Answer:
b.Steady state
Explanation:
When a drug is in a steady state is usually defined as the time during which the drug remains stable when administered repeatedly or continuously (IV infusion) - this is the state where the rate of the drug entering the systemic circulation or drug administration equals to its rate of elimination out of the system. In the case where a drug is administered multiple times in fixed intervals the plasma concentration increases till it plateaus. This administration pattern will result in a steady-state concentration which is intended to be within the therapeutic window
The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue. 25 percent 68 percent 35 percent 15 percent 97 percent
Final answer:
The adult human brain contains almost 97 percent of the body's neural tissue. It is the control center of the nervous system and organism, weighing about 1.5 kg and occupying a volume of roughly 1.1 L. The brain uses about 20 percent of the body's total energy and primarily relies on glucose for energy.
Explanation:
The adult human brain contains almost 97 percent of the body's neural tissue.
The brain is the control center of the nervous system and the entire organism. It weighs about 1.5 kg and occupies a volume of roughly 1.1 L. The brain is made up of an estimated one hundred billion neurons, each with thousands of synaptic connections to other neurons. It also uses about 20 percent of the body's total energy and primarily relies on glucose for energy.
In anterograde amnesia ______. a. there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted c. communication between the medial temporal lobe and the association cortex remains unaffected d. declarative memory is not significantly altered
Answer:
The correct option is b. LTM (long term memory) is not disrupted.
Explanation:
Amnesia is a type of disorder that affects our memory, we talk about anterograde amnesia when it involves a serious damage/lost in our short-term memory (the long term memory is not disrupted), that is, it is the inability to create new memories. This selective memory deficit is caused by a brain lesion located in the hippocampus and in the areas of the medial temporal lobe. The hippocampus has the function of generating new memories, if it is affected, then it will be impossible to establish the memories.
Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories after a brain trauma. It does not disrupt long-term memory, but it hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Declarative memory is primarily affected, while procedural memory remains intact.
Explanation:Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories from a particular time forward. It is commonly caused by brain trauma, which affects the hippocampus. With anterograde amnesia, long-term memory (LTM) is not disrupted, but there is a loss of memory for events that occur after the brain trauma.
In anterograde amnesia, communication between the medial temporal lobe (where the hippocampus is located) and the association cortex remains unaffected. However, there is an inhibition of afferent inputs to the cerebral cortex, which hampers the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory.
While anterograde amnesia primarily affects declarative memory (the conscious memory of facts and events), it does not significantly alter procedural memory, which involves skills and habits.
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Upon his visit to Uganda, Churchill described the landscape as a "beautiful garden of death" because so many individuals were chronically infected with African Sleeping Sickness. What is the causative agent of this disease and its corresponding vector?
Answer:
It is caused by infection with protozoan parasites belonging to the genus Trypanosoma. It is a vector-borne parasitic disease transmited by the Tse-tse fly.
Explanation:
African sleeping sickness, named human African trypanosomiasis, is a vector-borne parasitic disease transmited by the Tse-tse fly (that belongs to the Glossina genus). These flies can acquire the parasite by biting infected humans or animals.
The causative agent is a protozoan of the genus Trypanosoma,
It is caused by infection with protozoan parasites belonging to the genus Trypanosoma. It can be Trypanosoma brucei gambiense or Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense has a prevalence of 98% of the reported cases, while Trypanosoma brucei gambiense accounts for the 2%.
Which group of air pollutants tend to cool the atmosphere because they reflect more sunlight back to space thus reducing incoming solar radiation? A. CFCs. B. ozone enhancers. C. nitrous oxides. D. atmospheric aerosols.
Answer:
D. atmospheric aerosols.
Explanation:
Atmospheric aerosols are tiny particles that float in the air. These particles could be liquid or solid and are usually suspended primarily by direct emission into the atmosphere or secondarily by condensation process.
Atmospheric aerosols have numerous effects on the biotic and abiotic factors of the environment. They alter air quality and impact human health in some cases, they can reduce atmospheric visibility, and they also reduce the amount of radiation that reaches the earth by scattering or reflecting some of the radiations from the sun back into space, leading to cooling of the atmosphere.
Every day your epidermis normally sheds dead skin cells. What is the first step in the process by which epidermal cells are replaced?
Final answer:
The first step in the replacement of epidermal cells involves cell division in the stratum basale layer of the epidermis. New keratinocytes form and ascend through the epidermis, becoming part of the protective stratum corneum before they are shed.
Explanation:
The first step in the process by which epidermal cells are replaced begins with the innermost layer of the epidermis, the stratum basale (or stratum germinativum). In this layer, cells continuously divide through mitosis to form new keratinocytes. These newly formed cells then start their journey upwards through the multiple layers of the epidermis, producing more of the protein keratin as they move.
As the new keratinocytes accumulate keratin, they undergo a process of cell death (apoptosis), and eventually integrate into the stratum corneum, the outermost layer, becoming the flat, dead skin cells that we see and that are ultimately shed. This cyclical process of cell renewal and shedding helps keep our skin's barrier function intact. The whole turnaround, from cell birth to shedding, takes about 4 weeks in a healthy adult.
Cellulose and glycogen are both homopolymers of glucose units. Humans cannot digest cellulose but can break down glycogen into individual glucose units. Which type of enzyme is lacking in humans that would allow them to break down cellulose? Hint: Look at the name of the enzyme to see the type of bond they are involved in breaking down through catalysis.
Answer:
the lacking in human is called Cellulase which is any of several enzymes produced chiefly by fungi, bacteria, and protozoans that catalyze cellulolysis and bring about the decomposition of cellulose and of some related polysaccharides.
A penetrating stab wound to the heart wall that causes blood to leak into the pericardial cavity would result in A penetrating stab wound to the heart wall that causes blood to leak into the pericardial cavity would result in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. endocarditis. cardiac tamponade. myocardial infarction.
Answer:
The correct answer is cardiac tamponade.
Explanation:
Cardiac tamponade is the cause of the pericardial space being filled with liquid. This syndrome occurs in emergencies, as is the example of a stab penetrating wound and if it is not treated urgently it can result in pulmonary edema, shock and even death.
What happens in this case is that the pericardium receives a high pressure which causes that the pumping of blood it is not carried out correctly, and the heart is compressed decreasing the filling during diastole.
The most appropriate procedure to treat this type of emergency is a pericardiocentesis that allows studying and draining the fluid lodged in the pericardium so that the pressure can decrease.
Consider the food chain of grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent) is available to the hawk? .
A) 0.01%
B) 0.1%
C) 1% .
D) 1090
Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact?A) a temporal reproductive isolating mechanism.B) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.C) a gametic reproductive isolating mechanism.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
A species is a group of similar organisms which interbreed with the individual of the same group of closely related individuals.
Species are reproductively isolated by various mechanisms, one of which is due to the behavior.
When the species are not able to reproduce to different species due to the differences in their behaviour in terms of mating rituals which could be due to different mating rituals or a different way of mating like observed in the grasshoppers is known as behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.
In grasshoppers, the grasshopper's species cannot interbreed due to the differences in the mating songs as a part of the behavior.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Different courtship songs in cricket populations act as a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism, facilitating mate recognition and preventing interbreeding between different populations.
Explanation:
If three populations of crickets have males with different courtship songs, the variation in song would likely serve as a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism if the populations came into contact. This behavioral distinction leads to mate recognition, where females respond only to the songs of males of their own population, thereby ensuring that mating occurs only within the same species or population. The song acts as a signal that is recognized by potential mates, which is crucial for maintaining species integrity and avoiding hybridization.
Courtship behaviors like the cricket's song play a critical role in species recognition. They allow individuals to identify and select appropriate mates from their own species. Another example of this is the use of specific light patterns by different species of fireflies to attract mates; females will only recognize and respond to the light pattern specific to their own species. This is a clear demonstration of behavioral reproductive isolation, where the presence or absence of a particular behavior prevents interbreeding and helps in maintaining species-specific characteristics.
By virtue of their reproductive cycle, all viruses must possess a mechanism for all of the below except exiting the cell. gaining entry into the host cell. using host cell enzymes to translate viral proteins. incorporating their genetic material into the host genome.
Answer:
All viruses possess a mechanism except exiting the cell
Explanation:
There are two main types of reproductive cycle in viruses, the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle.
In the lytic cycle, the bacteriophage attaches itself to the host cell through its tail fibers and gain contact with the host cell wall. The tip of the tail make a hole in the bacterial cell wall by means of enzyme lysozyme. Through this hole or point of entry, the viral genome enters the host cell and transcribe some mRNAs to form enzymes over the host ribosomes and degrades the host DNA and mRNAs. It takes over of the entire cellular machinery. Different components combine to form new phages particles or viruses The eclipse period is the period between entry of viral nucleoid into the host cell and the bursting of host cell to release new viruses.
Contrastingly, in lysogenic cycle, the phage DNA does not take over the control of cellular machinery of the host instead produces a repressor and undergoes reduction to temperate or non violent state.
A young child suffers a debilitating condition that includes progressive degeneration of the motor axons that innervate the masseter muscle. Which of the following muscles is most likely to exhibit the same fate?
A. Genioglossus
B. Tensor veli palatini
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Levator veli palatini
E. Stylopharyngeus
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. "Tensor veli palatini".
Explanation:
Masseter muscle plays an important role in chewing solid foods while the tensor veli palatini acts elevating the palate and preventing that food goes into the nasopharynx. A progressive degeneration of the motor axons that innervate the masseter muscle will likely produce a similar effect in the tensor veli palatini muscle. Not only both muscles have functions during chewing of food, but also both muscles are controlled by similar motor axons.
What is the main function of the ozone layer? a. to provide cloud cover for protection of polar regions b. to block most of the sun's damaging rays from reaching Earth c. to filter toxins from acid rain d. to trap carbon dioxide and warm the planet e. to provide a source of oxygen for photosynthesis
Answer:
The main function of the ozone layer is to block most of the sun's damaging rays from reaching Earth.
Option: (b)
Explanation:
The stratosphere containing high level of ozone molecules about 30 km to 50 km altitude helps to absorb the sun's ultra violate rays. In its absence, it would be very difficult for anything to survive. Plants cannot live and grow as the UV light causes weakening of plants. It causes skin cancers. The increase in UV flux will lead to increase in sunburn, blindness, cataract, causing potentially death of animals and plants.Research has indicated that during the inflammatory response to P. acnes, both the classical and the alternative complement pathways are activated. Which of the following are outcomes of activating complement pathways?
Select all that apply.
A. activation of T cytotoxic cells
B. inflammation
C. generation of antibodies against P. acnes
D. opsonization
E. cytolysis
Answer:
The correct answers are options B, D and E.
Explanation:
One of the essential parts of the innate immune system is the complement system. This system performs an essential function in elevating the tendency of antibodies and phagocytic cells to eliminate the pathogens. There are three biochemical pathways, which instigate the complement system that comprises the classical, alternative, and lectin complement pathway.
The fundamental activities of the complement system are opsonization, cell lysis, chemotaxis, and agglutination. The process of cytolysis takes place through the complement pathway by the generation of membrane attack complex in the raiding cells. The complement pathway also leads to inflammation.
A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme
Answer:
The correct answer is option C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response.
Explanation:
Our body has an immune response mechanism for when we get hurt or when it feels that something outside our body wants to harm us, so its automatic reaction is to defend against all those bacteria and viruses that want to attack us.
The system is responsible for identifying the antigens and destroying them. The antigens are all bacteria, harmful viruses and dead substances that are found on the cells. Our system has its own proteins that are HLA antigens. But as these are normal for the body, it does not counterattack them.
There are several defense mechanisms that work as barriers to prohibit the passage of any bacteria that harm us, and one of these mechanisms is inflammation.
In this case, when our body suffers some kind of injury from a bacterium, a cut or a blow, the damaged cells release substances that spill onto the tissue through the blood vessels, causing inflammation.
This allows the foreign substance to be “locked up” and cannot enter the body.
These spilled substances also attract white blood cells, which are called phagocytes which are responsible for eating dead germs and cells through the phagocytosis process.
Which cranial nerve carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain?
Answer: Optic Nerve
Explanation: The optic nerve also called cranial nerve II. It is the connector btw the eye and brain. It is the nerve that carries visual images from the eyes to the brain.
There is a nerve called the retina. The visual message is sent through the retina to the brain.
The optic nerve carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain.
Explanation:The cranial nerve that carries visual information from the eyeball to the brain is the Optic Nerve (Cranial Nerve II). It is responsible for transmitting visual signals from the retina to the visual processing centers in the brain, primarily to the occipital lobe. The optic nerve consists of over a million nerve fibers that combine to form a thick bundle that exits the back of each eye and then converge at the optic chiasm, where some fibers cross over to the opposite side of the brain, while others remain on the same side.
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The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the
Answer: Spinal Meninges
Explanation:
Answer is spinal meninges
Spinal meninges are specialize membranes that surrounds the spinal cord and the brain. Spinal meninges consist of three membrane layers that surround the spinal cord. The three membrane layers are dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
Dura mater: The outermost and the thickest membrane.
Arachnoid mater is the middle layer which connects the dura mater and the pia mater.
Pia mater is the innermost layer, it forms a coat around the spinal cord and brain.
Also cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are liquid that circulate the Spinal Meninges.
Ah! I smell cookies baking! I cannot wait to taste them: warm and sweet! Smell and taste are closely related senses. Identify the one statement that does not describe these two senses. A) If an organism does not have a receptor for a particular odor molecule, for that organism, the odor has no smell. B) Both smell and taste use chemoreceptors, which means they are both sensing the chemical environment. C) If one’s sense of smell is not functional, then the sense of taste will also not function. D) The senses of smell and taste combine at the back of the nasal passage
Answer:The answer to this question is D: The senses of smell and taste combine at the back of the nasal passage.
When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F₁ generation flies to each other, the F₂ generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome
B) The involved gene was on the Y chromosome.
C) The involved gene was on an autosome.
D) Other in.ilc-spccific factors influence eye color in flies
E) Other fc.nalc-sjxcific factors influence eye color in flics.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Thomas Hunt Morgan performed the experiment in 1910 on the Drosophila which explained the role played by the chromosomes in heredity. When Morgan crossed red-eyed flies he observed that F₂ flies included both red ad white-eyed flies in which the males are white-eyed only.
Morgan concluded that the genetic factor which controlled the eye color was present on the same chromosome which determined the sex of the flies. This indicated that the gene in involved on the X chromosome and the male is hemizygous for the trait.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
The explanation for the observed outcome of Thomas Hunt Morgan's fruit fly experiment is that the gene for eye color was on the X chromosome. The white-eyed flies were all male due to inheriting this gene from their mothers, as males only have one X chromosome and thus cannot mask the expression of recessive traits.
Explanation:The explanation for the observed phenomenon in Thomas Hunt Morgan’s experiment pertains to the genes and where they are located. In this case, the correct explanation is A) The involved gene was on the X chromosome. This is because in fruit flies, which is what Morgan used, the sex is determined by the XY system, where males are XY and females are XX. If a male receives a recessive gene (like the one for white eyes) it will be expressed because he has no other allele on a second X to mask it. This is why all the white-eyed flies were male in Morgan’s F₂ generation, as they inherited the white-eye gene on their X chromosome from their mother.
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Water particles adhere tightly to soil particles due to _____. a. adhesive properties of minerals in the soil b. hydrogen bonding with negative charges on soil particles c. the small spaces between particles through which gravity can draw the water d. ionic bonding with negative charges on soil particles e. hydrogen bonding with positive charges on soil particles
A
Water in the soil is held tightly by adhesive forces between the water molecules and the mineral content in soil particles - in the microspores.
Explanation:
While water passes through the macrospores of soil by gravity, water passes through the microspores mainly by cohesion between the water molecules and adhesion between the water molecules and soil minerals. The more surface area for the minerals in the soil (due to finer particle sizes) the higher the water retention rate of the soil. This is why soil with more humus (like silt and clay) retains water more than soils like sand.
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What is this an example of:
a) a cow who's coat color is roan (red and white)
b) A red flower and a white flower produce a pink flower
c) In rabbits there are 4 different versions of the gene for coat color
Answer:
A) a cow who's coat color is roan (red and white) : Co- dominance
B) A red flower and a white flower produce a pink flower: Incomplete dominance
C) In rabbits there are 4 different versions of the gene for coat color- Multiple alleles
Explanation:
Co-dominance can be described as a phenomenon in which the two different phenotypes of the parents can be seen in the offspring produced by them. For example, In the option A, the cow had a parent with red coat colour and a parent with a white coat colour. Both these traits were seen in the offspring.
Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which parents of two different phenotypes give rise to a new phenotype in the offspring which is not present in both of the parents.
It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information. Which of the following characteristics of DNA is responsible for this?:
a. sequence of bases
b. sugar-phosphate backbones
c. complimentary base pairs
d. side groups
e. 5-carbon sugars
Answer: a. Sequence of bases
Explanation:
James Watson and Francis Crick, discovered the famous double helix structure or spiral staircase, found in DNA.
DNA is a molecule composed of a sugar-phosphate backbone, which consists of 5-carbon deoxyribose sugars and phosphate groups. The monomers of DNA are called nucleotides, and each one contains a phosphate group, a sugar group and a base. A sequence of bases is a succession of letters representing the primary structure of DNA with the ability to carry information. The letters are A, C, G, and T, which symbolize the four nucleotide subunits of a DNA (adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine) And there is a complementary base pairing which is the phenomenon where guanine always bonds to cytosine, and adenine always binds to thymine.
The sequence of bases in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids in a particular protein, which will have a specific structure and function.
Classify a fiber tract that communicates between the left prefrontal lobe and the left parietal lobe.
Answer:
The answer is association fibers
Explanation:
Association fibers communicate between gyri in the same cerebral hemisphere.
The gyri is a ridge tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemisphere.
A physician orders a general health panel, all tests except a creatinine, including cbc with automated differential. what cpt® code(s) is/are reported?
Answer:
The answers are 85025, 84443, 82040, 82247, 82310, 82374, 82435, 82947, 84075, 84132, 84155, 84295, 84460, 84450, 84520.
Explanation:
The panel codes cannot be reported unless the physcian species exactly which tests were performed in the patient. If any test is left out, this test will need to be coded individually.
What aspect of dna structure makes it possible for the proteins of nucleotide excision repair to recognize many different types of dna damage?
Answer:
The regularity of DNA's overall structure.
Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material of almost all the living organisms but RNA may also acts as the genetic material in some viruses only. The mutation in DNA may cause characteristic disease in individual.
The nucleotide excision repair mechanism excise the wrong nucletide and replace with the correct nucleotide. The overall DNA structure like its nucleotide sequence, the size and angles between the DNA base pair, its methylation helps in recognizing different DNA type.
Thus, the correct answer is the regularity of DNA's overall structure.
The structure of DNA allows the nucleotide excision repair mechanism to identify and fix various types of DNA damage. The mechanism works by unwinding the DNA, removing the damaged segment, and replacing it with correct nucleotides using the complementary strand as a guide. Then, the DNA strand is resealed and rejoined to its complement.
Explanation:The aspect of DNA structure that enables the recognition of various types of DNA damage is especially linked to the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. In this process, erroneous or damaged bases, such as those that may arise from UV-induced thymine dimers, are identified and excised by certain repair proteins. The DNA molecule is unwound, and the damaged segment gets removed by making an incision on both the 3' and 5' ends of the damaged base.
After the removal of the defective nucleotides, the DNA molecule undergoes reparation, during which the correct nucleotides are added in alignment with the complementary strand. This repair, the fill-in of the correct nucleotides, is facilitated by an enzyme named DNA polymerase. Post that, the DNA strand gets sealed and is allowed to rejoin its complement. The ends of the newly synthesized fragment are attached to the remaining DNA using another enzyme called DNA ligase, which forms a phosphodiester bond.
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During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the spindle equator?
Chromosomes line up at the spindle equator, or metaphase plate, during the metaphase phase of mitosis. This alignment is crucial for even chromatid distribution during cell division.
Explanation:During the mitosis phase known as metaphase, chromosomes, which consist of sister chromatids, align at the spindle equator, also referred to as the metaphase plate or the equatorial plane. This alignment ensures that when the cell divides during anaphase, the sister chromatids will separate evenly and be distributed to the two daughter cells. The attachment of spindle fibers to the centromeres of each pair of sister chromatids is integral to this process.
Recall that Zajonc placed cockroaches either in a complex maze or a simple maze. He created three other conditions as well. Any given cockroach was induced to navigate the maze (a) entirely alone, (b) in the presence of an "audience" of cockroaches, or (c) simultaneously with another cockroach (but without an audience). The audience condition (b) permitted Zajonc to demonstrate whether:
a. audiences pay attention to competitors.
b. the mere presence of others can facilitate or hinder performance.
c. complex tasks are performed less well than simple tasks.
d. competitive situations are preferred over solitary situations.
Answer:
The audience condition permitted Zajonc to demonstrate whether the mere presence of others can facilitate or hinder performance.
Option: (b)
Explanation:
R. B. Zajonc presented a "theory of social facilitation". He organized an experiment with the cockroaches to find if there was any noticeable change in the mean number of dominant responses acted between the participants in the audience condition and the one in the solitude environment. It was found that there was difference which proves the social facilitation theory, that the presence of audience can hinder the performance.Charles Darwin developed the theory that explains how new species develop based on evidence from many different kinds of scientific inquiry. Darwin’s theory can only be accurate if the earth is very old. The scientists who provided evidence for the earth’s old age were most likely: a) astronomers such as Edwin Hubble. b) geologists such as James Hutton. c) biologists such as Francis Crick. d) physicists such as Marie Curie.
Answer:
The correct option is b) geologists such as James Hutton
Explanation:
Charles Darwin brought forward the theory that new species developed from older species. The species which were better adapted to live in an environment survived and passed on their traits to the offsprings.
As evolution took long periods of time hence, for evolution to occur the Earth must be very old. Geologist such as James Hutton worked out to find the history of the Earth and James Hutton believed that processes such as sedimentation and erosion could be used to diagnose the history of the Earth.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Give an example of how the rock cycle can change one type of rock into another
The three main rock types are igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary. The three processes that change one rock to another are crystallization, metamorphism, and erosion and sedimentation. Any rock can transform into any other rock by passing through one or more of these processes. This creates the rock cycle
Answer: in the picture
Explanation:
Mendel discovered that the allele for green seed pods (G) is dominant to the allele for yellow seed pods (g). He crossed true-breeding (homozygous) parental plants with green (GG) and yellow (gg) seed pods to produce an F1 generation, all of which were heterozygous (Gg) with green seed pods. He then crossed two of these F1 plants to produce an F2 generation.
Drag the genotypes and phenotypes from the left to correctly complete the Punnett square for the F2 generation. Drag only blue labels to blue targets and pink labels to pink targets. Labels may be used more than once.
Answer:
GG, Gg, Gg, gg
Homozygous green – GG
Heterozygous green – Gg
Homozygous yellow - gg
Explanation:
It is given that allele for green seed pods (G) is dominant to the allele for yellow seed pods (g) which means that if “G” and “g” occur together, a trait associated with G will be expressed.
The genotype of the true breeding Green plant is “GG”
The genotype of the true-breeding yellow plant is “gg”
F1 generation cross
GG * gg
Offspring produced from F1 generation are – Gg, Gg, Gg, Gg
In f2 generation offspring of F1 generation are crossed among each other.
So the offspring produced in F2 generation are
Gg * Gg
GG, Gg, Gg, gg
Homozygous green – GG
Heterozygous green – Gg
Homozygous yellow - gg
Preparation for the "rest and digest" response includes activation of the ________ nervous system. Preparation for the "rest and digest" response includes activation of the ________ nervous system. parasympathetic sensory sympathetic somatic]
Answer:
parasympathetic
Explanation:
The parasympathetic nervous system is the part of the autonomic division and is responsible for rest and digest response during rest and recovery time. The parasympathetic nervous system serves to restore and conserve energy. The parasympathetic division is also called housekeeper division since it promotes all the internal responses associated with a relaxed body state. It causes the contraction of the pupil of the eye, promotes digestion and absorption of food, and slows down the heartbeat and other body functions that support the physical activity.