Answer:
d. To orient themselves during migration by detecting waterfalls, volcanoes and thunderstorms.
Explanation:
It's known that natural events such as earthquakes, waterfalls/ocean waves, volcanoes and severe storms generate infrasound; the primary hypothesis about why some birds can detect infrasounds is to be able to orient themselves during their migration and avoid such natural events.
What are the functions of ATP and NADH? Describe where these are produced during each stepof Aerobic Cellular Respiration.
Answer:
ATP works as "currency" for intracellular energy transfer. NADH's cell's tool for accepting/donating electrons.
Explanation:
To be fully functional, all cells need energy, ATP is the molecule that provides cells with it, for this to happen one of the phosphates groups that forms ATP needs to be broken off from it to release energy.
NADH is a coenzyme formed after NAD+ is reduced, this makes it a reduction agent that can donate electrons, this can help to glucose oxidation during glycolysis.
The production of ATP and NADH during Aerobic Cellular Respiration happens in different stages, during glycolysis 2 ATP and 2 NADH are produced, in a link reaction another 2 NADH are produced and finally, during Kreb's cycle 2 ATP and 6 NADH are produced.
I hope this information helps you understand a bit more about how Aerobic Cellular Respiration works!
Because energy is lost during assimilation and production only less than 25% of the energy at one trophic level advances to the next trophic level.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Green plants are autotrophs which make food through photosynthesis. Most of the energy is used by the organism itself for the metabolic function, lost as heat and approximately 10% of the energy is stored in the plants is used up by the herbivores (primary consumers) and 10% of energy of the herbivores is available as a food for the carnivores (tertiary consumer ). Therefore, the top consumers get the least energy. In an ecological pyramid, the pyramid of energy is always upright because the energy and biomass are always reducing from producer to tertiary consumer.
The reactivity of an atom arises from
a. the average distance of the outmost electron shell from the nucleus.
b. the existence of unpaired electrons in the valance shell.
c. the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
d. The potential energy of the valance shell.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
For metals, the further away the valence electrons are from the nucleus, the higher the reactivity of the elements. Unlike halogens that are more reactive if the valence orbital shells are closer to the nucleus. This is due to ionization energies – which is the minimum energy required to discharge an electron from its orbit.
For metals this should be lower because they need to lose electrons to attain a stable electron configuration. For halogens it should be high because they don't need to lose electrons, but rather gain, in order to attain stable electron configuration.
Electrons in their orbital shells need to occur in pairs (with opposite quantum states) to be in stable configuration and as long as an atom has orbitals with single electrons, the atoms will be reactive as opposed to when its orbitals are ‘full’.
The correct answer is b. the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
What is reactivity of an atomThe reactivity of an atom, or its tendency to form chemical bonds with other atoms, primarily arises from the configuration of electrons in its outermost shell, known as the valence shell.
When an atom has unpaired electrons in its valence shell, it is more likely to interact with other atoms through sharing or transferring electrons, leading to the formation of chemical bonds.
This is because unpaired electrons are more energetically favorable when they are either shared with or transferred to other atoms, allowing the atom to achieve a more stable electron configuration. Therefore, the presence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell determines the reactivity of an atom.
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What would be an example of a colloid in a plant?
Answer:
Phloem sap.
Explanation:
A colloid is a combination of different types of molecules mixed through other substances that will not join (form a chemical bond) with the other substance.
Phloem sap is a mixture of water, carbohydrates, hormones and other type of substances flowing together but not bond by a chemical bond.
Which of the following statements describes characteristics of cancerous cells?
A. All cancer cells are the result of a bacterial infection.
B. Cancerous cells respond to normal checkpoints.
C. Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled growth.
D. All cancer cells have the ability to metastasize.
E. All of these are true about cancerous cells.
The characteristic most commonly associated with cancerous cells is their ability to grow and divide in an uncontrolled manner. Not all cancers result from bacterial infections, cancerous cells usually ignore normal checkpoints, and not all have the ability to metastasize.
Explanation:The statement which best describes the characteristics of cancerous cells is: 'C. Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled growth'. This is because cancer cells differ from normal cells in many ways. They are not subject to the control mechanisms that regulate cell growth and reproduction. Cancer cells continue to divide and grow in an unregulated manner, disregarding the normal checks and balances that control cell division.
Not all cancer cells result from a bacterial infection (A), so this statement is incorrect. Cancerous cells usually ignore the normal checkpoints (B) the body has in place, instead, propagating without control, so this statement is misleading. While some cancer cells have the ability to metastasize, i.e., spread to other parts of the body (D), not all of them do, making this statement inaccurate.
Thus, option E is also not correct since not all of these are true about cancerous cells.
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1) A 25 μL diluted sample (1:25) of protein was added to 2 ml of Bradford reaction assay tube. The absorbance at 595 was 0.75 and according to a BSA standard curve corresponding to 0.025 mg protein on the x-axis. What is the protein concentration (mg/ml) of the original protein?
Answer:
protein concentration [tex]= 2.5\times 10^{-5} mg/ml[/tex]
Explanation:
from the given information
total amount of protein is 0.025 mg
amount of dilute solution is [tex]25\mu L[/tex]
Therefore original concentration is given as
original concentration [tex]=\frac{0.025 mg}{25 \mu L} = 0.001 mg/\mu L[/tex]
[tex]= 0.001 mg/\mu L \times 25[/tex]
HERE 25 is dilution factor
[tex]= 0.025 mg/\mu L[/tex]
convert [tex]mg/\mu L\ to\ mg/ml = 0.025 mg/\mu\ L \times \frac{1}{10^3 \mu\ L}[/tex]
[tex]= 2.5\times 10^{-5} mg/ml[/tex]
To calculate the original protein concentration, take the detected amount of protein in the diluted sample, find its concentration, and then account for the dilution factor by multiplying it. This gives a final value of the original protein concentration as 0.3125 mg/mL.
The protein concentration of the original sample can be calculated by considering the dilution factor and the amount of protein detected by the Bradford reaction assay. Given the absorbance of 0.75 corresponds to 0.025 mg of protein, we can calculate the concentration in the diluted sample and then account for dilution to find the concentration in the original sample.
First, we find out the concentration in the diluted sample which is 0.025 mg in 2 mL, resulting in a concentration of 0.0125 mg/mL. Next, we account for the dilution factor which is 1:25. To compensate for this dilution, we multiply this concentration by the dilution factor:
0.0125 mg/mL x 25 = 0.3125 mg/mL
This gives us the protein concentration in the original protein solution.
Proposed mode of DNA replication where one daughter cells gets both strands of parent DNA and the other daughter cell gets both strands of new DNA.
a. Bi-directional replication
b. Dispersive replication
c. Conservative replication
d. Semiconservative replication
Answer:
c. Conservative replication
Explanation:
In conservative mode of replication, the parent DNA molecule will direct the synthesis of entirely new DNA molecule. Hence, one daughter cell will get the old DNA with both parental strands and the other daughter cell will get the new DNA with both new strands.But the widely accepted replication model is semi conservative model. Where both the strands separate and act as template for new strands. Hence, the new DNA molecules will have one parental DNA strand and one new DNA strand. According to dispersive replication model, the newly synthesized DNA randomly gets fragments of parental DNA.Hence, the answer is conservative replication.
Refer to the chart of amino acid structures to help answer this question. Which four statements about amino acids are true? Ser and Gln are polar amino acids. The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids. The form of glycine used by the human body is D‑glycine. Methionine is a thiol. Phe can undergo oxidation to form Tyr. Proline has an overall charge at physiological pH (7.4). Lysine has one stereocenter (chiral center).
Answer:
1. Ser and Gln are polar amino acids.
2. The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids.
3. Phe can undergo oxidation to form Tyr.
4. Lysine has one stereocenter (chiral center).
Explanation:
Serine and glutamine are the polar amino acids with uncharged side group. Serine has a "CH2OH" group as its side chain and the presence of hydroxyl group makes it a polar amino acid. Glutamine is one of the amides derived from other amino acids present in proteins.
Leucine is a nonpolar amino acid with an aliphatic side chain and tends to cluster within the proteins to stay away from the surrounding watery medium. Its aliphatic R group does not form any hydrogen bonds to other amino acids.
Phenylalanine is a nonpolar amino acid with an aromatic R group. Oxidation of aromatic R group of phenylalanine converts it into tyrosine which has an additional hydroxyl group in its side chain.
The chiral center is the carbon to which four different functional groups are bonded. The central alpha carbon atom of lysine is bonded to an amino group, carboxyl group, a hydrogen atom, and one positively charged R group which in turn makes it a chiral center.
Four true statements about amino acids are: Ser and Gln are polar amino acids, Methionine is a thiol, Lysine has one stereocenter, and The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids.
Explanation:Four true statements about amino acids are:
Ser and Gln are polar amino acids. Serine (Ser) and Glutamine (Gln) have polar side chains, which means they have a partial positive and partial negative charge and can interact with water molecules.Methionine is a thiol. Methionine (Met) contains a sulfur atom in its side chain, making it a thiol amino acid.Lysine has one stereocenter (chiral center). Lysine (Lys) has one carbon atom with four different groups attached, making it a stereocenter or chiral center.The Leu side chain does not form hydrogen bonds with other amino acids. The Leucine (Leu) side chain is nonpolar and hydrophobic, meaning it does not interact with polar molecules like water or form hydrogen bonds.Learn more about Amino acids here:https://brainly.com/question/31442968
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What is fever and explain why it is considered to be a nonspecific immune response?
Answer:
Body of an organisms have a range of the normal temperature that is maintained by the body by homeostasis. When the range of the body temperature rise above that range it it known as fever. The normal temperature of human body is normally 36-37 degree centigrade. Mild fever is not need any assistance to bring it back to normal range it is doe by the body to fight against infection or change takes place. Fever can be measured in mouth, rectum, and underarms.
It is considered as nonspecific response mechanism as it is take place due to different type of reasons and its affect or mechanisms is same for all, not specific as the cell mediated or antibody mediated responses of specific defense mechanism.
FMO3 is an enzyme that helps break down a chemical in humans, trimethylaamine, that produces the smell of rotting fish. The gene for FMO3 is located on chromosome 1. The functioning form of the enzyme is coded for by a dominant allele, and the nonfunctioning form of the enzyme is coded for by a recessive allele. Individuals with the nonfunctioning from of the enzyme have trimethylaminuria, also known as fish odor syndrome. Neither Maggie nor Mark has the fish odor syndrome, but their daughter Melissa does. If Maggie and Mark have another baby, what is the chance that child will also have fish odor syndrome?
Answer:
The fish odor syndrome is a recessive disorder, and thus, requires two alleles in order to manifest the condition. In the given case, both the parents do not exhibit the syndrome, however, their daughter does. It signifies that both the parents are carriers, and thus, are heterozygous.
In such situations, the heterozygous parents exhibit a 25 percent chance of having a child with the condition, while 75 percent chance of having a non-affected child. Thus, they have zero percent chance of exhibiting a child with fish odor syndrome.
What is the difference between a disk-diffusion test and a kirby-Bauer test? Why is Mueller-hinton agar used in the kirby-bauer test?
Answer:
The Kirby-Bauer test and disk diffusion are the same.
Explanation:
Kirby-Bauer antibiotic disk diffusion is used for bacterial susceptibility testing. Mueller-hinton (MH) agar is used as it is the best medium for daily antibiotic testing as it supports growth of non-fastidious organisms. Furthermore, MH controls the rate of antibiotic diffusion through the agar.
Briefly describe the following methods of regulation of enzyme activity in a cell
i) allosteric control
ii) covalent modification
Answer:
Explanation:
i) Allosteric control
-Allosteric modulation is a mechanism whereby the activity of an enzyme is either stimulated or inhibited by a compound that binds to a site, called the allosteric site, that is dimensionaly different from the enzyme’s active site
ii) Covalent modification
-Covalent modification of enzymes, as illustrated by the addition (or removal) of phosphates, is a general mechanism for changing the activity of enzymes.
-Enzymes that transfer phosphate groups to other proteins are called protein kinases and regulate such diverse activities as hormone action, cell division, and gene expression.
Cellular enzyme activity is regulated through allosteric control and covalent modification. Allosteric control involves effector molecules binding to a site other than the enzyme's active site to modulate its activity, while covalent modification changes an enzyme's activity through the reversible addition or removal of chemical groups.
Explanation:Cells regulate enzymes through various mechanisms, significant among which are allosteric control and covalent modification. Understanding these methods is crucial for comprehending how cells control biochemical pathways and respond to changes in the environment.
Allosteric control involves the regulation of an enzyme's activity through the binding of an effector molecule at a site other than the enzyme's active site, known as the allosteric site. This interaction can either enhance (activator) or reduce (inhibitor) the enzyme's activity. Allosteric enzymes exhibit a change in their conformation upon effector binding, which alters the enzyme's affinity for its substrate. Feedback inhibition, a form of negative regulation where the end product of a biochemical pathway inhibits an enzyme involved earlier in the pathway, often works through allosteric control.
Covalent modification involves the reversible addition or removal of chemical groups (such as phosphate, methyl, or acetyl groups) to an enzyme, altering its activity. This modification can either activate or deactivate the enzyme and is often mediated by other enzymes. For example, the addition of a phosphate group (phosphorylation) by a kinase can activate an enzyme, while removal of this group by a phosphatase can inactivate it. Covalent modification allows for rapid changes in enzyme activity in response to cellular signals.
For a gene suspected of causing hypertension in humans, you observe the following genotype frequencies: A1A1 0.574; A1A2 0.339; A2A2 0.087. Is this gene in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Why or why not? (Assume that a difference of three percent or more in any of the observed versus expected frequencies is statistically significant.) See Section 23.1 (Page 458) .
Answer:
This gene is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Explanation:
As per the second equation of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, sum of genotypic frequencies of all types with in a population must be equal to one
Frequency for genotype A1A1 ([tex]p^{2}[/tex]) [tex]= 0.574[/tex]
Frequency for genotype A2A2 ([tex]q^{2}[/tex]) [tex]= 0.339[/tex]
Frequency for genotype A2A1 ([tex]2pq[/tex]) [tex]= 0.0.087[/tex]
Now,
[tex]p^2+q^2+2pq = 1\\[/tex]
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.574 + 0.339+0.087=1\\1=1[/tex]
Hence, this gene is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Differentiate between a chromosome, DNA, a gene, a base pair, and a protein.
Answer:
Chromosome:
Chromosome may be defined as the thread like structure present in the nucleus. They are made of protein and DNA. Two types of chromosome are heterochromatin and euchromatin.
Gene:
Gene may be defined as the functional unit of DNA. The gene codes for the particular protein. They are inherited from one generation to the next generation.
A Base pair:
Base pairs may be defined as the different nitrogenous bases present in the nucleic acid. Adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine are present in DNA whereas uracil instead of thymine is present in RNA.
Protein:
Protein may be defined as the polymer of amino acids that are linked together through peptide bond. Proteins are the main building block of the body and one of the most important biomolecule.
Discuss evidence that the genetic code is almost universal, and cite some exceptions.
Answer:
Codons that code for particular amino acids are nearly universal across all life. This means that the same codon (3 nucleotide sequence) that codes for aspartic acid or glutamate are the same in a bacteria as in a human being. This has been used to suggest that all life on earth evolved from one ancestral organism. The only exception in some organisms is very slightly such as of a difference of one or two amino acids coded by a particular codon. An example is yeast. In the universal genetic code CUG codes for leucine, however in budding yeast, it codes for serine amino acid.
Most animals with backbones, vertebrates, have a similar body plan: skull, ribs, two pairs of limbs, tail. What does this suggest about vertebrates?
A. Vertebrates are the best designed organisms.
B. Vertebrates all adapted to similar environmental conditions.
C. Vertebrates all have similar lifestyles.
D. Vertebrates have been around longer than most other organisms.
E. Vertebrates are all related to a common ancestor.
The correct answer is E. Vertebrates are all related to a common ancestor
Explanation:
According to biology and evolution, organisms from different species but that share similarities in morphology (body structures) as well as in genetics often have a phylogenetic relationship which means they descend from the same organism or share a common ancestor. This applies to multiple taxonomical levels including classes such as mammals or birds as it has been proved each of this derived from a common ancestor. Therefore, the similarity in the body structure (morphology) in all mammals suggest vertebrates are related to a common ancestor and as they evolved from this, they share similarities not only in terms of morphology but also in genetics.
Answer:
E
Explanation:
How does a mutation in the RAS gene lead to uncontrolled cellular division?
A. The RAS protein becomes stuck in the "on" position.
B. The RAS protein can no longer act as a tumor suppressor.
C. The RAS protein becomes stuck in the "off" position.
D. The RAS protein gets stuck in the plasma membrane.
E. The RAS protein can no longer act to repair DNA damage.
Answer: I would think A but get a second opinion to be 100% sure, okay.
If the question were why can’t a mutated RAS gene stop uncontrolled cellular division/cancer I could easily answer the question. So if you also need that answered I could just saying.
The correct answer is A. The mutation in the RAS gene leads to uncontrolled cellular division because the RAS protein becomes stuck in the on position.
RAS genes encode for proteins that are involved in the transmission of signals within cells. These signals are critical for the regulation of cell division. Normally, RAS proteins function as molecular switches that cycle between an on state, where they are active and can transmit signals, and an off state, where they are inactive. This cycling is tightly regulated by the binding and hydrolysis of GTP (guanosine triphosphate) to GDP (guanosine diphosphate). When a mutation occurs in the RAS gene, the RAS protein can lose its ability to hydrolyze GTP to GDP, which means it can become stuck in the on position. As a result, the RAS protein continues to transmit signals for cell growth and division even in the absence of external growth factors. This leads to uncontrolled cellular proliferation, which is a hallmark of cancer. To clarify the other options: B. The RAS protein can no longer act as a tumor suppressor. - This option is incorrect because RAS is not a tumor suppressor; it is a proto-oncogene. When mutated, it can become an oncogene that promotes cancer. C. The RAS protein becomes stuck in the off position. - This option is incorrect because it is the on position that leads to continuous signaling for cell division. D. The RAS protein gets stuck in the plasma membrane. - While it is true that RAS proteins are located in the plasma membrane to function properly, simply being stuck in the membrane is not what leads to uncontrolled cell division. It is the inability to turn off the signal due to the mutation that causes the problem. E. The RAS protein can no longer act to repair DNA damage. - This option is incorrect because RAS is not directly involved in DNA repair. Its primary role is in signal transduction pathways that control cell growth and division.
Phosphorus almost always circulates through asn ecosystem in the form of phosphate ions (po3^3-).
a. True
b. False
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
The cycle of Phosphorus moves quickly through the plant's animals and also through the layers of soil and ocean that are slowly taking up this nutrient. Although the P Phosphate iron is dominant in organic species in nature. Contain's P3 plus sources which play a crucial role in the oceanic ecosystem. Also, the presence of this layer in biogeochemical cycles is the key to control ecosystem productivity. The deliberate interaction of humans who uses the fertilizers made of phosphorus matter continuously alter te flowing patterns of phosphorus cycle and contributing fresh eutrophication of the ecosystems through the from of Po 3 ions. Other large processes like weathering and tectonic movements indirectly impact this cyclic flow of nutrient and dissolved concentration of phosphorus cyclically circulating through the environment.What is the myelin sheath, and why does it speed up nerve transmissions?
Answer:
Myelin sheaths refer to the covering of fatty tissue, which safeguards the nerve cells. These cells are the components of CNS that conduct messages back and forth between the brain and the remaining parts of the body.
The majority of the nerve fibers are enveloped by an insulating, fatty sheath known as myelin that functions to accelerate the impulses. The myelin sheath comprises periodic breaks known as nodes of Ranvier. Hopping from nodes to nodes, the impulse can pass much more briskly than if it had to move along the whole length of the nerve fiber.
Bioinformatics includes all of the following except
a. using computer programs to align DNA sequences.
b. using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.
c. developing computer-based tools for genome analysis.
d. using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems.
Bioinformatics involves using computer programs to align DNA sequences, developing computer-based tools for genome analysis, and using math tools to interpret biological systems. It does not directly involve using DNA technology to combine DNA from different sources.
Explanation:The question at hand is asking which of the given options is not included in the field of bioinformatics. Bioinformatics is a multidisciplinary field involving biology, computer science, and statistics. It utilizes computer programming for aligning DNA sequences, developing computer-based tools for genome analysis, and mathematical tools to interpret biological systems. So, options a, c, and d are within its scope. However, option b describes a process known as recombinant DNA technology, not directly related to bioinformatics. Thus, the answer must be option b: Using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube.
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Option b, which refers to the use of DNA technology to combine DNA from different sources, is not a part of bioinformatics. This task is more closely associated with the field of molecular biology.
Explanation:Bioinformatics is a rapidly developing branch of biology that is mainly involved in the development and application of computational tools to analyze, integrate, and interpret large sets of biological data. Among the four options presented, the only task that doesn't fall under bioinformatics is b. using DNA technology to combine DNA from two different sources in a test tube. This is more closely related to the field of molecular biology, specifically recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering. The tasks described in a, c, and d are all common in bioinformatics. They involve the use of computer programs, development of computational tools for genome analysis, and the application of mathematical tools to interpret complex biological systems.
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All of these viruses typically result in persistent infections rather than cellular death except:
A) HIV
B) Hepatitis
C) Epstein-Barr
D) Herpes
Answer:
C) Epstein-Barr
Explanation:
Usually virus can kill cells directly when virus copies emerge as buds that burst through the cell membrane, killing the cell in the process.
Another way is killing the host cell directly just by exhausting its resources.
And another way is when the host cell machinery becomes grossly distorted triggering a process known as programmed cell death or apoptosis.
The Epstein-Barr virus can block apoptosis, therefore making the cells more likely to become cancerous.
In paracrine signaling, the signaling molecule: Acts on the same cells that secreted the signaling molecule. Is always integrated into the plasma membrane of the signaling cell. Is carried to the target cells by the blood. Acts on cells in close proximity to the secreting cell. Acts on target cells far away from the secreting cell.
Answer:
Acts on cells in close proximity to the secreting cell.
Explanation:
In paracrine signaling, the molecules secreted by a cell show their impact on the cells which are nearby or in very close proximity.
For example:
Nerve impulse transmission from presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron. When ever a stimulus is detected by our body, transmission of nerve impulse occurs so that our body could respond to that stimulus accordingly. During transmission, the presynaptic neuron releases signaling molecules known as neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft which is present in between presynaptic neuron and postsynaptic neurons. From synaptic cleft, these neurotransmitters reach the receptors present on the neighboring postsynaptic neurons which finally transmit the message to the muscles to generate a response to the stimuli.
The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is
a. the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms.
b. the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats.
c. the increased chance of contact between mating types.
d. an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.
Answer:
d. an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.
Explanation:
Fungi have an extracellular nutrition. These means enzymes are released to environment to start degrading macromolecules which can be later be absorbed (absorptive nutrition) through cell membranes. Having multiple spots (bigger surface area) through which it can nurture speeds up the rate at which it can grow leading to a faster growth and higher competition over resources.
The filamentous nature of fungal mycelia provides a significant adaptive advantage due to its extensive surface area, which facilitates efficient invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.
Explanation:The most important adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is d. an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.
Fungal mycelia are composed of hyphae that branch and form a network, leading to a high surface-area-to-volume ratio. This structural feature enables fungi to efficiently absorb water and nutrients from their environment. They achieve this by secreting hydrolytic enzymes into their surroundings to digest large organic molecules into smaller ones that can be easily absorbed. While other options like forming haustoria, colonizing many habitats, and facilitating mating may be advantageous, the key to a fungus's survival lies in its ability to absorb nutrients effectively due to the extensive surface area of mycelium.
RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
a. host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
b. host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.
c. these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins.
d. these enzymes penetrate host cell membranes.
Answer: The correct answer is option b.
Explanation:
RNA viruses have RNA as genetic material whereas the host cells usually have DNA as genetic material.
So, in order to integrate its genome with host DNA, the virus must form DNA from RNA, that is, reverse transcription.
It is the process by which DNA is formed using RNA as a template strand.
However, reverse transcriptase (enzyme which catalyzes reverse transcription) is usually not present in host cells.
Thus, RNA viruses carry their own set of enzymes which help in the replication of viral genome and its recombination with host DNA as host cells lack these enzymes.
RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because
b. host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome.Why does RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymesRNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because host cells do not possess the specific enzymes necessary for replicating the viral genome. Unlike DNA viruses, RNA viruses typically rely on viral enzymes, such as RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, to replicate their RNA genome within the host cell.
These viral enzymes are not present in the host cell and must be brought in by the virus itself. Without these enzymes, the host cell's replication machinery would not be able to synthesize new copies of the viral RNA genome, hindering viral replication and propagation.
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The seminiferous tubules
A. Are the site of spermatogenesis
B. Produce most of the seminal fluid.
C. Empty directly into the vas deferens
D. Are located within the cavernous body.
E. Receive fluid from the bulbourethral glands.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. are the site of spermatogenesis.
Explanation:
The seminiferous tubules are present within the testes in males and the site of production, development, maturation of the sperm or spermatogenesis. In this reproductive organ, meiosis takes place to make sperm or male gametes.
The spermatogenesis is a three-stage process of producing mature spermatozoa from the stem cells or germ cells. The first phase is spermcytogenesis in which germ cell go under mitotic division followed by the second phase which is meiosis of the cell of the first phase and in the last phase is spermiogenesis.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. are the site of spermatogenesis.
What is the difference between proximate causes and ultimate causes? Provide an example of each.
Final answer:
Proximate causes are immediate, mechanical explanations of behaviors, while ultimate causes relate to their evolutionary significance. For instance, a bird's hormone-triggered singing is a proximate cause, whereas the evolutionary advantage of attracting mates by singing is an ultimate cause.
Explanation:
In biology, the difference between proximate causes and ultimate causes relates to the levels of explanation for a particular behavior or trait. Proximate causes refer to the immediate, mechanical explanations of a phenomenon. They are akin to the 'how' questions about biological processes. For example, the singing of a bird can be a proximate cause if we are considering the hormonal changes that trigger the bird's vocalization during the mating season. On the other hand, ultimate causes address the 'why' questions related to the evolutionary significance of a behavior or trait. They are the long-term evolutionary pressures that lead to the development of particular adaptations. An example of an ultimate cause would be the same bird's singing behavior, which has evolved because it provides an advantage in attracting mates and hence increases reproductive success.
Cause-and-effect relationships are core to understanding these concepts. The immediate cause (the spark) and the broader context (broader context) play different roles in explaining why certain events occur. Consider the spark as the proximate cause and the broader context as the ultimate cause.
Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photoyntheis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle?
A) CO2 and glucose
B) H20 and O2
C) ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D) electrons and H+
E) ATP and NADPH
Answer:
E) ATP and NADPH
Explanation:
Glucose is the main product of the photosynthesis, which is synthesised in two stages. First is the light-dependent stage which is called light reactions and the second stage is the light-independent stage, called dark reactions or Calvin cycle.
The light reactions occur in the thylakoid of chloroplast in presence of light. The chlorophyll molecules absorb sunlight and convert light energy into ATP and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate).
NADH and ATP are used in the Calvin cycle for the reduction of carbon dioxide into glucose.
The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). These energy-rich compounds are used in the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into a sugar molecule.
Explanation:In the process of photosynthesis, which occurs in plants, there are two main stages - the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. The light reactions take place in the thylakoid membrane and involve the production of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) using the energy from sunlight. Hence, the correct answer to your question is: E) ATP and NADPH.
These products (ATP and NADPH) are then used in the Calvin cycle, which takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts. The cycle uses these energy-rich compounds to fix carbon dioxide (CO2) into a sugar molecule (G3P - glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate), which can be converted into glucose or other sugars.
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Dysmenorrhea refers to pain or discomfort during menses.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Dysmenorrhea can be define as a condition in which pain occurs during menstrual cramps, that is due to uterine contractions.
Primary dysmenorrhea can be define as commonly occurring menstrual cramps. The secondary dysmenorrhea results from a disorder and pain in the reproductive organs.
Which of the following is an unsual nucleoside that is found in tRNA but not mRNA?
a. Adenine
b. Inosine
c. Proline
d. Phenylalanine
e. Guanine
Answer:
Inosine
Explanation:
Inosine the unusual nucleoside which is found in tRNA but not in mRNA. Inosine is derived from the nucleoside adenosine, adenosine is present in mRNA, however in case of tRNA, there is deamination of adenosine and thus, inosine is formed. The enzyme that is responsible for carrying out this reaction is called as tRNA A:34 deaminases, here the position 34 indicates that the deamination takes place at position 34 of the tRNA. The formation of inosine is essential for the wobble base pairing to take place. The formation of inosine takes place when the hypoxanthine attaches to a ribose ring with the help of the beta glycosidic bond.Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?
(A) disaccharide
(B) polysaccharide
(C) starch
(D) carbohydrate
Answer:
d. carbohydrate
Explanation:
All the others in the list are sugars or polymers of sugars (carbohydrates).
In the list are all sugars or sugar-based polymers (carbohydrates). Thus, D option is correct.
What is a carbohydrate?Sugar molecules make up carbohydrates, or carbs. Carbohydrates are one of the three primary nutrients included in foods and beverages, along with proteins and fats.
Glucose is created by your body's breakdown of carbs. The primary source of energy for the cells, tissues, and organs in your body is glucose, sometimes known as blood sugar.
The following are three examples of simple carbohydrates: monosaccharides. Disaccharides. Polysaccharides.
One of the main sources of dietary energy for people is starch, a type of carbohydrate that is frequently found in nature.
In the form of wheat, rice, potatoes, Starch is one of the three major types of carbohydrates, along with fiber and sugar.
Therefore, all sugars or sugar-based polymers (carbohydrates).
Learn more about carbohydrates here:
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