Rubeola is a type of measles that typically lasts:
A. 1 day.
B. 1 to 3 days.
C. 5 days.
D. 7 days.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct option is D. 7 days.

Explanation:

Rubeola is a highly infectious disease caused by the measles virus. It is a highly contagious disease and can be easily transmitted to other human beings through air.

In this infection, symptoms are seen usually experienced 2 weeks after the exposure to the virus. The symptoms include cold, cough, fever, inflammation of eyes etc. 3-5 days after the start of symptoms, a red rash generally appears on the face and then spreads on the body.

Therefore, the Rubeola disease typically lasts for about 7- 10 days.


Related Questions

__________ are supposed to catch doctors' mistakes when it comes to interactions:
a. Nurses
b. Pharmacists
c. Director of Nursing
d. None of the above

Answers

Answer:

I think it's nurses?

The increased risk of lung cancer that results from smoking and asbestos exposure is an example of a/an _________ effect.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is Carcinogenic effect.

Explanation:

When a physical, chemical or biological agent is capable of producing a neoplasic disease we speak of a carcinogenic or carcinogenic effect. The carcinogenic effect of cigarettes and asbestos has been scientifically demonstrated, asbestos being one of the largest producers of lung cancer in people working with this material, hence its use has already been banned in several countries.

In regards to the spinothalamic tract, where does the second order neuron cross the midline?
a. at that spinal cord segment
b. in the brainstem
c. at the thalamus
d. never crosses midline

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option A.

Explanation:

In spinothalamic tract is a projection with axons which terminates in the thalamic nuclei.  This tract comprises of three neuron pathways: primary order neurons, secondary order neurons and tertiary order neurons.

The axons of the secondary order neurons receive the impulse to form the primary order neuron in the dorsal neuron and then crosses the midline at the anterior spinal cord in ventral white commissure to reach the opposite sides. after this neuron passes through the brainstem to the thalamus.

Thus, option A- at that spinal cord segment is the correct answer.

It is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.

Answers

Answer:

The urinary meatus

Explanation:

The urinary meatus is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.

The urine is stored in the urinary meatus for both males and females.

It is considered dangerous sometimes if you don't release your urine because it could explode inside your body.

Describe the anatomical structure of the knee and why it is the most commonly injured joint of the body.

Answers

Answer:

The knee is made up of two bones, the femur and the tibia, among them is the patella attached to each other by means of ligaments.  

The knee is the structure of the organism with greater load and mobility, for this reason, this joint is the one that is mostly injured in the human body

Under the influence of ADH, the __________ and the ___________ become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed.
a. Proximal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
b. Distal convulated tubule, Nephron loop
c. Proximal convulated tubule, Collecting duct
d. Distal convulated tubule. Collecting duct

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option D- Distal convulated tubule and collecting duct.

Explanation:

Antidiuretic hormone or ADH is a hormone that helps to maintain the amount of water in your body.

The hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus and stored in the pituitary gland which controls the kidney to balance the water content in the body as it helps reduce the loss of water in the urine.

ADH hormone increases the permeability of the membrane by stimulating the insertion of "water channels" or aquaporins in the membranes of kidney tubules mainly Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. These aquaporins help the reabsorption of water thus reducing the loss of water from the body.

Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Final answer:

The correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct, as these are the sites where ADH acts to make the tubule more permeable to water, enabling water reabsorption.

Explanation:

Under the influence of ADH, the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct become permeable to water and water is reabsorbed. Both of these structures are involved in the fine-tuning of water balance in the body.

While the distal convoluted tubule reabsorbs a smaller volume of water, the collecting ducts, influenced by ADH, play a major role in water reabsorption. The proximal convoluted tubule is mainly responsible for the reabsorption of a significant fraction of the filtered water, but this process is independent of ADH action. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Distal convoluted tubule, Collecting duct.

Cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.

Answers

Answer:

Sarcoplasm.

Explanation:

Sarcoplasm is comparable to the cytoplasm of the other cell. The main constituents of sarcoplasm is glycosomes, myoglobin and calcium.

Sarcoplasm is the cytoplasm of the muscle fiber or muscle cells. The sarcoplasm helps in the muscle contraction and regulation of muscle fibers. The cell membrane of sarcoplasm is sarcolemma.

Thus, the answer is sarcoplasm.

Dysfunction of the pituitary gland woutld probably affect the functioning of the _______:
a. parathyroid gland
b. gonads
c. pancreas
d. adrenal medullia

Answers

Answer:

(b). gonads

Explanation:

Pituitary gland can be defined as an endocrine gland, which regulates functions of various glands by synthesizing and secreting various hormones. Gonads are under regulation of hypothalamic-pituitary pathway.

The anterior pituitary gland secreted LH (luteinizing  hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), which stimulate gonads to release testosterone and estrogen.  

On the other hand, parathyroid gland, pancreas, and medulla work independently and do not depend on hormones released from pituitary.

Hence, dysfunction of pituitary gland would mainly affect the functioning of gonads.  

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

At the neuromuscular junction, what specific receptor is located at the muscle cell?
a. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor
c. Glutamate receptor

Answers

Answer:

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor.

Explanation:

Nicotonic acetylcholine receptors has the ability to respond towards the acetylcholine molecule. These receptors are used for the transmission of signals.

Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor is located on brain, at neuromuscular junction and in the muscle cell. These receptors are released from the post ganglionic fibers.

Thus, the correct answer is option (a).

Final answer:

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction, allowing for muscle contractions to take place.

Explanation:

The specific receptor located at the muscle cell in the neuromuscular junction is the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. This receptor is responsible for muscle contractions in our body. When a signal travels down the nerve, acetylcholine is released, which then binds to the Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, causing an influx of ions and leading to muscle contraction.

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Divide the word into word parts. Define the word parts, then define the term. Example: spondylolisthesis = spondyl/o vertebra, -listhesis slipping; slipping of a vertebra, forward dislocation of a vertebra.
- Arthroplasty
- Syndactylism
- Osteomyelitis
- Electromyography
- Ankylosis
- Osteoclasis

Answers

Answer:

arthro-joint plasty-repair or replacement

arthroplasty- repair or replacement of the joint

syndactyl,-multipple digits  ism-disease or conditon  syndactylism is  a birth defect in which the infant is born more with extra webbed fingers or toes

osteo -bone  myelitis -inflamation of osteo myelitits is the inflammation of the bone

elctro- meaning electric   ,myography- use of a myograph, electromyography

is a procedure diagnostic to show health of muscles and nerves

ankyl-bent or crooked   osis-state or condition  ankylosis- is a stiffness of a joint due to abnormal adhesion and rigidity of the bones of the joint, which may be the result of injury or disease.

osteo-bone clasis -break or broken

osteoclasis-the breaking of a bone

(brainliest?

Explanation:

White blood cells leave capillaries by a process called ___________.

Answers

Answer:

Diapedesis

Explanation:

Diapedesis is the process of the extravasation of the white blood cells. This is the important process of the immune system.

During diapedesis, the white bllod cells from the blood leave the capillaries and migrate to the site of injury. This process mainly occurs in the post capillary venules.

Thus, the answer is diapedesis.

Final answer:

White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, exit the bloodstream and enter tissues through a process known as emigration or diapedesis.

Explanation:

White blood cells, or leukocytes, leave capillaries via a process known as emigration or diapedesis. This process involves the leukocytes squeezing through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall to enter tissue sites. Once at these sites, depending on their functions, they may be given distinct names such as macrophage or microglia.

For leukocytes, the vascular network is akin to a highway that they use for transit before exiting to perform their defensive functions. This emigration allows them to remove infectious agents, such as bacteria and viruses, and clean the lymph before it returns to the bloodstream.

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Carbon 14 is an unstable isotope of carbon that decays very slowly. Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional ____________.
(a) electrons
(b) neutrons
(c) protons
(d) ions

Answers

Answer:

B. neutrons I think

Explanation:

carbon -12 contains six protons, six neutrons, and six electrons

carbon -14 contains six protons, eight neutrons, and six electrons

Compared to the common, stable carbon 12 isotope, carbon 14 has two additional neutrons. thus, option B is correct.

What is isotopes?

An isotope is one of two or more species of atoms of a chemical element that have the same atomic number and location in the periodic table but differ in their atomic weights and physical properties. There are one or more isotopes for every chemical element.

Both isotopes of carbon have six protons in their atoms. Carbon-12 atoms have 6 neutrons, while carbon-14 atoms have 8 neutrons. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom are the same, hence a neutral atom of carbon-12 or carbon-14 would have 6 electrons.

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The diaphyseal region of bone is composed of which of the following bone types?
A) spongy
B) cancellous
C) cortical
D) trabecular

Answers

Answer:

( C ) Cortical bone

Explanation:

The diaphyseal region of the bone , is the main or the medsection of the long bone.

The composition of Diaphyseal region is mainly of the cortical bone , bone marrow and the fat tissue i.e. the adipose tissue .

The middle tabular part of the diaphyseal region , composed of the compact bone is surrounded by the central marrow cavity which have the red or the yellow marrow.

Hence ,  

The diaphyseal region is composed of cortical bone.

The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a ___________.
a. Cleft
b. Synapse
c. Pre and post neuronal axis

Answers

Answer:

B. Synapse

Explanation:

The synapse is the space or the communication between two neurons or betwenn a neuron and a muscular cell or a secretory cell. Humans use the chemical synapse. The processes begings with an action potential producing a depolarization openening neurotransmitters (NT) vesicles releaseing calcium allowing the NT allowing the NT to the membrane of the postsynaptic cell sending the signal.

Final answer:

A synapse is the site of communication between two neurons or a neuron and another effector cell, with the synaptic cleft being the gap where neurotransmitters are released and signal transmission occurs.

Explanation:

The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a synapse. The synapse includes a narrow space known as the synaptic cleft, which is the actual gap between the presynaptic neuron's terminal button and the postsynaptic neuron's dendrite, axon, or soma. During neurotransmission, neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles within the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron.

These neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, thereby transmitting the signal. If the postsynaptic cell is another neuron, the binding of neurotransmitters can initiate an action potential, continuing the signal transmission process.

Which of the following are symptoms associated with pernicious anemia? (Select all that apply)
a. Sore tongue
b. Diarrhea and upset stomach
c. Insomnia
d. Paresthesias
e. Arthralgia
f. Weakness and fatigue

Answers

Answer:

the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.

Explanation:

When the body is not able to make enough healthy RBCs due to B-12 deficiency this condition called pernicious anemia. It is a treatable condition with the help of the B-12 shots or pills. The major reason is the lack of a stomach protein known as Intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of the B-12.

Symptoms associated with this condition are -  

Fatigue, shortness of breath, cold hands and feet, Paresthesias, feeling dizzy, chest pain, pale or yellow skin, depression, and trouble focusing and others.

Thus, the correct answer is option a, b, d, and f.

Which one of the following diuretics is a potassium sparing diuretic?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Indapamide
D. Furosemide

Answers

Answer:

(B). Spironolactone.

Explanation:

Diuretic drugs are used to treat hypertension by increasing diuresis (urine formation). Potassium sparing diuretics can be defined as a class of diuretic drugs that decrease secretion of potassium ions into the urine.  

Normal diuretic can cause increased potassium loss that lead to hypokalemia (low level of potassium). Potassium ions are necessary for proper nerve transmission and muscle functioning.  

Hence, potassium sparing drugs are used with diuretics for hypertension without causing lose of potassium ions from the body.  Examples of potassium sparing diuretics are spironolactone, amiloride, and eplerenone.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

There are many different kinds of sweeteners: white sugar, brown sugar, sucanat, honey, maple syrup, Splenda, aspartame, stevia. Which one is the best for you?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is Honey.

Explanation:

For my concept the best sweetener is and will continue to be honey, because it is a natural product without any other chemical or preparation components that alter its natural condition.

Final answer:

Choosing the best sweetener involves balancing natural sweeteners like honey and maple syrup, which offer slight nutritional benefits, with artificial sweeteners like aspartame and stevia that are calorie-free. Both types have their places in a diet, but moderation is essential, and whole foods should be prioritized for nutritional needs.

Explanation:

When considering which sweetener is best for you, it's important to balance between natural sources of sweetness and artificial or non-nutritive sweeteners. Natural sweeteners like honey, maple syrup, and molasses can offer nutritional benefits such as minerals and antioxidants, albeit in small amounts. These natural sweeteners, however, are still sources of added sugar and should be used in moderation. On the other hand, artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, sucralose, and stevia, provide a sweet taste without the calories. These are much sweeter than sucrose, so only a small amount is needed. It's notable that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and Health Canada have approved several artificial sweeteners for use, confirming their safety based on extensive reviews. However, there is ongoing debate about the long-term health effects of artificial sweeteners. Ultimately, the best sweetener for an individual depends on personal health goals, dietary needs, and taste preferences. It might be beneficial to use natural sweeteners in limited amounts for their nutritional benefits and flavors, and artificial sweeteners can be a calorie-free way to enjoy sweet tastes. Moderation is key, and considering whole foods rich in minerals and antioxidants should be a priority.

Lactose intolerance:
A. results from the lack of lactase
B. can be influenced by the environment
C. has a genetic basis
D. all of these
E. is a good example of biocultural evolution

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A: results from the lack of lactase

Explanation:

Lactose intolerance is caused by the lack of the enzyme lactase, necessary for digestion. Their symptoms usually occur 30 minutes after eating the food with a feeling of nausea, bloating and vomiting. It can occur from the first months of life as well as in adulthood.

Which of the following airways precisely carry air to each of the lung?
a. terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. tertiary bronchi
d. secondary bronchi
e. primary bronchi

Answers

Answer:

D - Secondary bronchi

Explanation:

The secondary bronchi is the first subdivision of the lung and it directly carries air to each lobe of a lung. It serves as a pathway of gas exchange to provide air to the 3 lobes of the lung (superior, middle and inferior).

The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the:
a. tricuspid valve.
b. pulmonary valve.
c. mitral valve.
d. bicuspid valve.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is A tricuspid valve

Explanation:

The tricuspid valve is called that because it has three pillars that are located in the right heart between the atrium and the ventricular idem.

It is responsible for giving way to systematic blood for subsequent oxygenation at the level of the lungs.  

Final answer:

The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve, which is an atrioventricular valve that prevents the backflow of blood. So the correct option is a.

Explanation:

The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is known as the tricuspid valve. This valve is one of the two atrioventricular valves (AV valves), with its counterpart being the mitral valve on the left side of the heart. The tricuspid valve consists of three flaps of tissue that open to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle and close to prevent backflow of blood. The mitral valve also referred to as the bicuspid valve or left atrioventricular valve, consists of two flaps and functions similarly between the left atrium and left ventricle.

A specific form of cancer that develops in the connective tissue of the dermis is called? It is common in the elderly and HIV patients.
A. Kaposi's Sarcoma
B. Leukoderma
C. Carbuncle

Answers

Answer: Kaposi's Sarcoma

Explanation:

The Kaposi's sarcoma remains one of the most common cancer in people suffering from HIV. It is caused by the virus known as herpes virus 8.

It is developed when the cells that line the lymph or blood vessels begins to divide without stopping and starts spreading in the adjacent tissues.

It has the ability to start in several parts of the body at once.

Hence the correct answer is" Kaposi's Sarcoma "

Which of the following statement(s) about cells is/are true?
1. Mitosis --- division of somatic cells
2. Meiosis --- division of sex cells
3. Somatic cells are diploid
4. Sex cells are haploid

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1, 2 and 4

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.

Explanation:

Mitotic cell division is a type of cell division in which one parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. This type of cell division takes place in all the cells except sex cells.

Somatic cells go through mitosis and help organisms in their growth, repair, and renewal of cells and tissue. Somatic cells are diploid in number that means they have two homologous chromosomes in their nucleus.

Meiosis is also a type of cell division that takes place in the reproductive cell or sex cells to form gametes. In this type of cell division, one parent cell gives rises to four daughter cell with half the number of chromosomes which is haploid. The sex cells are haploid as they are produced by the meiotic division.

Thus, the correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.

Australopithecus afarensis:
A-all of these
B-is found in southern and eastern Africa
C-is the largest well-studied collection of early hominins
D-the fossil skeleton known as "Lucy" belongs to this species

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option A. all of these.

Explanation:

Australopithecus afarensis was early hominin that found between 3.9 and 2.9 million years ago in southern and eastern Africa. this hominin was well built and had a slenderly body. these were thought to be closely related to the genus homo than other primates of that time. These hominins were the most studied collection of hominins.

The most famous fossil is Australopithecus afrarensis is a skeleton named Lucy which is thought to be a very intelligent species of its time.

Thus, the correct answer is option A. all of these.

What is the Icd 10 code for respiratory failure with hypoxia?

Answers

Answer:

Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia

J96.01 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes. The 2019 edition of ICD-10-CM J96.01 became effective on October 1, 2018.

Explanation:

The ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision) code for respiratory failure with hypoxia is J96.0.

Definition of Respiratory Failure:  

Respiratory failure occurs when the respiratory system fails to maintain adequate gas exchange, leading to an inability to oxygenate the blood efficiently or remove carbon dioxide. This condition can be acute or chronic and can arise from various underlying health issues.

Definition of Hypoxia:  

Hypoxia refers to a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin).

Causes:  

Pulmonary conditions (e.g., Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, pneumonia).Neuromuscular diseases affecting the diaphragm and respiratory muscles.Central nervous system issues (e.g., drug overdose affecting breathing).

ICD-10 Coding Explanation:  

The ICD-10 code J96.0 specifically signifies 'Acute respiratory failure with hypoxia.' It helps in accurately documenting the condition for medical billing and record-keeping purposes.

Importance of Accurate Coding:  

Accurate ICD-10 coding is crucial for patient management, insurance reimbursement, and statistical data on health outcomes. It allows for effective tracking of respiratory failure cases and informs treatment strategies.

A male patient presents with the following respiratory volumes and capacities: TV = 500 mL, ERV-600 mL, IRV 2,700 mL.
What is this patient's VC? Are these values normal? If not, are they more consistent with an obstructive or restrictive disease pattern? Explain.

Answers

Answer:

The patient VC is 3800ml.

Explanation:

Vital capacity may be defined as the maximum amount of air that a person can expel after maximum inspiration. Tidal volume is the sum of  expiratory reserve volume, inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume.

Vital capacity (VC) of a patient is 3800 (500+600+2700). The patients has restrictive disease pattern because its expiratory reserve volume has been decreased. The patients suffers from the lung restriction and respiratory failure.

Thus, the patient VC is 3800 ml and has restrictive disease pattern.

Final answer:

The patient's Vital Capacity, calculated as the sum of Tidal Volume, Expiratory Reserve Volume, and Inspiratory Reserve Volume, is 3,800 mL, lower than the average for males, and may suggest a restrictive lung disease.

Explanation:

The patient's Vital Capacity (VC) can be calculated by adding the Tidal Volume (TV), the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV), and the Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) together. In this case, the VC will be the sum of 500 mL (TV) + 600 mL (ERV) + 2,700 mL (IRV), which equals 3,800 mL.

The average male VC is approximately 4,800 mL, so this patient's VC is somewhat lower than usual. These values might suggest a restrictive disease pattern, characteristic of conditions such as pulmonary fibrosis or muscular dystrophy, in which lung expansion is limited and the total lung volume is reduced.

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Which of the following procedures can be used to repair a detached retina?
A. irindeclesis
B. strabismus correction
C. scleral buckling
D. canthotomy

Answers

Answer:

Scleral buckling

Explanation:

Scleral buckling is one of the type of eye surgery that helps in the restore loss vision in an individual. The main risk associated with scleral buckling surgery is retinal incarceration.

Scleral buckling is mainly processed to repair a damaged and detached retina. Retinal detachment may occur due to increased age, previous cataract surgery and diabetes.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

Which type of blood vessel carries blood back to the heart?
a. artery
b. arteriole
c. vein
d. capillary

Answers

Answer:

vein

Explanation:

vein is the vessel that carry blood to the earth

What is the Icd 10 code for diverticulitis of sigmoid colon?

Answers

Answer:

The answer to the question: What is the ICD-10-CM code for Diverticulitis of sigmoid colon, as of 2018, would be: K57.32

Explanation:

The ICD-10-CM classification, is a system that is used to unify and codify diagnosis, procedures and signs and symptoms, so that healthcare professionals can identify them easily, and also so that the healthcare system, including healthcare insurance companies, and other agencies, may have a common language when it comes to talking about diseases, procedures and signs and symptoms. This code was preceded by the ICD-9-CM and both were born from the Classification of Diseases created by the WHO (World Health Organization). Today, the ICD-10-CM coding system is the one used in the United States, and the code given to Diverticulitis of the large intestine without perforation or abscess without bleeding, including Diverticulitis of the sigmoid colon is, as of 2018 and still accepted in 2019, K57.32.

Bergmann’s rule:
A)is based on the principle that heat is retained at the body surface
B)concerns the relationship between climate and shape and size of appendages
C)state that bodies with increased mass or volume to surface area are optimal for cold climates
D)states that a linear body with long arms and legs is optimal for cold climates

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C: state that bodies wit increased mass or volume to surface are optimal for cold climates.

Explanation:

The bergmann rule establishes that the species of animals that maintain their body temperature within normal limits regardless of the ambient temperature, when they live in cold weather, tend to be of greater volume and weight than those of the same species that live in other warmer regions. A clear example of this are the North Pole penguins, which are larger than African penguins.

Which is incorrect regarding increasing age in older adults?
a) Muscular tissue begins to atrophy
b) Epithelia thins
c) Tissue repair is less efficient
d) Decreased risk of cancer

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D: decreased risk of cancer.

Explanation:

As the men get older, the risk of presenting a neoplasm increases; The highest incidence of prostate cancer has been scientifically demonstrated in men over 50 years of age, such as breast cancer, and a higher frequency of lung and gastric cancer has also been seen.

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A GPS tracking device is placed in a police dog to monitor its whereabouts relative to the police station. At time t1 = 23 min, the dog's displacement from the station is 1.2 km, 33 north of east. At time t2 = 57 min, the dog's displacement from the station is 2.0 km, 75 north of east. Find the magnitude and direction of the dog's average velocity between these two times. When designing solid rockets, thrust and mass flow must be considered time dependent. a) True b) False The Task Manager can be used ot track running _________________ . Which of the following is a property of an object not a result of something happening to the object? Select one: weight a. b. inertia C. momentum d. force Radio receivers are usually tuned by adjusting the capacitor of an LC circuit. If C = C1 for a frequency of 600 kHz, then for a frequency of 1200 kHz C must be adjusted to what value? A certain gasoline engine has an efficiency of 35.3%. What would the hot reservoir temperature be for a Carnot engine having that efficiency, if it operates with a cold reservoir temperature of 160C? (C) Read the text and question and choose the option with the correctly written answer. You visit Cuba and meet your Cuban pen pal in person for the first time. What can you ask him? Porqu te gusta vivir en Cuba? Por qu te gusta vivir en Cuba? Porqu te gusta vivir en Cuba? Por qu te gusta vivir en Cuba? What is the atmosphere? Where is Earths atmosphere located, and what does it contain? A container of variable volume contains oxygen gas at a pressure of 550.0 kPa. At 25.0 C, what is the new pressure inside the container if the container is allowed to expand from an initial volume of 5.20 L to a final volume to 7.25 L write a program which capitalize every character after full stopin a given sentence Write a JAVA program to sort a given array of integers (1 Dimensional) in ascending order (from smallest to largest). You can either get the array as input or hardcode it inside your program. evaluate -3ab when a= -2 and b= -5 What is the approximate value ofxin the equation below. log3/4 25 =3x-13.3960.7080.3040.955 Conifer needles haveA. a thick cuticle.B. sunken stomates.C. a reduced surface area.D. all of the above Need help with science questions!Which best describes how the law of conservation of energy is obeyed in this closed physical system? A.The final mechanical energy of the system is the difference between the original mechanical energy of the system and the change in mechanical energy of the system (E). When the piston does work (W), only the mechanical energy added to the system (Q) is transferred to kinetic energy. B.The final thermal energy of the system is the sum of the original internal energy of the system and the change in energy of the system (E). When the piston does work (W), all the thermal energy is transferred to kinetic energy. C.The final mechanical energy of the system is the sum of the original internal energy of the system and the change in energy of the system (E). When the piston does work (W), all the mechanical energy is transferred to kinetic energy. D.The final thermal energy of the system is the difference between the original internal energy of the system and the change in energy of the system (E). When the piston does work (W), only the thermal energy added to the system (Q) is transferred to kinetic energy. If f(x)=5x , what is f-1 (x)? Post Test: World War II and Its Aftermath Es mejor dar... Rewrite these sentences in the preterite tense.1) Antonio le da un beso a su madre. ________________2) Los invitados le dan las gracias a la familia. _______________3) T les traes una sorpresa a tus padres. _____________4) Rosa y yo le damos un regalo al profesor. _________________5) Carla nos trae mucha comida para el viaje. _______________ All collagen family members consist of _____ chains arranged in a _______. A rope pulls a 82.5 kg skier at a constant speed up a 18.7 slope with k = 0.150. How much force does the rope exert?