Answer:
b. mRNA from DNA
Explanation:
Transcription is the process of synthesis of RNA using a DNA template strand. The process of transcription occurs inside the nucleus in eukaryotes as their DNA is present in the nucleus.
The process includes unwinding of DNA double helix to expose the DNA template strand. The enzyme RNA polymerase binds to the specific start sites on the DNA template strand and starts making its RNA copy.
The newly formed RNA undergoes modification in eukaryotes before serving as a template for protein synthesis. However, in prokaryotes, the process of transcription and translation can occur simultaneously.
What are the major diseases affecting this circulatory system? Are any related to lifestyle or behavioral causes? Can anything be done to minimize the risk of these diseases?
Answer:
Some of the major circulatory system disease are given below
1) High blood pressure
2) Atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
3) Heart attack
4) Heart failure
5) strokes
6) Peripheral artery disease
Explanation:
Some of the major circulatory system disease are given below
1) High blood pressure
2) Atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
3) Heart attack
4) Heart failure
5) strokes
6) Peripheral artery disease
disease which caused due to lifestyle and behavioral are
1) Atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
2) High blood pressure
3 Heart attack
4) Heart failure
5) stroke
some key point to remember to diminished the chances of circulatory disease are
1) try to avoid overweight.
2) Don’t smoke.
3) Exercise daily for minimum 30 minutes per day.
4) Maintain a healthy diet consist of low-fat, low-cholesterol and more fruits, green vegetables.
5 ) Limit salt & alcohol
Do the food crops we eat today look identical to the way they used to look and naturally grow? Why or why not?
a. Yes, because we haven't changed anything about our food crops
b. No, because GMOs have changed how all plants look and grow
c. No, because we select for certain traits that are favorable in food
d. Yes because whenever we genetically alter something, it can mutate back to the way it was before
Answer:
b. No, because GMOs have changed how all plants look and grow
Explanation:
A transgenic plant is a plant in which its genome has been modified by genetic engineering, to introduce one or several new genes, or to modify the function of a gene that is already inside the plant. As a consequence of this modification, the gene is transmitted to the offspring as a normal plant gene
The process of a transgenic plant has two important stages: transformation, which is when the gene is inserted into the genome of a plant cell that we want to change; and regeneration, which is when we already obtain a different plant from the transformed plant cell
The genes used help in obtaining new substances, changing the shape and time of plant development and also giving them the way to defend themselves against the elements that attack or damage normal plants. It is assumed that the transgenic plants were created to solve the problems that producers face due to pests, sudden climatic changes, lack of nutrients in the fields, diseases, etc., now with the transgenic at hand, we obtain better quality products, resistant or tolerant to all these factors that stalk them and even giving them greater performance.
Final answer:
Correct option is c. No, because we select for certain traits that are favorable in food. The food crops we eat today differ vastly from their wild ancestors due to thousands of years of human-led selective breeding and genetic modification, including both traditional breeding techniques and modern GMO technologies, to produce crops with desirable traits.
Explanation:
The food crops we eat today do not look identical to how they naturally grew in the wild due to human intervention through selective breeding and genetic modification. This process began thousands of years ago and involves selecting plants with desirable traits to breed, leading to significant changes in their genetic makeup over generations. This has resulted in the wide variety of crop species we have today that are better suited to human consumption, including changes in size, taste, and nutritional content. An example is maize, which was developed from a wild plant called teosinte in Southern Mexico through selective breeding, fundamentally altering its genetic instructions and appearance.
While GMOs (Genetically Modified Organisms) represent a more modern aspect of genetic manipulation, involving the direct editing of a plant's DNA to achieve desired traits such as disease resistance or increased yield, the history of crop modification is much older. Both traditional breeding and genetic engineering have played crucial roles in the development of the crops we consume, enhancing food security and reducing the environmental impact of agriculture. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 'No, because we select for certain traits that are favorable in food'.
Cyclic electron flow in the chloroplast produces
A) ATP
B) NADPH.
C) glucose
D) A and B.
E) A, B, and C
Final answer:
Cyclic electron flow in the chloroplast produces ATP by utilizing a created proton gradient, and it does not directly produce NADPH or glucose.
Explanation:
Cyclic electron flow in the chloroplast is involved in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. During this process, electrons are transferred in a cycle within the chloroplast and this flow is used to create a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane. This proton gradient is then utilized by the ATP synthase enzyme to produce ATP. Cyclic electron flow does not produce NADPH or glucose directly; NADPH is typically produced in the non-cyclic flow where electrons eventually reduce NADP+ to NADPH. Glucose is synthesized during the light-independent reactions, also known as the Calvin cycle, which uses ATP and NADPH produced by the light-dependent reactions.
This process occurs during the light reactions of photosynthesis. Cyclic electron flow generates ATP by creating a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane. It also produces NADPH, which is used in the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into glucose.
The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the
a. oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds.
b. flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
c. H+ concentration gradient across the membrane holding ATP synthase.
d. transfer of phosphate to ADP.
Answer: The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
ATP synthase is an enzyme present in inner mitochondrial membrane which catalyses the formation of ATP.
It gets energy directly from chemiosmosis, that is, diffusion of protons from inter-membrane space into mitochondrial matrix through ATP synthase.
The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain help in building the proton concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
The proton then diffuse down the concentration gradient provides the ATP synthase with energy required for synthesis of ATP.
The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative phosphorylation is the:
c. H+ concentration gradient across the membrane holding ATP synthase.During the ATP synthase, there is a movement of the enzyme which is responsible for the synthesis which forms the adenosine triphosphate.
As a result of this, energy is released from the chemiosmosis which moves the protons from where they are plentiful, to where they are needed .
This causes the H+ concentration gradient to move across the gradient which holds the ATP synthase.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
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Which action could produce a carbonyl group?
a. the replacement of the —OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen
b. the addition of a thiol to a hydroxyl
c. the addition of a hydroxyl to a phosphate
d. the replacement of the nitrogen of an amine with oxygen
Answer:
a. the replacement of the —OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen
Explanation:
By reduction methods a compound with a carboxylic acid group can be reduced. By adding H2 to said carboxylic group, some catalyst will be needed to allow this reaction to progress (in some cases metal palladium is usually used as a catalyst)
Before replacing the OH group, it is usually reacted to form an acyl chloride, which, when it is reduced with H2 and the catalyst is transformed into an acyl chloride and then rapidly reduced to form the carbonyl group and therefore the aldehyde
Replacing the -OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen will produce a carbonyl group. Carbonyl groups consist of a carbon atom double bonded to an oxygen atom.
Explanation:The correct action that could produce a carbonyl group is the replacement of the —OH of a carboxyl group with hydrogen. The carbonyl group consists of a carbon atom double bonded to an oxygen atom. When the —OH of a carboxyl group is replaced with a hydrogen, the remaining carbon-oxygen double bond forms a carbonyl group, represented by the formula —C=O. An important aspect to remember is that carbonyl groups are common in aldehydes and ketones.
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A short piece of DNA or RNA onto which DNA polymerase begins to add nucleotides
a. Leading strand
b. Okazaki fragment
c. primer
d. clamp-loading complex
Answer:
Primer
Explanation:
DNA polymerase can't start adding nucleotides without having something to "hold on" to. This is why it needs a small fragment of DNA or RNA that binds the DNA template where it needs to be copied. Without this primer, DNA polymerase doesn't work.
Answer:
c. primer
Explanation:
DNA polymerases are enzymes that carry out DNA replication. This enzyme cannot initiate the synthesis of the new chain, therefore, a short fragment of RNA that is called a primer must be created and must be matched to the chain that will be used as a template. Thus, the DNA polymerase enzyme begins to add nucleotides from the first one extending the 3 'end of the existing chain.
Below are steps performed to make an E. coli bacteria that can make human insulin protein for the health care market. List these steps in their proper order.
a. Use heat shock or electroporation to get the recombinant human insulin gene to go into a living E. coli cell.
b. Grow the E. coli in fermentation culture, extract and sell Humulin.
c. Modify the human gene and give it a promoter that will be turned on in E. coli cells.
d. Extract the DNA from a human who does not have diabetes
e. Isolate and clone (make copies of) the gene encoding the insulin protein
Answer:
The following are the steps for making the human insulin protein for the health care market:
1. Obtain the DNA from a human being who does not have diabetes.
2. Modify the human gene, and provide it a promoter, which will get turn on when placed within the E.coli cell.
3. Separate and make copies of the gene encrypting the insulin protein.
4. Application of electroporation or heat shock method in order to administer the human insulin gene within the living E.coli cell.
5. Development and growth of E.coli in the fermentation culture, and then extract and sell the humulin in the market.
a. What are the four major stages of the cell cycle? b. Which stages are included in interphase? c. What events distinguish G1 S, and G2?
Answer:
The 4 major stages of the cell cycle are M phase, G1 phase,S phase, and G2 phase.
The stages includes interphase are G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase.
Explanation:
The cell cycle is a 4 stage process that leads to cell division. In eukaryotic cells, genome replication is coordinated with the cell cycle. Hence 2 copies of the entire genome are available when the cell divides.
The dividing cells undergo repeated cycles of metaphase, when nuclear and cell division occurs and the interphase where DNA replication occurs combined known as the cell cycle. The 4 stages of the cell cycle are M-phase (mitosis), G1 Phase (gap 1), S-phase (synthesis phase), and G2 phase (gap 2).
The interphase is also known as the resting phase. But it is a preparatory phase for cell division. During this phase, histone proteins are formed and centrioles divide to form 2 new centrioles.
Interphase has 3 phases of the cell cycle except for M-phase. These are the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase.
G- phase: It is the postmitotic gap phase. It occurs at the end of the mitotic cell division. RNA and proteins are synthesized in this phase but not the DNA.
S-phase: During this phase, DNA is synthesized. In this period DNA content of the nucleus is doubled.
G2 - phase: This is the premitotic gap phase. Here synthesis of RNA and protein continues. The DNA synthesis stops in this phase.
M-Phase: It is the mitosis period when the nucleus and cell divide.
All human cell division takes 20 hrs to complete. G1 phase takes 9 hrs, and S-phase takes 8 hrs to complete. G2 phase completes in 2 hrs and the M phase takes only 45 min. The G1 and S phase is the longest phase in the cell division.
Final answer:
The cell cycle consists of four major stages: G1, S, G2, and M phase. Interphase, which prepares the cell for division, includes G1, S, and G2. During G1, the cell grows; in S, the cell replicates its DNA; and in G2, the cell prepares for mitosis.
Explanation:
The cell cycle consists of four major stages: G1, S, G2, and M phase. Each of these stages represents a part of the process through which cells duplicate and divide.
Interphase
Interphase is a stage in the cell cycle where the cell prepares for division and includes three phases: G1, S, and G2. During the G1 phase, the cell grows and performs regular functions. The S phase, or synthetic phase, is crucial as the cell replicates its DNA. Finally, in the G2 phase, the cell undergoes further growth and prepares for mitosis.
Distinctive Events of G1, S, and G2 Phases
G1: Cell growth and normal functions continue. It is essentially the cell's preparation phase for DNA replication.
S phase: DNA replication occurs, ensuring that each new cell will have a complete set of genetic information.
G2: Final preparations for mitosis, including further cell growth and production of proteins necessary for cell division.
Mitosis (Cell Division)
Mitosis is the process of dividing the replicated DNA between two new cells. This involves spindle fibers that help segregate chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell. Mitosis comprises several stages leading to the distribution of identical genetic material to daughter cells.
The four major stages of the cell cycle are G1, S, G2, and M phase.
Interphase includes the G1, S, and G2 stages.
The G1 phase is the period of cell growth before DNA replication, the S phase is when DNA replicates, and the G2 phase is when the cell makes final preparations for mitosis.
Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a. the concentration of products and reactants are equal.
b. The reaction is now irreversible.
c. Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
d. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
Answer:
Option (d).
Explanation:
Equilibrium may be defined as the state of the equality on both the sides of the reaction. Different types of equilibrium are physical equilibrium, chemical equilibrium and dynamic equilibrium.
Chemical equilibrium may be defined as the equilibrium in which the reactants and products concentration remains constant with time. The rate of the backward reaction is equal to the rate of forward reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
The statement that correctly describes a chemical reaction at equilibrium is that the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. This means that the reactions are still taking place, but there is no net change in the concentrations of the reactants or products. The equilibrium does not imply that the concentrations of reactants and products are equal, or that the reaction is irreversible.
Explanation:The statement that correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium is: 'The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal. When a chemical reaction is at equilibrium, it does not mean that the concentrations of the products and reactants are equal (Option A), or that the forward and reverse reactions have halted (Option C). Instead, the forward and reverse reactions continue to take place, but at equal rates, meaning there is no net change in the amounts of the reactants or products. Lastly, reaching equilibrium does not make a reaction irreversible (Option B). A reaction at equilibrium can be disturbed, and the system can shift to either make more reactants or products in response.
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he wings of birds and butterflies have the same function—they enable the organisms to fly. Which statement can be made about the evolutionary relationship between these organisms?
Birds and butterflies are very anatomically different, so even if their wings perform the same function, they probably evolved separately. This is called convergent evolution. The bat would be another example that fits in this category in regards to flying.
Studying the same group of individuals from age 2 to age 40 is an example of which of the following research methods?
a. Cross-Sectional
b. Longitudinal
c. Archival
d. None Of The Above
Answer:
a. Cross sectional
Explanation:
Longitudinal research is a method in with data is recollected repeatedly over a period of time from the same subjects. Archival method is gathering information from archival records. Cross-sectional studies analyze data from a population at a specific period of time, this population can be integrated by people with different characteristics (in this case, age) but with another characteristics in common, for example, ethnicity, gender, etc)
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Shaun and Sara are studying the states of matter together in science class. Their teacher asks them to list the states of matter and determine in which state the particles move freely. Which statement is correct?
A. There are two states of matter, and particles move freely in the liquids states.
B. There are three states of matter, and particles move freely in the gaseous state.
C. There are four states of matter, and particles move freely in their solid state.
D. There are five states of matter, and particles move freely in both their solid and gaseous states.
Answer:
The B statement is correct. There are three states of matter, and particles move freely in the gaseous state.
Explanation:
State of matter can be described as the different forms in which matter can subsist. Mainly, there are three forms of matter i.e solid, liquid and gases.
Solids are the state of matter in which particles are tightly packed. Due to being tightly packed, the particles in a solid cannot move hence solids have definite shape and volume.
If a solid is heated above it's melting point, it turns into a liquid. The particles in a liquid are not as closely packed as in solids. hence, shape of liquids is not definite.
Gases can be described as state of matter in which particles are free to move. Gases do not have a definite shape or volume.
Answer:
Explanation:
B
Energy can be carried by______ but matter cannot
Final answer:
Energy, such as light or heat, can be transferred through electromagnetic radiation, which includes visible light and other forms of energy like radio waves, without carrying matter.
Explanation:
Energy can be carried by electromagnetic radiation, but matter cannot. Unlike matter, energy can be transferred without transferring mass and can travel through a vacuum without any medium. For instance, light, which is a form of electromagnetic radiation, has no mass, always carries energy, and can move through empty space, enabling it to transport energy over vast distances. This is demonstrated by light's ability to pass through transparent materials, such as glass, without requiring physical matter to be moved. The unique nature of energy allows it to affect and rearrange matter, transfer as heat, or perform work, without being tangible in the way that matter—with its atoms and mass—is.
The function of ANP is antagonistic to the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system stabilizes blood pressure and volume. The system constricts arteries and increases the amount of blood that the heart pumps, as well as the reabsorption of sodium (Na+) by the nephrons. Also, it decreases the glomerular filtration rate. All this increases blood volume and pressure.
On the other hand, ANP decreases blood volume and pressure by increasing the glomerular filtration rate and decreasing reabsorption of sodium by nephrons. Finally, this hormone inhibits the release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH.
Which of the following statements does not highlight a difference in eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation?
a. the first methionine in eukaryotic translation contains a formyl group
b. in eukaryotes, mRNA is made in the nucleus but translated in the cytoplasm
c. prokaryotes often couple transcription and translation, forming a polysome
d. eukaryotic mRNA does not have Shine-Dalgarno sequence, but prokaryotic mRNA does
e. many eukaryotic proteins are chemically modified after translation, which is a much rarer phenomenon in prokaryotes
Answer:
The correct answer is a and e.
Explanation:
Translation is the process by which mRNA is translated into proteins. It occurs in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, transcription and translation occur simultaneously while in eukaryotes translation is a separate process occurs in the cytoplasm after transcription.
The first amino acid incorporated in the polypeptide is methionine in eukaryotes and formyl methionine in prokaryotes. After protein synthesis in both eukaryotes in prokaryotes, post-translational takes place like glycosylation, acetylation, alkylation, etc.
Post translation is important for proteins to provide them heterogeneity and functional activity. Thus, the correct answer is a. the first methionine in eukaryotic translation contains a formyl group and e. many eukaryotic proteins are chemically modified after translation, which is a much rarer phenomenon in prokaryotes.
The Triassic/Jurassic extinction paved the way for non-avian dinosaurs to become the dominant vertebrates for the rest of the Mesozoic. However, there were many other vertebrates around at this time Which of these is a possible reason that non-avian dinosaurs were so successful?
a. The late Devonian extinction left many ecological niches open for non-avian dinosaurs to fill
b. Non-avian dinosaurs produce eggs with hard shells which provides protection against desiccation
c. Non-avian dinosaurs were al small and so didn' t require much vegetation to survive
d. The possession of feathers by both major clades of non-avian dinosaurs allowed them to survive the swings in temperature seen through the Mesozoic
e. The evolution of a bi-directional tidal breathing respiratory mechanism allowed them to outcompete other groups of vertebrates.
Answer:
d. The possession of feathers by both major clades of non-avian dinosaurs allowed them to survive the swings in temperature seen through the Mesozoic
Explanation:
The possession of feathers provided dinosaurs with a major advantage: mesothermy. This kind of metabolism is a transition form between cold- (ectothermy) and warm-blooded (endotherm), increasing their adaptation capabilities as the climate changed. The Mesozoic saw the breaking up of Pangaea first into two landmasses (Laurasia and Gondwana) and more individual landmasses towards the end.
a. The late Devonian extinction left many ecological niches open for non-avian dinosaurs to fill.
This cannot be the right answer since the Devonian extinction did not occur during the Mesozoic. The Permo-Triassic extinction did open many ecological niches, but these were exploited by all ornithodirans (meaning crocodiles, dinosaurs, and pterosaurs).
b. Non-avian dinosaurs produce eggs with hard shells which provides protection against desiccation
This is an advantage that relates to the success of amniotes (all vertebrates except for amphibians), and it played an important role in vertebrate evolution during the Late Devonian.
c. Non-avian dinosaurs were al small and so didn' t require much vegetation to survive.
Dinosaurs occupied several size scales, from very small to the most gigantic forms. Additionally, not all of them were herbivores. Although herbivory evolved independently in dinosaurs at least three times (Sauropodomorpha, Thyreophora, Neornithischia), the first dinosaurs were carnivores.
e. The evolution of a bi-directional tidal breathing respiratory mechanism allowed them to outcompete other groups of vertebrates.
This respiratory mechanism evolved at the beginnings of reptile evolution (as early as the Pensylvannian in the Carboniferous). It consists of having two influxes (exhalation and inhalation) of air into the lungs through the same channel. Fish, for instance, have an unidirectional breathing respiratory mechanism were the water enters through the mouth and leaves through the gills, were the oxygen is filtered. Dinosaurs already inherited this breathing mechanism.
You extract DNA from some of your cells and cut out the complete human growth hormone gene directly from this DNA. You put this gene into a plasmid and transform E.coli with the plasmid. To your dismay, you find that E. coli does not make any human growth hormone. What is the most likely explanation for the failure of this experiment?
A) Bacteria cannot carry out RNA splicing to remove introns and so produced a much larger protein.
B) Bacteria lack a nucleus for proper transcription of eukaryotic genes.
C) Human DNA cannot be cloned in a bacterium.
D) Human DNA can be maintained in cloned form only for brief periods in bacteria.
Answer:
A) Bacteria cannot carry out RNA splicing to remove introns and so produced a much larger protein.
Explanation:
Human is a eukaryote and has both introns and exons in its genes. Transcription of human genes forms a primary transcript that undergoes post-transcriptional modification.
One of the important even during the post-transcriptional modification is the removal of introns and joining the exons together to make a mature mRNA which in turn serves as the template for protein synthesis.
E. coli is a prokaryote and does not have the enzymatic machinery required for the splicing of introns.
Cloning of a complete human gene into the E. coli cells would not form the respective human protein since the bacterial cells would not be able to splice the introns from the primary transcript.
Explain how mutations in the photoreceptor genes result in different vision defects.
Answer:
The human eye is the prime organ of the body, which associates with the photons of light and allows one to see various things. The unique cells found in retina, which does activity of seeing are cones and rods cells. Rods help to see in dim light vision, while on the other hand, cone cells are unique in recognizing different colors.
These cells comprise photoreceptor proteins that help in trapping photons at particular wavelength. Mutation in the gene encrypting for these proteins results in permanent or temporary vision issues. The extremity of defects relies upon the degree to which mutation takes place.
The mutation in rod cells photoreceptor proteins leads to night blindness and retinitis pigmentosa. Retinitis pigmentosa refers to an inherited disorder that takes place because of early loss of rod cell, which destructs retina. On the other hand, night blindness does not mean complete blindness night, however, inadequate tendency to see in low light.
Identically, the mutation in the cone cell also results in vision issues, known as red color blindness and tritanopia. Tritanopia refers to a kind of color blindness, which originates because of insensitivity of blue receiving protein gene towards blue light. On the other hand, red color blindness refers to insensitivity of red receiving cone cells in captivating long-wavelength photons.
Which of the following is important for gel electrophoresis to work?
a. negatively charged nucleic acids to migrate through the gel
b. ethidium bromide to provide a means to visualize the DNA in the gel
c. Agarose or polyacrylamide to separate the DNA based on size
d. known molecular weight standards
e. all of the above are important for gel electrophoresis
Answer:
e. all of the above are important for gel electrophoresis
Explanation:
Gel electrophoresis is the process of separating nucleic acids like DNA on the basis of their molecular size.
DNA is negatively charged due to its phosphate component so it is loaded at the negative pole( cathode ) and it migrates to the positive pole ( anode ). The fragments separate on the basis of their size. Smaller fragments run faster while heavier ones run slower. Hence, it is also important to load a molecular weight standard so that we can find out the size of the sample bands by matching them with the standard bands size.
Ethidium bromide is a dye commonly used to visualize DNA bands. It is mixed with electrophoresis gel making solution. It intercalates within DNA and fluoresces when exposed to UV light so that the DNA bands are visible. Hence, all of these things are important for gel electrophoresis to work.
A normal cell in an adult woman has?
a. one functional X chromosome
b. two functional X chromosome
c. one functional Y chromosome
d. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome
e. three or more X chromosomes
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
The females carry two X-chromosomes in their cells but one of these X-chromosome gets permanently inactivated during embryonic development.
The X-inactivation is known as lyonization which ensures that only one functional X-chromosome should be present like in males. This process is a random process and therefore a female can have both the functional X-chromosomes and males can also have a functional X-chromosome.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Which of the following steps has not yet been accomplished by scientists studying the origin of life?
a. synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes
b. formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes
c. formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids
d. abiotic synthesis of organic molecules
Answer:
The correct answer is option c. "formation of protocells that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids".
Explanation:
The polymerization of amino acids is a complex biological function that involves multiple proteins and cofactors working together at different locations in the cell. Even though there are some scientific advances in the production of synthetic protocells (cell like structures made from synthetic particles), the formation of protocells able to synthesize amino acids from DNA directly has not been accomplished.
In the moss Polytrichum commune, the haploid chromosome number is 7. A haploid male gamete fuses with a haploid female gamete to form a diploid cell that divides and develops into the multicellular sporophyte. Cells of the sporophyte then undergo meiosis to produce haploid cells called spores. What is the probability that an individual spore will contain a set of chromosomes all of which came from the male gamete? Assume no recombination.
Answer:
1/128
Explanation:
In a diploid individual, 2ⁿ possible gametes can be produced, where n is the haploid chromosome number.
From those possible gametes,
[tex](\frac{1}{2})^n[/tex] is the number of gametes that will contain maternal chromosomes only[tex](\frac{1}{2})^n[/tex] is the number of gametes that will contain paternal chromosomes only [tex]1-2(\frac{1}{2})^n[/tex] is the number of gametes that will contain a combination of both maternal and paternal chromosomes.The probability that an individual spore will contain a set of chromosomes all of which came from the male gamete will be:
[tex](\frac{1}{2})^7=\frac{1}{128}[/tex]Final answer:
The probability that an individual spore of Polytrichum commune will contain chromosomes solely from the male gamete is 1/128 or about 0.78%.
Explanation:
In the life cycle of the moss Polytrichum commune, with a haploid chromosome number of 7, the probability that an individual spore will contain a set of chromosomes all of which came from the male gamete is 1/128 or about 0.78%. This is because during fertilization, a haploid male gamete fuses with a haploid female gamete to form a diploid zygote. The zygote then develops into a sporophyte, which is a diploid multicellular organism. This sporophyte will then produce haploid spores through meiosis. Assuming no recombination, the spores will each receive a random assortment of chromosomes from the two sets present in the diploid cells. Since meiosis involves the random segregation of each pair of homologous chromosomes, the probability for each chromosome to come from the male gamete is 1/2. Given there are 7 chromosomes, we calculate this probability as (1/2)⁷ which equals 1/128.
How many membranes does the mitochondria have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer:
b. 2
Explanation:
The mitochondria has 2 membranes namely the outer membrane and the inner membrane , which are separated by an inter membrane space. The outer membrane is selectively permeable to ions and molecules and also holds the whole mitochondria structure .in contrast ,the inner membrane is less permeable and it is where electron transport occurs , between protein complexes found within the structure.
If you mixed the mRNA of a human gene with the genomic DNA for the same gene and allowed the RNA and DNA to form a hybrid, what would you be likely to see in the electron microscope? Your figure should include hybridization involving both DNA strands (template and RNA-Iike) as well as the mRNA.
Answer:
Explanation:
A gene in the DNA has both exons and introns. Exons are the coding sequences that will remain in the mature mRNA, and introns are non-coding sequences that are spliced out and are not a part of the mature mRNA.
If you hybridize genomic DNA with a mature mRNA, in a microscope you'll probably see something like the figure I'm attaching. In A you can see a schematic diagram of the mRNA-DNA hybrid; the loops are single stranded DNA containing introns, that are not present in the mRNA and therefore remain unpaired.
In figure B you can see a real image of a mRNA-DNA hybrid and its interpertation below.
The hybridization involving both DNA strands would look like a perfect pairing, because both DNA strands contain complementary sequences of exons and introns.
By mixing the mRNA of a human gene with the genomic DNA for the same gene and allowing them to hybridize, you would likely see the formation of hybrid RNA-DNA molecules under the electron microscope. The hybridization would occur specifically between the mRNA molecule and the template or antisense strand of the genomic DNA. The non-template or sense strand does not hybridize with the mRNA.
Explanation:If you mixed the mRNA of a human gene with the genomic DNA for the same gene and allowed the RNA and DNA to form a hybrid, you would likely see a formation of hybrid RNA-DNA molecules under the electron microscope. This is due to the fact that the mRNA and the template strand (antisense strand) of the genomic DNA are fully complementary.
In the process of transcription, a strand of mRNA is synthesized that is complementary to the gene of interest within the genomic DNA. This complementary nature makes it possible for the mRNA and DNA to hybridize and form a complex under suitable conditions. A gene on the DNA molecule is transcribed into a complementary mRNA molecule, forming a transcription bubble that is visible under the electron microscope.
When you consider both strands of the genomic DNA, the hybridization would occur between the mRNA molecule and the template strand of the genomic DNA. The non-template strand or RNA-like strand which is identical to the mRNA, with the exception of thymine (T) in DNA being replaced by uracil (U) in RNA, does not hybridize with the mRNA. The hydrogen bond formation between the two strands can be observed under an electron microscope.
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How does the body monitor its core temperature?
A. Nerve cells in the skin feed the information to the hypothalamus.
B. The pituitary gland in the brain tracks the temperature of the blood.
C. Nerve cells monitor the temperature of the hypothalamus.
D. Core blood temperature alters the speed of the chemical reactions in the pituitary gland.
E. Core blood temperature alters the speed of nerve cells in the hypothalamus.
Answer: A. Nerve cells in the skin feed the information to the hypothalamus.
Explanation:
The hypothalamus is a part of the brain which controls the body temperature. The nerve cells present on the skin sends the signals to the hypothalamus when the body experience warm external temperature, which sends the signals to the sweat glands so that it's secretion makes the body cool. When the body feels cold then the hypothalamus sends the signal to the muscles to produce shivering to keep the body warm.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) to produce energy-rich glucose from carbon dioxide and water
B) to produce ATP and NADPH
C) to produce NADPH used in respiration
D) to convert light energy to the chemical energy of PGAL
E) to use ATP to make glucose
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis occurs in two stages: light-dependent and light-independent reaction. The light-dependent reaction is the reaction which takes place in the sunlight and converts light energy to chemical energy.
The reaction stores chemical energy in the form of energy equivalents mainly ATP through chemiosmosis and NADPH. These molecules are used in the second phase of the photosynthesis that is light-independent reactions where glucose is synthesized.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Option B is the correct answer. The primary function of light reaction in photosynthesis to produce ATP and NADPH.
Photosynthesis:
The light reaction form Energy rich molecules like NADPH and ATP using Light energy.These molecules used in the Calvin Cycle to produce Glucose.From above discussion we can say that Option A, C, D and E can be eliminated.
Hence we can say that the primary function of light reaction in photosynthesis to produce ATP and NADPH.
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The production of urine in the nephron begins at the (i) _____________, which is (ii) _______________.
a. (i) glomerulus, (ii) a network of capillaries
b. (i) Loop of Henle, (ii) a U-shaped tube
c. (i) proximal convulated tubule, (ii) a tube draining the glomerulus
d. (i) distal convulated tubule, (ii) a tube entering the collecting duct
Answer:
a. (i) glomerulus, (ii) a network of capillaries
Explanation:
A pair of the kidney is the main excretory organ in humans. Each kidney made millions of tiny units called nephrons.
Each nephron has a glomerulus. It is tuft (network) of capillaries surrounded by a cuplike structure called Bowman’s capsule.
The network of blood capillaries consists of afferent and efferent arterioles. As blood flows through the glomerulus, the fluid from the capillaries gets filtered by podocytes, a specialised layer of cells, called filtration membrane. This glomerular filtration begins the urine formation process.
Assuming no involvement of the Bombay phenotype: a. If e girl has blood type O, whet could be the genotypes and corresponding phenotypes of her parents? b. If e girl has blood type B end her mother has blood type A, what genotype(s) and corresponding phenotype(s) could the other parent have? c. If a girl has blood type Aa and her mother is also AB, what ere the genotype(s) end corresponding phenotype(s) of any male who could not be her father?
Answer:
a) OO/OO (phenotype O) ; OA (ph A)/OB (ph B) ; OO(phO)/ OA(ph A); OO(ph O)/OB (ph B).
b) OB (ph B) or BB (phB) or AB (ph AB).
c) OO(ph O)
Explanation:
a) Blood type 0 is recessive. This girls genotype is OO.
Then, parents need to have at least one allele O each in their genotype. Possibilities genotypes and phenotypes (ph): OO/OO (phenotype O) ; OA (ph A)/OB (ph B) ; OO(phO)/ OA(ph A); OO(ph O)/OB (ph B).
b) Blood type B is co-dominant with A. If the girl is B, it means her genotype can be OB or BB.
But we are told that the mother has blood type A. Also co-dominant. This means the girls genotype cannot be BB.
If the girl is OB, it means she got the O allele from her mother.
The other parent then has to be responsible for the B allele. This means the father could have been OB (ph B) or BB (phB) or AB (ph AB).
c) If the girl is AB (I assume misspelling) and her mother ALSO is AB, then the father cannot be OO(phO). Because he has to give the allele A or B to the girl.
Any other genotype is possible.
A genetic carrier is someone who
a. has a defective allele and defective phenotype
b. has a defective allele and normal phenotype
c. has one copy of a defective dominant allele
d. has one copy of a defective allele
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. has a defective allele and normal phenotype.
Explanation:
Genetic carrier or the hereditary carrier is an organism or a person that has a recessive allele for a particular trait or character (generally mutation) but does not exhibit the trait or any character related to the trait.
The carriers are normal in the sex-linked characters in comparison to the autosomal traits. Females are generally the carrier for sex-linked characters and carry the allele to the next generation.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. has a defective allele and normal.
Gene conversion of Neurospora requires recombination and which of the following events?
a. reversion
b. suppression
c. photoreactivation
d. heteroduplex formation
e. inversion
Answer: d. heteroduplex formation
Explanation:
A heteroduplex is a double stranded molecule of the nucleic acid that is originated by the recombination of the only single complementary strand that can be derived from different sources, that is from the different homologous chromosomes or can develop from different organisms.
Thus hetroduplex formation is the gene conversion event that requires recombination.
Answer:
d
Explanation:A heteroduplex is a double-stranded (duplex) molecule of nucleic acid originated through the genetic recombination of single complementary strands derived from different sources, such as from different homologous chromosomes or even from different organisms.