Answer:
option a, c and d
Explanation:
In lactic acid fermentation, this process produces NADH, lactic acid and 2 ATP molecules. this process decreases the pH in the muscle fibers. If there is enough ATP in the fibers, the process is inhibited. and this process is stimulated to release energy in the absence of oxygen.
The statements that are true for lactic acid fermentation carried out in muscle cells are:
This process is inhibited by ATP.This process releases energy.Fermentation is an incomplete oxidation process that does not require oxygen to take place.
It is a catabolic process, that is, the transformation of complex molecules into simple molecules and the generation of chemical energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).
In fermentation, ATP synthesis is accomplished by phosphorylation at the substrate level, where the energy-rich phosphate bonds of a phosphorylated organic intermediate are transferred directly to ADP to synthesize ATP. Lactic fermentation consists of a partial oxidation of glucose, carried out by lactic bacteria or by muscle cells (when they run out of oxygen to breathe).Specifically, this process generates ATP but produces lactic acid as a by-product, which produces, when it accumulates, the painful sensation of muscle fatigue.Therefore, we can conclude that the statements that are true for lactic acid fermentation carried out in muscle cells are: this process is inhibited by ATP and releases energy.
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How might you distinguish between these possibilities? Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. ResetHelp If repressor inhibits RNA polymerase binding to the promoter, then one way to demonstrate this would be to incubate a plasmid containing the lac operon with lac If repressor inhibits R N A polymerase binding to the promoter, then one way to demonstrate this would be to incubate a plasmid containing the lac operon with lac blank. Then add R N A polymerase and subject the mixture to sucrose gradient centrifugation and analyze each fraction for R N A polymerase and repressor, using antibodies to the two proteins. A simpler method would be to analyze the mixture by gel electrophoresis and probe the gel ( blank ) with antibodies to R N A polymerase and repressor ( blank ). Another experiment could involve footprinting; carry out blank assays, asking whether repressor inhibits R N A polymerase binding or vice versa.. Then add RNA polymerase and subject the mixture to sucrose gradient centrifugation and analyze each fraction for RNA polymerase and repressor, using antibodies to the two proteins. A simpler method would be to analyze the mixture by gel electrophoresis and probe the gel (
Answer:
all the given blanc spaces will be filled accordingly as below
Repressorwestern blotin separate gelscompetitive bindingExplanation:
As Jim lifts a weight heavier than he has ever lifted before, he suddenly drops the weight with a stunned look on his face. With a nervous laugh, he winks at the girl again, but she turns and walks away. Which of the following most likely happened to Jim
a)The stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ increased action potentials in the sensory neuron, which increased action potentials in an inhibitory alpha motor neuron.
b)The increased action potentials from the Golgi tendon organ caused increased firing of the gamma motor neuron innervating the biceps.
c)The increased contractions of the biceps brachii increased the firing of the neuron innervating the muscle spindle, which caused the muscle to relax.
d)The stimulation of the Golgi tendon organ increased action potentials in an inhibitory interneuron in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Geneticists analyze pedigrees to follow the inheritance of genetically controlled conditions. Three things must be determined in a pedigree analysis:
The mode of inheritance of the condition. In this tutorial, this means deciding if a condition is caused by an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive allele.
The genotypes of individuals in the pedigree (as far as can be known) based on their phenotype and the phenotypes of their parents or children.
The probability that certain individuals will have the condition. This requires assigning probability values to some individuals whose genotypes cannot be determined with certainty. It also requires an understanding of how and when to apply the product and sum rules.
Part A - Determining the mode of inheritance
The pedigrees below show the inheritance of three separate, rare autosomal conditions in different families. For each pedigree, decide if the condition is betterexplained as recessive or dominant.
Drag the correct label to the appropriate location. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
The pedigrees have not been provided. They have been attached.
Answer:
Pedigree 1 : Autosomal recessive
Pedigree 2 : Autosomal dominant
Pedigree 3 : Autosomal recessive
Explanation:
It has been given that the traits are autosomal i.e. they are not controlled by X and Y genes. We have to further find out if they are inherited in recessive pattern (autosomal recessive) or in dominant pattern (autosomal dominant).
Pedigree 1: Out of the three generations, the trait is only observed in one. This usually happens in recessive inheritance as two recessive alleles must be together to express the condition and this event has less chances of occurring. Also, it is visible how normal parents in first generation had a daughter with the recessive trait. This is possible if the parents were heterozygous for the trait or "carriers". They contributed one recessive allele each in the next generation due to which the daughter showed the recessive phenotype. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Pedigree 2: Out of the four generations, the trait is expressed in three. This usually happens in dominant inheritance as only one allele is needed to express the trait so both dominant homozygous and heterozygous individuals will show it. Thus, this is most probably a dominant condition.
Pedigree 3: This trait also skipped generations which is a feature of recessive traits. As with pedigree 1, the trait disappeared in pedigree and reappeared when two recessive alleles came together again. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Final answer:
Pedigree analysis helps determine whether a genetic condition is autosomal dominant or recessive by studying how the condition is transmitted across generations. Genotypes are inferred based on family member phenotypes, and the probability of inheriting the condition is estimated using genetic principles and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium considerations.
Explanation:
Geneticists analyze pedigrees to deduce the mode of inheritance of genetic conditions. This involves determining whether a condition is autosomal dominant (AD) or autosomal recessive (AR). For an autosomal dominant condition, the presence of the disease in each generation and the transmission from an affected individual to about half of their offspring suggests the AD pattern. In contrast, an autosomal recessive condition usually appears in siblings without appearing in earlier generations unless there is consanguinity (inbreeding), indicative of the AR pattern.
Additionally, genotypes of individuals in the pedigree are inferred using phenotypes of family members and applying principles like the product and sum rules to predict the probability of inheriting the condition. When a pedigree shows a condition affecting both genders equally and doesn't skip generations, it is likely autosomal dominant. However, if the condition skips generations and affected individuals are often the children of unaffected, related parents, it is likely autosomal recessive.
When the exact genotype cannot be determined, probabilities are assigned to various genotypes. With the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele and genotype frequencies in a large, randomly-mating population remain constant across generations unless affected by factors like mutation or selection.
Some years ago, it was suggested that the function of the poly(A) tail on a eukaryotic message may be to ′′ticket′′ the message. That is, each time the message is used, one or more residues is removed, and the message is degraded after the tail is shortened below a critical length. Suggest an experiment to test this hypothesis. Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
Answer:
The hypothesis that whether the poly (A) tail degrade after certain limit or not certain limit can be detected by critically analyzing the sample containing bulk amount mRNA (messenger ribonucleic acid). If certain parts were found having certain minimum length, then the hypothesis would be correct. This would show that all the mRNAs with short tails have got degraded.
Explanation:
One such test could involve measuring the distribution of poly(A) chain lengths in bulk mRNA . If the "ticketing" hypothesis is correct, then shorter poly(A) tails would be underrepresent.
The experiment to test the poly(A) tail "ticketing" hypothesis is to measure the distribution of poly(A) chain lengths in bulk mRNA as a function of translation.
If the hypothesis is correct, then shorter poly(A) tails should be underrepresented in actively translated mRNA.
This is because the poly(A) tail is shortened each time the mRNA is translated.
For example, investigating the localization of RNA with different lengths of poly(A) tails in the cell would not tell us whether the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation.
Similarly, overexpressing poly(A) polymerase would not tell us whether the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation, since poly(A) polymerase is responsible for adding poly(A) tails to mRNA, not removing them.
Here is a more detailed description of the experiment:
Isolate mRNA from cells that are actively translating the mRNA of interest. This can be done using a variety of methods, such as affinity chromatography or RNA sequencing.
Measure the length of the poly(A) tails on the mRNA. This can be done using a variety of methods, such as gel electrophoresis or PCR.
Compare the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in the actively translated mRNA to the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in total cellular mRNA.
If the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation, then the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in the actively translated mRNA should be shifted towards shorter poly(A) tails.
This experiment can be repeated with cells that are translating the mRNA of interest at different rates.
For example, cells can be treated with antibiotics that slow down translation or with amino acids that stimulate translation.
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The function of the umbilical cord is to carry blood and nutrients to the fetus and wastes back to the mother's blood stream.
True
False
Answer:
The answer is trueExplanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Through the blood vessels in the umbilical cord, the fetus receives all the necessary nutrition, oxygen, and life support from the mother through the placenta. Waste products and carbon dioxide from the fetus are sent back through the umbilical cord and placenta to the mother's circulation to be eliminated.
What increases the rate of soil formation?
What can you conclude about an ecosystem with many trophic levels?
A. It is an unhealthy ecosystem.
B. It is a stable ecosystem
C. It has very few producers.
D. It has no tertiary consumers.
Answer:
B. It is a stable ecosystem
Explanation:
B. It is a stable ecosystem.
Hope this helps!!!
Daphnia longicephala is a freshwater crustacean that can detect chemical cues produced by the predator Notonecta glauca. Researchers raised Daphnia clones and observed that those exposed to Notonecta chemical cues during their development produced larger protective crests, as described in Figures 1 and 2. Crest height and width are measured as ratios to body length. The increase in the size of the crest width and height is not associated with a corresponding change to the Daphnia’s genome. Researchers hypothesize that growing a crest is energetically costly, so Daphnia do not develop the large crests in the absence of Notonecta.
QUESTION: As a follow‑up experiment, researchers placed the Daphnia that were exposed to the Notonecta chemical cues into a tank without chemical cues. The Daphnia reproduced asexually, and the offspring developed in the tank without chemical cues. Predict the relative size of the crest height and width of offspring raised in the tank without chemical cues as compared to the parent Daphnia and justify.
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
⇒Whenever there’s a presence of Notonecta chemical cues there will be a change of epigenetic in the Daphnia genome due to which we are expected to observe differential gene expression in Daphnia in the presence of Notonecta chemical cues. This particular differential gene expression will overtime result to the development of higher and wider/larger crests.
⇒The comparative volume of the crest height and offspring width that was raised in tank without chemical cues is expected to be smaller as compared to the parent Daphnia.
⇒ A wider and higher crests are the outcome of the changes in epigenetic which are triggered by the presence of chemical cues. Since there will be no presence of these cues in the tank, these epigenetic changes will not be seen in offsprings as a result of the fact that there will be normal gene expression producing normal crest height and width.
Provide a genetic explanation for the origin of achromatopsia on Pingelap, and explain the most likely evolutionary model for the high frequency there of achromatopsia. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words given below to complete the sentences. Not all words will be used. 1. genetic drift 2. founder effect 3. genetic bottleneck4. inbreeding depression 5. 1/10 6. 1/20 7. 1/40 8. homozygote 9. heterozygote 10. predominant 11. eliminated The relatively high frequency of the mutant achromatopsia allele in the island population is due to ________ created by the typhoon. After the typhoon, the allele frequency was at least ________, corresponding to one male ________ among the 20 individuals surviving the storm. The mutant achromatopsia alleles of the male, along with those of the other reproducing survivors, become ________ in the expanding population.
Answer:
A
The high frequency of achromatopsia in the Pingelap is attributed to the bottleneck and founder effects. Both of these are forms of genetic drift.
B
Blanks:
The relatively high frequency of the mutant achromatopsia allele in the island population is due to 3. genetic bottleneck created by the typhoon.
After the typhoon, the allele frequency was at least 7. 1/40, corresponding to one male 9. heterozygote among the 20 individuals surviving the storm.
The mutant achromatopsia alleles of the male, along with those of the other reproducing survivors, become 10. predominant in the expanding population.
Explanation:
A
Achromatopsia is a rare, autosomal recessive form of complete colour blindness. Usually, only 1 in 20,000 people are affected with achromatopsia. However, Pingelap, a cluster of islands in the Federated States of Micronesia, possesses disease rates as high as 10% of 3000 people. 30% of the 3000 are reported to be carriers of the achromatopsia allele. This unnaturally high allele frequency is linked to a genetic drift event that occurred after a typhoon killed majority of the population, leaving just 20 survivors. In terms of evolution, this is known as the bottleneck effect i.e. a severe reduction in a population due to natural disasters or sudden drastic environmental change. The bottleneck effect yields only a few viable individuals in the population.
Out of the 20 survivors, one is believed to be a carrier (heterozygous) for the achromatopsia allele. All of the achromatopsia affected Pingelapese trace their ancestry to one carrier. This is known as the founder affect where one or only a few individuals form or continue the population. This results in narrowing of the gene pool and drastic loss of genetic variations.
B
Blanks:
All the blanks have been explained above. Allele frequencies are calculated as follows:
Every gene has 2 alleles, therefore, every person possesses alleles. Since, there were 20 individuals left, the total number of alleles in the population will be 40.Out of the 40, only one is recessive i.e. achromatopsia allele. Therefore, the allele frequency of the population left after the typhoon will be 1/40.The table below shows the average annual precipitation over a period of five years in three locations of
Florida.
Locations
Amount of precipitation
Between 45 to 65 inches
2
More than 96 inches
Less than 8 inches
Which of these statements is most likely true for Location 3? (3 points)
It is the most populated location
It is very far away from the ocean
Its people would depend on rivers for water
Its people would leave and migrate to other locations
The most likely scenario for Location 3 with less than 8 inches of annual precipitation is that its people would depend on rivers for their water supply.
Given that precipitation exceeds evaporation in most continental areas, rivers become crucial for supplying water to regions with low rainfall. In areas with annual precipitation less than 250 mm, human populations typically depend on alternative water sources, such as rivers, groundwater, or imported water, for their livelihoods and agricultural needs.
Moreover, areas with low precipitation might not support large populations effectively, so it would be less likely that Location 3 is the most populated. The statement about migration is speculative and cannot be determined from precipitation data alone.
The statement "Its people would depend on rivers for water" is most likely true for Location 3.
The correct option is (c).
Given that Location 3 receives less than 8 inches of precipitation annually, it falls into the category of regions with very low precipitation. In such areas, access to water sources becomes critical for human survival and various activities. Since the location receives minimal rainfall, people residing there would likely rely heavily on alternative water sources such as rivers for their water needs, including drinking, irrigation, and other domestic purposes.
While the other statements may be possible depending on additional factors, such as population density or geographical features, the statement about depending on rivers for water is the most directly related to the low precipitation levels experienced in Location 3.
A researcher is measuring the oxygen consumption of subjects while they are seated and performing 5 repetitions of concentric isotonic contractions at the rate of 0.5/second on an isolated muscle, the biceps brachii, loaded with 33% of the minimum isometric load. On the next day, the same subjects are required to perform 50 contractions at the same rate with the same load. What is likely to be different about the sarcomere functions during the second-day trials?
a. Greater power output
b. Higher cellular ATP/ADP ratio
c. Less oxygen consumption per second
d. More calcium release
e. Slower cross-bridge cycling
Answer:
c. Less oxygen consumption per second
Explanation:
The sarcomere is a functional unit of muscle tissue. During repeated muscle contractions, the oxygen delivery to the muscle is reduced. As noted in the question, the rate and load of muscle contractions are the same under both conditions but the differences in the number of contractions in the second day experiment only increase. So as the number of contractions increases, more time is required to work. But continuous work can lead to a shortage of oxygen. Therefore, due to low availability, less oxygen per second is consumed. Lactic acid production by anaerobic respiration through muscle tissue causes muscle fatigue. Considering other dubious options, there is no increase in load and there is not much power generation. At the same time, ATP consumption increases due to continuous contraction, so the cellular ATP / ADP ratio is generally reduced. Since the calcium release by the sarcomere is reduced during continuous muscle contraction and the contraction rate does not change, the cross-bridge cycling speed is not affected.Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and her colleagues carried out several experiments in an attempt to understand what determines the anterior and posterior ends of a Drosophila larva (reviewed in C. NüssleinVolhard, H. G. Frohnhofer, and R. Lehmann. 1987. Science 238:1675– 1681). They isolated fruit flies with mutations in the bicoid gene (bcd−). These flies produced embryos that lacked a head and thorax. When they transplanted cytoplasm from the anterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a mutant bicoid female, normal head and thorax development took place in the embryo. However, transplanting cytoplasm from the posterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a bicoid female had no effect. Explain these results in regard to what you know about proteins that control the determination of the anterior–posterior axis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Bicoid gene is the maternal effect gene whose protein concentration gradient patters the anterior-posterior axis in Drosophila embryogenesis. It was the primary protein that is demonstrated to act as a morphogen. Morphogens are proteins whose concentration gradient will affect the developmental fate of the surrounding region.
The specified bicoid gene is the one which codes for bicoid protein. This protein is being existing in a gradient manner in the egg and thus its concentration is higher at the anterior end and lower in posterior end.
This bicoid protein is responsible for the stimulation of the development of the anterior end.
The posterior region (including the hindgut) expands and extends towards the anterior pole along the dorsal side of the embryo. At this time, segments of the embryo become visible, creating a striped arrangement along the anterior-posterior axis.
Which of the following landforms is much lower than the surrounding land?
A
plateau
B
hill
C
canyon
D
butte
Answer:
C. Canyon
Explanation:
Canyons are valleys made by rivers eroding away land around them, creating large cracks in the ground.
Why did the paramecium die of dehydration when the water solute was raised all the way up AND lowered all the way down?Why did the paramecium die of dehydration when the water solute was raised all the way up AND lowered all the way down?
Answer:
There is a certain water potential maintained in the body of the paramecium, which can change in response to changes in its environment. When the water solute level is increased all the way up, the water potential in the surrounding is a lot lower than the water potential inside the paramecium. Due to this steep water potential gradient, water will leave the paramecium's cell into the surrounding via osmosis. Water being transported out of the paramecium will cause it to dehydrate and die.
In the opposite case where the solute level is lowered all the way down, no water will enter the paramecium cell because its water potential is lower than the surroundings. The difference in water potentials is so great that the water entering the paramecium's cell will cause to burst and die.
Note: remember that diffusion and osmosis takes place down the concentration gradient. The concentration of one environment is determined in reference to another.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
Even before the structure of DNA was elucidated, experimental evidence indicated that the hereditary material had to have three key properties. Choose a correct combination of the options : a. must allow faithful replication. b. must have informational content. c. must be able to change on rare occasions. d. must be in the nucleus. e. must be degenerate
Answer:
The correct combination for the 3 key properties is:
a. must allow faithful replication.
b. must have informational content.
c. must be able to change on rare occasions.
Explanation:
Since every cell in one particular body essentially contains the same DNA, it has to be copied accurately every time a cell divides. The information that the DNA codes for is the proteins that get translated and accounts for every feature that organism will have. These rare changes are known as mutations and they are critical to introducing variation in the species and allowing them to evolve in response to environmental stimulation.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
A strand of mRNA has the bases guanine-cytosine-uracil. Which amino acid
corresponds to these bases?
a. Crys
b. Arg
c. Alan
d. Ser
Answer:
See answer below
Explanation:
Hi there,
c. Ala (Alanine)
To get started, use the codon chart. Notice, the mRNA strand has a specific order in which bases are added. In this case, Guanine-Ctyosine-Uracil corresponds with G-C-U.
To read the codon chart, start off in the first position, which is G (blue row in picture). Next, to locate a specific box, look at the second position, which is C (orange column), and the specific box is located. At this point, a phenomena known as "wobbling" can happen. Wobbling is when there is redundancy in codon sequences where the same amino acid can still be produced, regardless of the third base.
The last nucleotide is U, which locates G-C-U, or Alanine.
thanks,
A strand of mRNA has the bases guanine-cytosine-uracil Aspartate or aspartic acid is an amino acid that corresponds to these bases.
how?
The amino acid that corresponds to each mRNA codon can be found in a table.Steps to determining the correct amino acid:Search the rows on the left side of the table for the first letter in the codon (here: G).Find the second letter (A in this case) in the columns. This limits the search to one cell in the table.To find the codon, look for the third letter (here: U) on the right side of the table (here: GAU). The amino acid abbreviation appears next to this codon (here: Asp).In this case, your mRNA codon is GAU (guanine-adenine-uracil), which corresponds to the Asp amino acid. This is aspartic acid.
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What process creates the sand dune
Answer:
A dune is a mound of sand formed by the wind, usually along the beach or in a desert. Dunes form when wind blows sand into a sheltered area behind an obstacle. Dunes grow as grains of sand accumulate. Every dune has a windward side and a slipface.
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Explanation:
Answer:
deflation
Explanation:
The process of Transcription occurs in the ___ and involves the copying of _____. This copied information will then be _____ in the cytoplasm to create a _____, which is composed of smaller building blocks called _____. During translation, individual ____are attached to one another via _____. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). _____ give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, _____ amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while ____are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
Word bank:
protein, covalent bond, hydrophobic, translated, amino acids, a portion of genome, hydrogen bonds, cytoplasm, the entire genome, transcribed again, hydrophilic, half the genome, mRNA strand, nucleus, replicated, nucleotides
Answer:
The process of Transcription occurs in the nucleus and involves the copying of a portion of the genome. This copied information will then be translated in the cytoplasm to create a protein, which is composed of smaller building blocks called amino acids. During translation, individual amino acids are attached to one another via covalent bond. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). Hydrogen bonds give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, hydrophobic amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while hydrophilic are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
Explanation:
Transcription is a process that happens in the nucleus in order to create an mRNA strand from a specific gene, which will then be translated into a protein. For transcription to happen, a protein called RNA Polymerase will take the DNA molecule and use one of its strands to synthesize its complementary strand. This newly synthesized RNA strand will suffer some modifications to become a mature mRNA strand.
The mature mRNA strand will leave the nucleus and be taken by a ribosome in the cytoplasm to start Translation - the process in which proteins are synthesized. During translation, each codon (composed by a sequence of 3 nucleotides) in the mRNA will code for one of the 20 possible amino acids. These amino acids are carried to the ribosome by the tRNA, and are linked with one another by peptide bonds, which is a type of covalent bond. The peptide bonds give rise to the primary structure of a protein. The secondary structure happens thanks to the hydrogen bonds. In the third and quaternary structure of a protein, which turns them into a three-dimensional macromolecule, the hydrophobic amino acids will locate in the center of the structure so they don't have to be in contact with water, while the hydrophilic amino acids remain on the peripheric sides of the protein.
The process of transcription occurs in the nucleus and involves the copying of a portion of the genome. This copied information will then be translated into the cytoplasm to create a protein, which is composed of smaller building blocks called amino acids. During translation, individual amino acids are attached to one another via a covalent bond. As the protein strand gets larger and leaves the ribosome, it begins to fold into the first phase of its 3-dimensional structure (secondary structure). Hydrogen bonds give rise to the protein's secondary structure. In the tertiary/quaternary structure of a protein, hydrophobic amino acids are typically found towards the center of the structure, while hydrophilic are found towards the outside of the protein, facing the watery environment of the cell.
It should be noted that transcription occurs in the nucleus to create an mRNA strand from a specific gene, which will then be translated into a protein.
For transcription to take place, a protein called RNA Polymerase will take the DNA molecule to synthesize its complementary strand.
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What is the value of biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, all have an important role to play. For example, A larger number of plant species means a greater variety of crops. Greater species diversity ensures natural sustainability for all life forms.
Biodiversity is valuable as it provides essential ecosystem services, supports human livelihoods and well-being, and adds to the richness and beauty of life on Earth.
What is biodiversity?Biodiversity is the variety of life on Earth, encompassing the diversity of species, ecosystems, and the genetic variation within species. Biodiversity is essential to the functioning of ecosystems and to the provision of a wide range of goods and services, including food, fuel, fiber, and medicine, as well as the regulation of the Earth's climate and the maintenance of soil fertility.
Biodiversity is also important for its own sake, as it provides a rich tapestry of life that has evolved over billions of years and is an essential part of our heritage and the heritage of future generations. The loss of biodiversity, through processes such as habitat destruction, overexploitation, and climate change, is a major environmental challenge that is undermining the capacity of the planet to support human well-being and the survival of other species.
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What is mechanical digestion? And chemical digestion? What type of digestion occurs in the mouth.
Mechanical digestion involves physically breaking down food into smaller pieces through chewing and swallowing, and begins in mouth and stomach. Chemical digestion involves breaking down food into simpler molecules with enzymes, starting in the mouth but mainly occurring in the small intestine.
Mechanical digestion refers to the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces which can be further processed by enzymes. In the mouth, mechanical digestion involves the process of chewing, which grinds food down into smaller pieces, and the action of swallowing.
Chemical digestion, on the other hand, is the chemical breakdown of food into simpler molecules by digestive enzymes. In the mouth, salivary enzymes begin the chemical digestion of carbohydrates. Both mechanical and chemical digestion occur in the mouth. While mechanical digestion continues in the stomach, chemical digestion is most extensive in the small intestine, helped by secretions from the pancreas and liver.
RNA synthesis is always 5' to 3' because: A. the unwinding of the double-stranded DNA can only move one direction B. the structure of ATP restricts 3' to 5' polymerization into RNA C. RNA synthesis can move in the 3' to 5' direction D. None of these E. nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus F. nitrogenous bases cannot pair up in the 3' to 5' direction
Answer:
The correct answer is option E. "nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus".
Explanation:
RNA synthesis is catalyzed by an enzyme called RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase always catalyze the synthesis of new RNA from 5' to 3' because nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus. This has been confirmed in labeling experiments with γ-32P substrates which establish the presence of a triphosphate moiety in transcripts with either pppG or pppA.
Answer:
The correct answer is: E) nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus.
Explanation:
RNA synthesis is a key process that happens in the nucleus and is important for the synthesis of proteins. In order to Transcription (the process in which a strand of RNA is synthesized from a specific gene) to occur, the enzyme RNA Polymerase is needed to catalyze it. However, this process has a particular way to operate, since the synthesis of the new RNA strand can only be from 5' to 3' because the nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus.
which of the following could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing?
An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
What is speciation?Speciation has a slow process which has been associated with the emergence of the reproductive isolation barriers in the population. These barriers lead to the absence of the gene flow as well as eventually to the emergence of the new species. In the conclusion an available niche will be lead to the speciation in other competing species.
The Ordovician mass extinction. Jawless fish and ocean reefs were devastated by the end of the Ordovician mass extinction. Overfishing is one of the major concern no a days in aquatic systems. overfishing is resulting in the extinction of aquatic organisms and it can lead to several damage to other living organism.
Therefore, An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
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True or false most mammals belong to group known as invertebrates
Answer:
False
Explanation:
All mammals are vertabrates, because they are in the phylum chordata, meaning that all of the animals there have vertebrae. In fact, all mammals have exactly 7 neck vertebrae, no matter how long their neck is.
In the cell, newly made proteins move directly from the ribosomes into the rough where they are chemically modified.
Answer:
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
The journey of newly synthesized proteins involves their movement from ribosomes to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where they undergo initial chemical modifications such as glycosylation and folding. Subsequently, the Golgi apparatus further refines and sorts these proteins before packaging them for transport to their final cellular locations.
The intracellular journey of newly synthesized proteins involves a well-coordinated process within the cell. After being produced by ribosomes, proteins move into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for further processing. The endoplasmic reticulum comes in two forms: rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). In this context, the rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the initial stages of protein synthesis.
As proteins emerge from the ribosomes, they enter the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. The ribosomes associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum impart a studded appearance, indicative of their involvement in protein synthesis. Within the rough endoplasmic reticulum, these newly synthesized proteins undergo crucial post-translational modifications, including glycosylation and folding.
Glycosylation involves the addition of sugar molecules to the protein, contributing to its stability and functionality. Proper folding is essential for the protein to attain its functional three-dimensional structure. The modified and folded proteins are then transported to the Golgi apparatus for further processing and sorting. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for additional chemical modifications, sorting, and packaging proteins into vesicles for transport to their final cellular destinations.
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The question probable may be:
How is the intracellular journey of newly synthesized proteins facilitated, and where do they undergo chemical modifications after being produced by ribosomes?
Sunlight can be considered a food resource.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
True
False
Answer:
True!!
Explanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation: edge 2020
elements are joined chemically
mixuture or compound
Answer:
compounds
Explanation:
compounds are chemically combined
mixtures are not chemically combined
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T.W. Engelmann did an experiment where he separated the wavelengths (colors) of light using a prism, and illuminated a chain of algae cells so that each cell received 1 color of light. He then added oxygen-loving bacteria to the mixture and saw that they preferentially went to the algae using red and blue light. He concluded (correctly) that red and blue light were the most efficiently used in photosynthesis (producing the most oxygen for the bacteria). Suppose that you did the same experiment, but did not use a prism to separate the wavelengths of light. Where will the bacteria go?
Answer:
The bacteria will be evenly distributed on the chain of algae
Explanation:
If the component of white light is not separated by a prism, all the components will be evenly distributed in space and as such, equal amount of each component will go to the chain of algae.
The equal amount of each light component that goes to the chain of algae will ensure that there is equal rate of photosynthesis, and hence, oxygen production in each algae. Consequently, the oxygen-requiring bacteria will spread out evenly on the chain of algae without concentrating particularly on any algae.
A cell that neither gains nor loses a net amount of water at equilibrium when it is immersed in a solution is ________. Group of answer choices hypertonic to its environment hypotonic to its environment metabolically inactive isotonic to its environment
Answer:
Isotonic to its environment
Explanation:
Isotonic means 'the same'. A cell that is isotonic to its environment is the type of cell that doesn't lose or gain water because equal amounts go in and out of the cell. The environment extracellular fluid has the same osmolarity as the cell thus, there will be no net movement of water into or out of the cell.
If skeletal muscles work to the point of fatigue, the muscle cells may not have sufficient oxygen to carry out aerobic respiration. What processes do muscle cells use if oxygen is not available for aerobic respiration? electron transport chain ethanol fermentation lactic acid fermentation glycolysis
Answer:
Lactic acid fermentation
Explanation:
Lactic acid fermentation is the process that is utilized by the cell to produce energy in the form of ATP. it is the process by which glucose and other six-carbon sugars and also some disaccharides are converted into energy and the metabolite lactate, which is lactic acid in solution.
Due to the absence of oxygen, this process converts 3-carbon pyruvate to the 3-carbon lactic acid in the cytoplasm producing NAD+, allowing glycolysis to continue to produce ATP in low-oxygen conditions. although accumulation of lactic acid can lead to cramps.
Answer:
Lactic acid fermentation
Which of the statements regarding DNA replication are true? Replication takes place in the 5 ′ 5′ to 3 ′ 3′ direction on the leading strand and in the 3 ′ 3′ to 5 ′ 5′ direction on the lagging strand. Replication usually takes place in the 5 ′ 5′ to 3 ′ 3′ direction. Eukaryotic chromosomes have more than one origin of replication. Leading strand fragments (Okazaki fragments) are synthesized semi‑discontinuously and must be joined by DNA ligase. New nucleotides add to the 5 ′ 5′ phosphate of the growing DNA molecule.
Answer:
replication takes place from 5' to 3'
Explanation:
DNA replication goes from 5' to 3' for both the leading and lagging strands. However, lagging strand replication is semi-discontinuous, occurring via Okazaki fragments which are then linked by DNA ligase. Eukaryotic chromosomes do indeed have several replication origins.
Explanation:You're right that DNA replication typically takes place from the 5' to 3' direction, and this pattern holds true for both the leading and lagging strands. During replication, DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, resulting in a 5' to 3' directionality. However, the replication method differs between the leading and lagging strand. For the leading strand, DNA replication is continuous. For the lagging strand, DNA replication takes place in chunks known as Okazaki fragments, which are later joined together by DNA ligase - hence, it is described as being synthesized semi-discontinuously. Additionally, it's accurate that eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication to speed up the process.
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