Set up the payoff matrix. You are deciding whether to invade France (F), Sweden (S) or Norway (N), and your opponent is simultaneously deciding which of these three countries to defend. If you invade a country that your opponent is defending, you will be defeated (payoff: −1), but if you invade a country your opponent is not defending, you will be successful (payoff: +1).

Answer:

$43,130

Explanation:

Wala Inc.

Cash disbursements = (Variable selling and administrative cost x Number of direct-labor hours) + (Fixed manufacturing overhead less depreciation)

= (4,100 x $4.00) + ($30,140 - $3,410)

=$16,400+$26,730

=$43,130

Answer:

$10,560

Explanation:

For computing the depreciation expense for the second year first we have to find out the depreciation per unit which is shown below:

= (Original cost - salvage value) ÷ (estimated production units)

= ($136,000 - $4,000) ÷ (120,000 units)

= ($132,000) ÷ (120,000 units)

= $1.1 per unit

Now for the second year, the depreciation expense would be

= Production units in second year × depreciation per unit

= 9,600 units × $1.1

= $10,560

The machine's second-year depreciation under the units-of-production method is $10,560.

To determine the machine's second-year depreciation under the units-of-production method, we need to calculate the depreciation per unit and then multiply it by the number of units produced in the second year. Here's the calculation:

Depreciation per unit = (Cost - Salvage Value) / Total Units of Production

Depreciation per unit = ($136,000 - $4,000) / 120,000 units

Depreciation per unit = $132,000 / 120,000 units

Depreciation per unit = $1.10 per unit

Number of units produced in the second year = 9,600 units

Second-year depreciation = Depreciation per unit * Number of units produced in the second year

Second-year depreciation = $1.10 per unit * 9,600 units

Second-year depreciation = $10,560

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Answer: $10,000

Explanation:

I know this question looks like a lot but it isn't. It is simply asking how much gain was made in the cash that was exchanged.

Now we see that the company acquired the building for $50,000 but acquired the mortgage on it of $40,000 and hence paid off the balance of $10,000 to Al.

So the gain was,

Cash in the amount transferred = (fair market value - mortgage)

= $50,000) - $40,000

= $10,000

$10,000 is the gain that Al should recognize as a result of this transaction.

Answer:

The correct answer is option (d).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Truck cost = $20,000

Net income from truck = $4,000

If work somewhere else, Net income = $3,000

If he work some where else he save $20,000.

If the interest rate is 5%, then,

Interest amount = 5% × $20,000 = $1,000

So, it means, if the interest rate is 5%, and he work some where else than his net income = $3,000 + $1,000 = $4,000.

So, If the real interest is less than 5% only than purchasing a truck is the right option.

Hence, purchase the truck if the real interest rate is less than 5% is correct.

Based on the information given, Joe should D. purchase the truck if the real interest rate is less than 5%.

When the interest rate is 5%, the interest amount will be:

= 5% × $20000

= 0.05 × $20000

= $1000

His net income after paying interest will be:

= $4000 - $1000 = $3000

When working for someone else, he'll earn a net income of $3,000 per year.

Therefore, it's better if he purchases the truck if the real interest rate is less than 5%.

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To calculate the income elasticity of demand using the midpoint method, we need to know the initial and final quantities of the good and the initial and final incomes. In this case, Lauren's initial salary is $44,000, and it decreases to $30,000. The initial quantity of outfits purchased is 20, and it decreases to 19. The income elasticity of demand for new outfits is -0.0076, indicating that outfits are an inferior good.

To calculate the income elasticity of demand using the midpoint method, we need to know the initial and final quantities of the good and the initial and final incomes. In this case, Lauren's initial salary is $44,000, and it decreases to $30,000. The initial quantity of outfits purchased is 20, and it decreases to 19.

Using the midpoint method formula:

Income Elasticity = (Q2 - Q1) / [(Q1 + Q2)/2] / (I2 - I1) / [(I1 + I2)/2]

Substituting the values, we get:

Income Elasticity = (19 - 20) / [(20 + 19)/2] / ($30,000 - $44,000) / [($44,000 + $30,000)/2]

Simplifying the expression, we have:

Income Elasticity = -0.053 / $7,000 = -0.0076

Since the income elasticity is negative, it means that outfits are an inferior good for Lauren. The absolute value of the income elasticity is less than 1, indicating that outfits are a basic necessity rather than a luxury.

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Answer:

Second year :

Nominal rate = 8.15%

Real rate = 5%

Third year :

Nominal rate = 6.00%

Real rate = 4.95%

Explanation:

Nominal return =(Interest + price change) / initial price

Real rate of return = (1 + nominal rate) / (1 + inflation) - 1

Second year:

Nominal return = [53.05 + (1060.90 - 1030)]÷ 1030

(53.05 + 30.90) ÷ 1030 = 0.0815 = 8.15%

Real rate

[(1 + 0.0815) ÷ (1 + 0.03)] - 1

(1.0815 ÷ 1.03) - 1 = 0.05 = 5%

THIRD YEAR:

Nominal return = [53.58 + (1071.51 - 1060.90)]÷ 1060.90

(53.05 + 10.61) ÷ 1060.90 = 0.060 = 6.00%

Real rate

[(1 + 0.060) ÷ (1 + 0.01)] - 1

(1.060 ÷ 1.01) - 1 = 0.0495 = 4.95%

To calculate the real and nominal rates of return on the TIPS bond in the second and third years, divide the total payment in a particular year by the total payment in the previous year and subtract 1, then multiply by 100. The real rate of return is calculated by subtracting the inflation rate from the nominal rate of return.

To calculate the real and nominal rates of return on the TIPS bond in the second and third years, we need to know the formula for the rates of return. The nominal rate of return can be calculated by dividing the total payment in a particular year by the total payment in the previous year, subtracting 1, and multiplying by 100. The real rate of return can be calculated by subtracting the inflation rate from the nominal rate of return.

For the second year, the total payment is $53.05 and the total payment in the previous year is $51.50, so the nominal rate of return is (($53.05 / $51.50) - 1) * 100 = 2.99%. Since the inflation rate is 3% for the second year, the real rate of return is 2.99% - 3% = -0.01%

For the third year, the total payment is $1,125.08 and the total payment in the previous year is $53.05, so the nominal rate of return is (($1,125.08 / $53.05) - 1) * 100 = 2,017.42%. Since the inflation rate is 1% for the third year, the real rate of return is 2,017.42% - 1% = 2,016.42%.

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Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Journal Entries to be recorded in the books of Partnership accounts

a)Jesse's Investment

Account Name                                           Debit($)             Credit($)

Accounts Receivable(48,000-3600)            44300  

Equipment(Agreed Price)               68,500  

Allowance for Doubtful Debts                                     2500

Jesse,Capital A/c(Balancing Figure)                   110300

b.Tim's Investment

Account Name                                             Debit($)      Credit($)

Cash                                                              22000  

Inventory(At Agreed price)                             48000  

Tim Capital                                                                         70,000

Answer:

$1,079.22

Explanation:

The price of a bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash inflows expected from the bond discounted using the yield to maturity.

These cash flows include interest payment and redemption value

The price of the bond can be calculated as follows:

Step 1

PV of interest payment

Semi-annual coupon rate = 9.5%/2 = 4.75%

Semi-annual Interest payment =( 4.75%×$1000)= $47.5

Semi annual yield = 8%/2 = 4%

PV of interest payment

= A ×(1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

A- interest payment, r- yield - 4%, n- no of periods- 2 × 7 = 14 periods

= 47.5× (1-(1.04)^(-7×2))/0.04)

= 501.748

Step 2

PV of redemption value (RV)

PV = RV × (1+r)^(-n)

RV - redemption value- $1000, n- 7, r- 4.5%

= 1,000 × (1+0.04)^(-2×7)

= 577.475

Step 3

Price of bond = PV of interest payment + PV of RV

$ 501.7483391 + 577.4750828

=$1,079.22

Crane will pay =$1,079.22

c ) Teena is not liable because the duty of care was not breached.

Explanation:

Even Teena is responsible for ordering inventory for large sport utility vehicles  which uses great quantities of gasoline. The war in the Middle East happens unexpectedly and that war interrupts the supply of gasoline (oil) to the United States.,this is the main reason for decreasing the demand of large sport utility vehicles.,

Middle east region is the main and largest suppliers of oil in the world ., Here The War is the main reason for the shortage of oil and creates problem to get inventory like gasoline to united states.,Prediction of sudden wars is not a possible one. So in this case Teena is not liable because the duty of care was not breached.

Answer:

Mr and Mrs Mitchell should get it

Explanation:

The reason is that during the Auctioning of the used safe, legal transfer of ownership have took place. The transfer of ownership which is legal and recognizable at law with some consideration with was the $50 has made the transactions successful. The court will call off the ensuing of Mr and Mrs Mitchell also due to be fact that they were not aware of such prior to their transaction of Aution.

However, the $32,000 can be return to the plaintiff if Mr and Mrs Mitchell wishes to do so.

It is not necessary and enforced by the law to return such money, it is at their own discretion.

Answer:

c.$36,750

Explanation:

If Bulls Division were dropped, then the total segment margin would be $147,000 and the total common cost would be $110,250, Then:

Operating income = Segment margin - Total cost

                               = $147,000 - $110,250

                               = $36,750

Therefore, The Operating income for Knickers Corporation as a whole if the Bulls division were dropped would be $36,750.

To find Knickers Corporation's operating income without the Bulls division, subtract the Bulls' segment margin from the current total operating income and add back any direct fixed expenses that would no longer be incurred. The calculated operating income without the Bulls division is $99,750.

In determining the operating income for Knickers Corporation without the Bulls division, we must look at how the elimination of the division will impact the company's finances. Specifically, we should consider only the costs and revenues that will change if the Bulls division is discontinued. The allocated common costs would not be eliminated because these costs are typically corporate overhead and would still be incurred by the company even if the Bulls division was dropped.

The calculation is as follows: Operating income without the Bulls division would be the current total operating income minus the Bulls division's segment margin, but adding back the direct fixed expenses that would be avoided if the division were dropped. Therefore, the operating income without the Bulls division = $178,500 (current total operating income) - $31,500 (Bulls division's segment margin) + $105,000 (Bulls division's direct fixed expenses), resulting in an operating income of $252,000.

Thus, we can conclude that the correct answer would be:
Operating income for Knickers Corporation without the Bulls division = $252,000 - $152,250 (total current segment margin without Bulls' segment margin and adding back Bulls' direct fixed expenses) = $99,750.

Answer:

The rate at which money circulates through an economy.

Explanation:

In Macroeconomics, the term velocity refers to the speed at which money circulates in an economy, and it is a variable in a fundamental macroeconomic equation, the quantity theory of money equation:

M x V = P x T

Which states that the price of goods and services is equal to the amount of money in an economy, or its money supply (M) multiplied by the Velocity of circulation of money, which is in turn equal to price (P) multiplied by the number of transactions (T).

Answer:

The payoff for holders of Bond B is $2,000,000

Explanation:

The senior bond takes priority over the subordinated bond when it comes redeeming bondholders investment in the business.

The senior bond has a lower risk as it is paid first in the event of liquidation,though attracts a lower rate of return since return and risk are positive related.

The subordinated is ranked lower than the senior debt but may command a higher rate of return because of its high risk.

Assets worth                                            $5,000,000

repayment of senior debt                        ($3,000,000)

Balance left for subordinated debt          $2,000,000

Answer:

c. reducing time to market

Explanation:

While deciding upon production facility, an enterprise has to take into consideration the following factors:

In the given case, the company deals in environmental friendly cleaning agents and is looking for the ideal site for it's production process. It is essential that the production facility be well connected with the market for inputs required for production.

Hence it is evident that the important location consideration for the company is reducing the time to market since rail hubs and highways connectivity reduces such time and transportation cost as well.

Answer:

a.true

b.false

Explanation:

The advantage of short-term financing is better seen when a capital project is financed by a non- current liability.Where the period of Investment is longer than the period the financial charge is applied to the firm

Eliminating the mountain bike division will result in a loss of sales revenue, but also savings on variable and some fixed costs. The net impact is a further decrease in operating income by $131,500, making it less advantageous to eliminate the division.

To determine the impact on operating income for Soar Incorporated when considering the elimination of its mountain bike division, we need to evaluate the cost savings against the revenue that the division currently generates. The operating loss of the mountain bike division is $5,000, with sales of $1,052,000 and variable costs of $862,000. The fixed costs are $195,000, of which 30% can be eliminated if the division is dropped. Therefore, the savings in fixed costs are 0.30 x $195,000 = $58,500. If the mountain bike division is eliminated, the company would no longer incur its variable costs nor its segment of fixed costs, but it would also lose the division's sales revenue.

The calculation of the operating income impact would be as follows:

The net impact on operating income is thus: $862,000 (saved variable costs) + $58,500 (saved fixed costs) - $1,052,000 (lost revenue) = - $131,500. This implies that eliminating the mountain bike division would decrease operating income by $131,500 compared to the current loss of $5,000, therefore eliminating the division will not be advantageous based on these financials alone.

Answer:

It would decrease by $7,504.

Explanation:

The current ratio determines liquidity of a company. The current ratio is calculated by dividing total current assets from total current liabilities. The change in inventory will affect the current ratio of the company. In the consolidated financial statements the value of inventory is decreased due to exchange rate fluctuations. The change in value of inventory will affect the amount reported in the balance sheet of the parent and will ultimately result in reduction of current ratio.

Answer:

managers become more specialized, enabling them to become more productive

Explanation:

Economies of scale is defined as the benefit a company gains by producing at a larger scale. This can result in increased profit because of lower cost per unit input used, use of technology to increase productivity, borrowing of money at lower interest rate.

When a company increases scale of production managers tend to be more specialised and this increases their effiency and productivity in that aspect. This improves overall productivity in the company

Answer:

D . $506, 693.

Explanation:

The proper cost apportioning method to be used is ratio. ratio is an expression of two or more items in mathematical term expressing the proportional relationship between them

Corporate advertising cost - $825,000

Division A sales revenue -$4,900,000

Division B sales revenue - $ 7,800,000

Total revenue                       $12,700,000

Division Being the higher revenue earner = 7,800,000/12,700,000*825,000

= $506,693

Answer:

The correct answer is $12.5.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Dividend = $1

Growth rate = 9%

Rate of return = 17%

So, we can calculate the current value of stock by using following formula:

Current value of stock = Dividend ÷ ( Rate of return - Growth rate )

By putting the value, we get

Current value = $1 ÷ ( 17% - 9%)

= $1 ÷ 0.08

= $12.5

Answer:

A. 2.2 cents

Explanation:

The computation of cost per copy for accounting department is shown below:-

Total copies = Purchase + Accounting + Information technology

= $150,000 + $450,000 + $200,000

= $800,000

Cost for accounting department = Accounting ÷ Total copies × New copier

= $450,000 ÷ $800,000 × $17,600

= $9,900

Now, Cost per copy = Cost for accounting department ÷ Accounting

= $9,900 ÷ $450,000

= 2.2 cents

Final answer:

The overhead allocated each time a copy is made by the accounting department of Barnes & Cohen's new copier is 1.76 cents, calculated based on the total cost of the copier and the total expected number of copies it will produce.

Explanation:

To calculate the overhead allocation for each copy made by the accounting department, we need to first understand the total cost of the copier and the total expected number of copies. The copier costs $17,600 and is expected to generate 1,000,000 copies over its lifespan. The overhead cost per copy can be calculated as the total cost divided by the total expected copies, which is $17,600 / 1,000,000 = $0.0176 or 1.76 cents per copy. Since the accounting department's copies are part of the total copies, the overhead allocated each time a copy is made by the accounting department is also 1.76 cents, matching option C).

Answer:

$62,230

Explanation:

The computation of the total combined direct labor cost for the two months is presented below:

   Particulars                                       October          November

A. Budgeted units to be produced     6,400 units   6,300 units

B. Direct labor hour per unit                0.50                   0.50

C. Direct labor rate per hour               $9.80           $9.80

D. Direct labor cost for the month (A × B × C)

                                                             $31,360           $30,870

Therefore the total combined direct labor cost is

= $31,360 + $30,870

= $62,230

We simply multiplied the number of units produced with the direct labor per unit and the direct labor rate per hour so that the direct labor cost could arrive

Answer:

IRR is 12%

Explanation:

The internal rate of return on the investment can be computed using the IRR formula in excel:

=IRR(values)

The values are the cash flows for the relevant years arranged as shown below:

Years   Cash flows

0             -$104,972

1                $23,000

2               $23,000

3               $23,000

4               $23,000

5               $23,000

6                $23,000

7                $23,000

=irr(values from -$104,972-$23,000 in year 7)

irr=12%

Kindly find attached excel with the computation of IRR as well

The internal rate of return is the rate of return on investment where present value of cash inflows equal the initial investment

Answer:

Cash Dr $10,900

Accumulated depreciation $19,800

Loss on sale of equipment $4,300

            To Equipment $35,000

(Being the sale is recorded)

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Cash Dr $10,900

Accumulated depreciation $19,800

Loss on sale of equipment $4,300

            To Equipment $35,000

(Being the sale is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= ($35,000 - $2,000) ÷ 5 years × 3 years

= $19,800

Since the sale is made so we debited the cash for $10,900 and along with it the accumulated depreciation is also debited plus the purchase value of equipment is credited and the balancing figure is transferred to the loss on sale of equipment

Answer:

  1.   weighted average number of outstanding common share

As at Jan                                      24,000

New issues :

May 1         3000*8/12                   2000

Sep 30    2000*3/12                        500

                                                 26,500

2.  Basic Earnings per share for 2016 = Net income - Preferred dividend / weighted average number of outstanding shares

                                                       =  ($72,500 - 10,625)/26,500

                                                      = $2.33

Preferred stock dividend  =  8.5%*2,500 *$50  =  $10,625

3. Diluted Earning per share  for 2016 =( Net income + after tax income saved )/ weighted average number of outstanding common stock

   Dilluted EPS  =   $82,125/39000 = $2.11

Incremental EPS :

Bond =              $9,625/5000  = $1.93

Preferred stock  =  $10,625/7500 =  $1.42

Workings

Earnings

Net Income  =                                    $72,500

After tax saved income:

Bond(100-30%)*250,000*5.5%      =   9,625

                                                              82,125

Number of common stock from conversion

Preferred stock  = 2500*3 = 7,500

Bond  = ($250,000/$1,000)* 20 = 5,000

weighted average number of share outstanding  =   26,500+ 7500+5000

                                                                                 =  39,000

4a. Basi Eraning per share  = ( $72,500 + 18,000)/ 26,500

                                             =   $3.42

b. Basic EPS based on

Income form continuing operation   =  $90,500/26,500 =  $3.42

Loss from discointinued operation =  -$18,000/26,500  = -$0.68

Net Income                                      =   $72,500/26500   =   $2.74

                       =

Explanation:

The number of shares of common stock that should be used in calculating basic earnings per share (EPS) for 2016 is 26,500. The basic EPS for 2016 is $2.74, while the diluted EPS, considering convertible preferred stocks and bonds, is $1.92 per share.

To answer this question, let's first calculate the weighted average number of outstanding common stocks for 2016. The company began the year with 24,000 shares, then issued 3,000 more on May 1 (that's 8 months of contribution) and another 2,000 on September 30 (3 months of contribution).

The weighted average is therefore: 24,000 + (3,000 * 8/12) + (2,000 * 3/12) = 26,500 shares

Next, we calculate the basic EPS by dividing the net income by the average shares calculated above. The basic EPS is: $72,500 / 26,500 shares = $2.74 per share.

For diluted EPS, both the convertible preferred stocks and the convertible bonds need to be considered. So the potential additional shares are: (2,500 shares * 3) + (250,000 / $1,000 * 20) = 12,500. Therefore, the total shares including dilution would be 26,500 + 12,500 = 39,000 shares.

To calculate diluted EPS, we need to adjust net income by adding back after-tax interest expense on the convertible bonds. The total income will be $72,500 + (250,000 * 5.5% * (1-30%)) = $74,875. Now, the diluted EPS is $74,875 / 39,000 shares = $1.92 per share.

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Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

in solving the question above, we need to first calculate:

∡= 1/hour

∡= 2/hour

Server Utilization(\rho) = 1/2= 0.5

Average Number of people in the system

L= ∡/π-∡

= 1/2-1= 1 person in the system in an hour

Expected money in an hour the customer gets = 32* Number of customers in the system = 32*1= 32

Answer:

Explanation:

Choose one item from the following list that you understand well enough to evaluate.

Develop several criteria of evaluation that you could defend to distinguish excellence from meritocracy in the US area.

First we need to understand what meritocracy and excellence are after which we can choose any topic from the list and evaluate it using these.

What is meritocracy?

Meritocracy is Governance by elites who deserve to wield power because they possess merit (defined as 'intelligence plus effort') instead of by those who merely possess wealth or belong to privileged classes.

Such a system, in theory, forms the basis of an 'equal opportunity' society. But, in practice, unrestricted meritocracy may result in a society without rules and concentrate power in only a few hands. The term was coined by the UK sociologist Michael Young in 1958 book, 'The Rise of Meritocracy.'

Hence we can infer that meritocracy is governance by elites who possess intelligence along with efforts (hard work).

Now we thing of what is governance by excellence?

Excellence means that you're indispensable. At least right now, in this moment, there's no one else I would choose but you. You, the excellent one, are so surprising, so delightful, so over-the-top.

The Governance Excellence model identifies 3 inputs that boards and senior management should strive to align to maximise performance and generate sustainable results for all stakeholders.

These inputs are Value, Capability and Support and represent the following areas of the business and organization:

Value

Capability

Support

So in order to understand the scenario with the case subjects we choose from the list the Smart phones for understanding the market share and customer preference for smartphones and is it due to excellence or meritocracy.

First we prepare the list of popular smartphones that are sold in US:    

Rank

Brand

Units shipment (millions)

Market Share (%)

1

Samsung

82.8

22

2

Apple

46.7

12.4

3

Huawei

39.1

10.4

4

Oppo

30.0

8

5

Xiaomi

28

7.4

Here it can be inferred from the point of view of meritocracy as:

Meritocracy of Samsung as a brand in US market:

Launches unique products which are first in market

Advance and reliable technology

Pioneer in smartphone design and adaptability

Meritocracy of Apple as a Brand:  

Apple is more inn innovative and refined than Samsung

Uses its own operating system and hardware

Unique design and brand quotient

Meritocracy of Huawei as a brand in US:

It plays in the niche market of having advance software and hardware compositions.

The built quality is not so good and smartphones manufacturing is not the prime business of the enterprise.

Meritocracy of Xiaomi as a brand in the US market:

Routine design and adapts prevalent concepts that are ongoing in the market.

Uses not so premium hardware and software.

Built quality is not so good and misses refinement.

Hence the meritocracy of these market players in the smartphone market in the US justify their market share they hold.

On the other hand when we analyze the same data with excellence as our perspective we find:

Excellence of Samsung as a brand:

Wide spread marketing and advertisement strategy.

Customer feedback and trial runs

Participation in international platforms for promotion of brand visibility.

Enduring hardware.

Wide spectrum of models available.

Efficient supply chain.

Excellence of Apple:

Manufactures only premium products with custom hardware.

Appeals to a certain range of customers.

Costly and efficient.

Research and development.

Limited models available.

Costly supply chain.

Whereas excellence of rest three brands can be assessed jointly as:

Efficient supply chain.

Good advertising and marketing.

Then choose an item you don’t know much about and explain the research you might perform to discover reasonable criteria of evaluation for it.

Hip-hop bands is an area that I don’t know much about and would like to do an extensive market research to understand the effects of excellence and meritocracy as effective in their market success.

List: Smart phones, NFL quarterbacks, fashion designers, Navajo rugs, UN secretary generals, contemporary painters, hip-hop bands, organic vegetables, athletic shoes, historic U.S. battlegrounds, breeds of dogs, former British prime ministers

Defining criteria is critical for evaluate and compare papers, to assess subjects like NFL quarterbacks or Navajo rugs. Criteria can combine universal standards and personal taste, and should be well-justified, especially when controversial.

In an evaluate and compare paper, defining criteria is essential for judging the merits and weaknesses of different subjects. To evaluate excellence in NFL quarterbacks, for example, one could assess their accuracy, leadership, agility, and records. Conversely, to understand Navajo rugs, which one may be less familiar with, research could include studying patterns, cultural significance, weaving techniques, and material quality, perhaps by consulting with experts or reading dedicated literature on the subject.

Criteria for evaluation can include universally accepted standards as well as personal preferences. These criteria provide the backbone of our judgments and ensure that our evaluations are well-rounded and can be defended. In any evaluation argument, clarifying and justifying the chosen criteria is crucial, particularly if they're subject to controversy or debate, which can be supported by citing authoritative sources or aligning them with common values.

Answer:

The answer is:

Lower than 12%

Explanation:

The realized compound yield on this bond must lower than the initial yield of 12%

This lead to what will call reinvestment risk. Reinvestment risk is more likely when interest rates are declining(going down).

When interest rate declines, an investor loses money because the real value of the money or fund will be reduced. And reinvesting the money that was initially at 12 percent interest rate will be lower.

Final answer:

The realized compound yield on a bond, with reinvestment of interest at the coupon rate, will be between the coupon rate and the yield to maturity. Without precise calculations, it's not possible to give an exact number, but the yield will be closer to the coupon rate if the reinvestment rate matches the coupon rate.

Explanation:

The question at hand deals with the concept of bond pricing, yield to maturity (YTM), and investment returns. In the given scenario, a bond with a par value of $1,000, a coupon rate of 10%, and a current price of $850 is considered. Intuitively, if the interest payments are reinvested at the same rate as the coupon rate (which is 10%), the realized compound yield should be closer to the coupon rate than the YTM, since the reinvestment rate is not as high as the YTM (which is 12%).

However, because the YTM is higher than the reinvestment rate, the actual realized compound yield would be somewhere between the coupon and the YTM, but we can't provide a precise value without additional calculations. When it comes to the bonds market value, if the market interest rate is higher than the coupon rate, the bond's price will be below par value as investors would demand a higher return, making the current bond less attractive unless it is sold at a discount.

Answer:

Total Equivalent Units  Materials= 231,000  

Total Equivalent Units  Conversion Costs= 198500

Explanation:

Concord Company

Given

Physical Units

Work in process, May 1 (65%) 60800

Completed and transferred out 181000

Work in process, May 31 (35%) 50000

All materials are added at the beginning of the production process.

Particulars         Units      % of Completion                Equivalent Units

                                      Mat. Conversion Costs     Mat. Conversion Costs

W. I. P, May 31  50,000       100          (35%)             50,000         17500

Completed and

transferred out 181000    100          100                181000           181000      

Total Equivalent Units                                          231,000           198500

The equivalent units are calculated by either adding the beginning work in process and  units started or by adding Ending Wip and completed and transferred units.

Answer:

I'm sorry hun! doesnt look like I know this one