks the nursing student about the taking-in phase according to Rubin's phases of regeneration and the client behaviors that are most likely to occur during this phase. Which responses made by the student indicate an understanding of this phase?
A. "The client would be independent."
B. "The client initiates activities on her own."
C. "The client participates in mothering tasks."
D. "The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Answer:
D.The client is self-focused and talks to others about labor."
Explanation:
Rubin has identified three phases of regeneration during the postpartum period. They include:
1. The taking-in phase
2.Taking-hold phase
3.Letting-go phase.
The taking-in phase occurs in the first 3 days postpartum, During the taking-in phase, the new mother(client)is trying to integrate her labor and birth experience. She tends to need sleep and feels tired, talks about labor, and is self-focused and dependent.
Taking-hold phase:
The taking-hold phase occurs between days 3 to 10 days postpartum.In the taking-hold phase, the client is more active, independent, initiates activities, and partakes in mothering tasks.
Letting-go phase:
In the letting-go phase, the mother may grieve over the separation of the baby from part of her body.
The prevailing explanation for the relationship between stress and illness has been that increased levels of stress result in a decrease in the immune system's ability to protect the body from illness. On the other hand, it is possible that people who are experiencing stress engage in more health-damaging behaviors, this leads us to a greater likelihood of illness. This different explanation of the relationship demonstrates the importance of __________.
Answer: ruling out rival hypothesis
Explanation:
To rule out rival hypothesis suggests that to exclude the possible explanation for a specific claim. This suggests that before confirming or believing something one has to ensure that other explanation for a specific claim has been disproved to become sure for a specific claim.
According to the given situation, the stress and illness relationship is required to be derived. The increased level of stress and illness is responsible for the decrease in immunity is ruled out by the fact that people due to stress indulge or engage in health damaging behaviors. This is responsible for illness.
Complete each statement to identify the form of asexual reproduction.
During_______
a new plant grows from parts of the parent plant.
During_______
a cell divides to produce a new, genetically identical cell.
During vegetative propagation, a new plant grows from parts of the parent plant.
During mitosis, a cell divides to produce a new, genetically identical cell.
Explanation:
Both vegetative propagation and mitosis are methods of asexual reproduction followed by various organisms. In both the methods, only a single parent is involved in the reproduction of new daughter cells.
Vegetative reproduction is the asexual reproduction in plants with the formation of a new plant from the existing structures of the parent plant. These structures include rhizomes, bulbs, tubers etc.
Mitosis is a type of cell division which leads to the formation of genetically identical daughter cells similar to their parents. This occurs due to replication of the chromosome which then splits to form two identical daughter cells each with the complete set of chromosomes.
Answer:
During vegetative propagation, a new plant grows from parts of the parent plant.
During binary fission, a cell divides to produce a new, genetically identical cell.
Explanation:
Got it right
1. There are 3 examples of non-specific immune responses to exterior barriers. Which of the following is NOT one of them? Immersive Reader
hair
Skin surfaces
saliva & mucus
Digestive juices
Answer:
Immersive reader hair.
Explanation:
Non specific immune responses is the defence system from birth and it protects against all antigens.
This involves barriers that keep harmful substances from entering the body. It includes:
Skin surfaces
Mucus and saliva
Digestive juices
Cough reflex
Enzymes in tear.
The difference between
overpopulation and
under Population
Answer:
Over-population is when there are too many people, to be supported to a good standard of living, by the resources of a region or country. Under-population is when a region or country has insufficient workers to exploit their resources efficiently, to support retired populations and to provide growth.
Explanation:
Overpopulation occurs when the population exceeds the environment's capacity to provide for its needs causing societal and environmental stress. Underpopulation occurs when a small population leads to underuse of resources and can slow economic growth. Balancing population with resources is crucial for sustainable development.
The difference between overpopulation and underpopulation lies in the balance between the population size and the available resources within a given area. Overpopulation occurs when the number of people surpasses the capacity of the environment to provide for their needs, leading to strains on resources and potential societal issues such as famine, disease, and conflict. Contrarily, underpopulation happens when there is a small population in relation to a larger land area, which can lead to a reduction in GDP and slowed economic growth, and may make the nation vulnerable to outside interests due to large tracts of uninhabited land.
At the national level, examples like Russia against China can illustrate the contrast in population density and how these factors contribute to economic and social development. While overpopulation pressures resources and can lead to underdevelopment, underpopulation can result in underutilization of resources and a diminished labor force which is crucial for economic productivity. Understanding the implications of both overpopulation and underpopulation is essential for demographers and policy makers to manage resources efficiently and sustainably while ensuring the welfare of the population.
How can astronauts combat the effects of space travel on the muscular and circulatory systems? Eat foods with more minerals. Sleep more. Exercise more. Practice deep breathing exercises. I will make you brainiest please help me
Answer:
Exercise
Explanation: To build muscular strength in your arms and limbs you need to exercises if you are building your lunges practice deep breathing. Also I to the test for Cava-Sonoma.
Explanation:
Exercise
A nurse observes a few small, yellow nodules on the cervix of a client during the speculum exam. They are not painful or odorous, and a thin, clear discharge is present. The nurse recognizes that these are most indicative of what type of condition?a) Nabothian cysts
b) Columnar epithelium
c) Chlamydia infection
d) Cervical eversion
There is considerable variation by country in the distribution of causes of deaths among adults in the typical reproductive ages, with deaths due to which of the following being common in low-income countries and rare in high-income countries?
Infectious Disease
Viral disease
accidents
Answer:
Infectious diseases
Explanation:
Infectious diseases are cause by pathogens. These pathogens are micro-organisms(microbes) and can’t be seen by the naked eye except through varying types of microscope. These pathogenic microorganisms are divided into 4 which include Bacteria, Fungi, Virus and Protozoa.
These infectious diseases are high in low-income countries because a low economy is a characteristic of a developing or underdeveloped country. These countries are usually characterized by Poverty, poor education, low health knowledge, poor infrastructure which encourages and supports the prevalence of infectious diseases.
Aurora is a neuropsychologist focused on mapping certain reward circuits in the brain. She is not concerned about how her work might be used to change behavior but instead she is just trying to further knowledge about these circuits for the sake of knowledge. Aurora's research can be described as:
Answer:
Basic research
Explanation:
Basic research can also be referred to as fundamental research. This type of research is done to generate or increase scientific knowledge base. It seeks to generate new theories, principles and ideas, which is not necessarily applied, but can form the basis of scientific development.
In other words, basic research is mostly theoretical, with the purpose of increasing the understanding or explanation of a behavior or phenomenon, without seeking problem solving.
Therefore Aurora's research can be described as basic research.
Encouragement and appropriate praise should be given to hyperactive clients to help them increase their feelings of self-esteem. When they have acted appropriately, what is the best statement for the nurse to make in an effort to let them know of their improvement?
Options are not provided. The complete question is as following:
Encouragement and appropriate praise should be given to hyperactive clients to help them increase their feelings of self-esteem. When they have acted appropriately, what is the best statement for the nurse to make in an effort to let them know of their improvement?
1. "You behaved well today."
2. "I knew you could behave."
3. "Everyone likes you better when you behave like this."
4. "Your behavior today was much better than it was yesterday."
Answer: 1. "You behaved well today."
Explanation:
Hyperactive behaviour generally refers to excessive movement, being easily distracted, impulsivity, loss of attention, aggressiveness and similar behaviour. Typical habits may include talking too much, wandering, and fidgeting or running continuously.
Behavior therapy may help with hyperactivity disorder replace negative habits and actions with positive ones.
Praising the pateint will raise positivity in the pateint and increase their feelings of self-esteem, so the suitable statment for the patient is "You behaved well today."
The statement "You behaved well today" is more powerful to make th epateint belive that what he did is good and will encourage him to do well in future as well.
Hence the correct answer is 1. "You behaved well today."
Describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids
Answer:
Refer below.
Explanation:
The distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids are:
K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids.
Answer:
The distribution and balance of sodium and potassium between cells and tissue fluids is by means of a pump that requires ATP, that is, it is ATP dependent, and generates a countergrade of the minerals by balancing them, three sodium molecules are taken for two of potassium
Explanation:
These pumps are activated at necessary and punctual times, they are not constantly active.
Being a countergrade means that you need energy to go against the spontaneous gradient of the membrane, to overcome it and achieve balance.
The sodium potassium pumps are FUNDAMENTAL for cell life since without them the cells could suffer from hyper or hypoteonicity of the concentrations of these minerals, thus generating serious failures and cell death.
What is not a typical symptom of influenza?
Answer:
There are many NOT typical symptoms of influenza, since the typical ones are very pathognomonic.
Those that are not typical could become:
that the patient feels animated, not very fatigued, with excess energy and absence of fever, insstinal constipation.
Explanation:
The symptoms, unlike the signs, are what the patient perceives ... That is why we do not clarify other factors such as dyspnea or fever, since that would become a SIGN and not a SYMPTOM.
Instead, the sign is a factor that appears and is perceived by the medical professional through some technique or thanks to some prior knowledge.
Answer:
See explanation below for answer.
Explanation:
Influenza, also called Flu is a common viral infection that can be deadly, especially in high-risk groups. It attacks the lungs, nose and throat.
People at high risk include:
Young children, older adults, pregnant women, and people with chronic disease or weak immune systems.Symptoms include:
fever, chills, muscle aches, cough, congestion, runny nose, headaches, and fatigue.It should be noted that not everyone with flu will have a fever.
i have no idea how to do medical math
Peter has a vitamin deficiency, a skin problem, brain damage, and a chronic liver problem due to his chronic substance abuse of which drug?
A. Nicotine
B. Cocaine
C. Alcohol
D. Heroin
Answer:
1. alcohol 2. they contain tar, like traditional cigarettes
Explanation:
1. for him to have chronic liver problems it has to travel through the liver, alcohol is the leading cause of liver problems
2.e-cigarettes do not contain tar because it is an electrical product which is one factor of why they are not harmful
A lot of people are known to often abuse substances. Peter's issue is due too Alcohol.
Chronic alcohol use is known to affect the brain. A lot of studies has shown that excessive alcohol use and damaged brain function leads to dementia, deficits in learning and memory, mental disorders, etc.The act of drinking alcohol can also lead to vitamin deficiency. It can cause deficiencies in vitamin A, C, D, E, K, and B.
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When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (< 200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?
Answer:
Muscle Fibers Type I
Explanation:
Muscle fibers in the body are classified based on how they produce energy or generate force. The Muscle Fibers type I, type I C, type IIC, type IIAC, type IIA, type IIA and type IIX are generally classified as being either slow-twitch or fast-twitch.
Muscle Fibers Type I is generally a slow twitch fiber. They can provide their own source of energy and can sustain force for an extended period of time, but they are not able to generate a significant amount of force.
However, the activation threshold is quite low, this means that while they get recruited first when a muscle contracts, they are unable to generate the amount of force necessary for the specific activity. They are, therefore, bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment and the fast-twitch muscle fibers are engaged.
Not exactly a school question but does anyone have any strong ideas for better time management? Also I have a problem with procrastinating and not even realizing it.
Answer: Devices are a distraction, try to stay away while doing homework or etc. Also keep a planner and write down everything you need to do before that day comes, that way when you wanna work on stuff you can see what you need to work on. Don’t let yourself just put things to the side, instead just do it so that you don’t have to do it later. Time management is really up to you, and what you want to do with it :)
Explanation:
Answer:
For better time management, try to do a to-do list. Set some goals up for yourself. Give yourself a time limit if you have to. Procrastinating is the worst. When I'm procrastinating and i realize it, i always tell myself that the sooner something gets done, the sooner you can go do something you enjoy.
How is physical performance enhanced through the development of muscular strength and muscular endurance?
Answer:
As muscles become stronger, physical performance is improved. Improving muscular strength and muscular endurance gives the body the ability to work, exercise or play more often, with more power and for longer periods of time. Muscles act as tiny furnaces that burn fat.Explanation:
Muscular strength improves the ability to lift heavier weights, while muscular endurance enhances the capacity to sustain repeated muscle contractions.
The development of muscular strength and muscular endurance plays a crucial role in enhancing physical performance across various activities, from sports to daily life.
These components of fitness are fundamental for improved athletic performance and overall functional movement.
Muscular strength refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert against resistance in a single effort.
By increasing muscular strength, individuals can generate more force during movements like lifting, pushing, or pulling.
This translates into improved performance in activities such as weightlifting, sprinting, and high-intensity exercises.
The ability to lift heavier weights, for instance, allows athletes to optimize their training and achieve better results.
Muscular endurance, on the other hand, pertains to the muscle's capacity to sustain contractions over an extended period.
Developing muscular endurance enables individuals to perform repetitive or sustained activities without experiencing fatigue as quickly. This is particularly beneficial for endurance sports like running, cycling, or swimming, where the ability to maintain muscle function over an extended duration is key to success.
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Ron has a family history of high blood pressure. He has studied the causes, signs, and possible outcomes of the disease. What kind of strategy has he used to improve his health?
One purpose of the BON’s position statements and guidelines is to provide
Answer:
guidance to nurses with regard to carrying out orders from Physician Assistants (PAs).
Explanation:
It should be understood that the Physician assistance, PAs may provide medical aspects of care, including ordering or prescribing medications and treatments, as delegated by a physician consistent with laws, rules and regulations.
It should be noted also that a physician is not required to be present at all times at the location where the PA is providing care and orders are not required to be countersigned by the physician.
Therefore, a nurse may carry out or execute these orders. And , the nurse must seek clarification if he/she believes the order or treatment is inaccurate, non-efficacious or contraindicated, by consulting with the PA and physician as appropriate.
In conclusion, BON simply means Board of Nursing.
A new mother brings in her 6‐month‐old baby for not being able to keep his eyes together when
looking to the left. On examination, both of his eyes appear in alignment (conjugate) when
looking to the right. However, when looking to the left, the baby's left eye stays in the forward
gaze position, while the right continues on with full adduction to the left. The eyes appear to be
out of alignment (dysconjugate). Which cranial nerve (CN) is responsible for the dysfunction in
looking left?
) The left oculomotor nerve (CN III)
b) The right abducens nerve (CN VI)
c) The right trochlear nerve (CN IV)
d) The right oculomotor nerve (CN III)
e) The left trochlear nerve (CN IV)
f) The left abducens nerve (CN VI)
Answer: f) The left abducens nerve (CN VI)
Explanation:
The correct response is the left abducens nerve (CN VI), since the left abducens nerve (CN VI) pushes the left eye outwards towards the left. The muscle's paresis or weakness can create the baby's inability to move the left eye outwards to the left.
The right oculomotor nerve (CN III) is wrong as this nerve pushes the right eye upwards, upwards and inwards, upwards and outwards, downwards and outwards.
The right trochlear nerve (CN IV) is wrong as this nerve travels downwards and inwards the right eye.
The right nerve abducens (CN VI) is incorrect as this nerve pushes the right eye outwards to the right.
The left oculomotor nerve (CN III) is wrong as this nerve pushes the left eye inwards, upwards and inwards, upwards and outwards and downwards and outwards.
The left trochlear nerve (CN IV) is incorrect, as this nerve pushes the left eye downwards and inwards.
Hence, the correct option is f) The left abducens nerve (CN VI).
What are the steps used when performing CPR?
While giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is important to make sure the area is secure for you and the victim, then check to see whether they are responsive by tapping them lightly and yelling, "Are you okay?"
Thus, in CPR, call all emergency services or ask someone else to do so if the victim is not responding. Start the chest compressions by putting the heel of one hand on the victim's center chest, interlacing the other hand on top, and applying a forceful, rapid pressure at a pace of 100–120 compressions per minute.
After 30 compressions, tilt the victim's head back, lift their chin, and cover their mouth with yours while sealing their nose to provide two rescue breaths. Until assistance arrives, keep performing cycles of 30 compressions and two rescue breaths.
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Which statement by a registered nurse (RN) represents appropriate delegation to a nursing assistant? "
a) Inspect the site for thrombophlebitis.
b) Discontinue the IV solution.
c) Check the infusion rate.
d) Dispose of the disconnected IV set.
A
Explanation
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If ya could answer these questions about the reproductive system. I'm honestly to lazy to answer them myself.
1. Describe the function of the ovaries and testes.
2. Summarize the purpose of the Uterus.
3. Explain the functions of the cervix.
4. Define gametes and explain why they are essential to reproduction.
Answer:
Ovaries:
shelter and protect the eggs a female is born with until they are ready for useproduce estrogen release eggs (ovulation)Testes
Produce and store spermCreate testosterone and androgensChild bearing. "The uterus performs multiple functions and plays a major role in fertility and childbearing. This organ is able to change in shape as muscles tighten and relax to make it possible to carry a fetus"
The Cervix produces cervical mucusDuring pregnancy, the cervix closes to help keep the fetus in the uterus until birth during labor the cervix dilatesGametes: a mature sexual reproductive cell, as a sperm or egg, that unites with another cell to form a new organism.
They area literally what come together to make the baby, without them, there is no baby
Also, this took me like ten minutes lol. Maybe just do your own work.
Olga and Boris Mikhailov come to an outpatient clinic with their five-year-old daughter, Anya. The receptionist gathers information during the initial history. Olga and Boris were born in Russia and they have lived in the country for 8 years. They are both employed full time and speak English well. Anya was born in this county and she is fluent in Russian and English. Olga states that Anya is basically healthy. She experienced a viral illness a couple of months ago, but she quickly recovered. Anya is at the clinic for her 5-year-old check-up for kindergarten.
Answer:
The missing statement in question is;
According to Erickson, in what stage of development is Anya?
Explanation:
According to Erikson theory, Anya is in Initiative v Guilt stage.
Erikson theory is related to the different psychosocial developments that happen in complete human cycle through his life span. There are eight stages from birth till adulthood.
One of them is Initiative v Guilt, which is the third stage. This is related to children where they tend to assert themselves more often
The nurse is providing discharge education about how to avoid joint stress for a client hospitalized with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the client demonstrates the teaching has been effective?
a) I need to start carrying heavy items with my arms, instead of my hands."
b) I will be able to return to my job as a medical transcriptionist.""
c) I can still sit and knit while watching television."
d) I will sit on a tall kitchen stool instead of standing when I am preparing meals."
e) When I go to bed at night I should use a pillow under my knees."
Answer:
Two options apply here, and they are:
a) I need to start carrying heavy items with my arms, instead of my hands.
d) I will sit on a tall kitchen stool instead of standing when I am preparing meals
Explanation:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease that makes joints become painful or swollen. It has no cure, but the level of growth can be slowed by medications.
Carrying heavy items on the arms instead of the hand, helps take stress off the joints in the hands.
In the lower body, sitting helps take pressure off the joints.
Knitting is not advisable, because stress on the joints can be caused by steady movements. Placing pillows under kness would not help avoid joint stress because there is a chance of having joint contracture.
So, when the client makes any of the statements in option (a) and (d), the nurse clearly understands the teaching has been effective.
Kevin burns 5.5 cal/min by walking at a speed of 4.5 miles per hour. He is also able to have a conversation while performing this moderately intense physical activity. What effect does this activity have on his breathing and heart rate:
A. a slight change in his breathing but no change in his heart rate
B. no change in his breathing but a significant change in his heart rate
C. a significant change in both his breathing and heart rate
D. a slight increase in both his breathing and heart rate e. little to no change in his breathing and heart rate
It is thought that a combination of sympathetic activation and parasympathetic withdrawal causes the increase in heart rate during exercise. Thus, option E is correct.
What effect of physical activity on breathing and heart rate?Exercise also increases the muscles' ability to remove oxygen from the blood, which lessens the demand for the heart to pump blood to the muscles.
The parasympathetic nervous system's reactivation is thought to be responsible for the drop in heart rate that occurs right after exercise
While exercising, the heart rate rises. Increases in breathing rate and depth ensure that more oxygen is taken up by the blood and more carbon dioxide is expelled from it.
The number of breaths taken in a minute can be used to calculate the rate of breathing.
Therefore, little to no change in his breathing and heart rate.
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Explain a strategy that you can use to ensure that your own personal beliefs and preconceptions don’t get in the way of your job response?
Answer:
A good strategy is: an organizational and tolerant culture in the workplace
Explanation:
A good strategy is. Having an organizational and tolerant culture at work, this means, what is work must be done at work and what corresponds to our personal values and beliefs, are only ours; But we must be willing to be receptive and share our beliefs and values with others as long as the occasion for it arises in a social setting.
Now, we must be tolerant and very respectful of the opinions and beliefs of others, we must not turn our work into a place of religious and philosophical competences.
To avoid personal beliefs interfering with job performance, a strategy is to practice empathy, open-mindedness, and self-reflection.
Explanation:A strategy to ensure that personal beliefs and preconceptions don't interfere with job performance is to practice empathy and open-mindedness. This involves actively listening to others, considering different perspectives, and being willing to change one's opinion based on new information. Additionally, self-reflection and self-awareness are important to recognize and challenge any biases or assumptions.
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